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OCULAR PHARMACOLOGY AAA

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 13hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

where does cyclopentolate belong

a)

cholinomimetic agent

b)

adrenomimetic agent

c)

parasympatholytic agent

d)

sympatholytic agent

2.

MOA of 2% cyclopentolate

a)

inhibit Ach by acting directly on receptor site

b)

inhibit AchE allowing released Ach to act on receptor

c)

enhance the release of Ach at presynaptic neuron

d)

mimic the effect of Ach at receptor site

3.

what are the ocular effects of 2% cyclopentolate during refraction

a)

produce mydriasis with cycloplegia

b)

produce mydriasis w/o cycloplegia

c)

produce miosis with accommodation

d)

produce miosis w/o accommodation

4.

color cap of ophthalmic cyclopentolate

a)

red

b)

green

c)

brown

d)

blue

5.

classify cyclopentolate according to its use

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

6.

reason why the child suddenly manifests behavioral changes

a)

child is happy because she can now see clearly with her new eyeglasses

b)

child is sad because she does not like the eyeglasses

c)

CNS side effect at 2% cyclopentolate

d)

ANS side effect at 2% cyclopentolate

7.

safest concentration of the cyclopentolate to prevent behavioral changes in the child

a)

0.5%

b)

5%

c)

0.05%

d)

10%

8.

safest diagnostic ophthalmic mydriatic medication for a 10 year old

a)

0.5% atropine

b)

0.5% tropicamide

c)

2.5% phenylephrine

d)

4% cocaine

9.

which among the ff. mydriatic and cycloplegic agent is the strongest

a)

0.5% atropine

b)

0.5% tropicamide

c)

2.5% phenylephrine

d)

2% cyclopentolate

10.

which among the ff. mydriatic and cycloplegic agent is the weakest

a)

0.5% atropine

b)

0.5% tropicamide

c)

2.5% phenylephrine

d)

2% cyclopentolate

11.

mydriatic and cycloplegic agent has rapid onset of action which can dilate the pupils in 15-20 minutes

a)

0.5% atropine

b)

0.5% tropicamide

c)

2.5% phenylephrine

d)

2% cyclopentolate

12.

where does 2.5% phenylephrine belong

a)

cholinomimetic agent

b)

adrenomimetic agent

c)

parasympatholytic agent

d)

sympatholytic agent

13.

classify 2.5% phenylephrine according to its selectivity

a)

selective a1 agonist

b)

non selective adrenergic agonist

c)

selective a1 blocker

d)

non selective adrenergic blocker

14.

ocular effects of 2.5% phenylephrine during refraction

a)

produce mydriasis with cycloplegia

b)

produce mydriasis w/o cycloplegia

c)

produce miosis with accommodation

d)

produce miosis w/o accommodation

15.

which of the ff. is NOT the ocular structures interacted upon by 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

ciliary muscles

b)

radial muscles of iris

c)

conjunctival arteries

d)

mueller's muscles of eyelids

16.

the ff. are ocular effect of using 2.5% phenylephrine except

a)

accommodation

b)

mydriasis

c)

conjunctival arterey blanching

d)

lid retraction

17.

color cap of ophthalmic 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

red

b)

green

c)

brown

d)

blue

18.

classify 2.5% phenylephrine according to its use

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

19.

after doing refraction for distance, px was advice to read at RSTC for near vision. why is it that the px could be able to read with corrected eyeglasses even though pupils are dilated

a)

because px has cataract and become more myopic

b)

because phenylephrine only dilates the pupils without affecting the ciliary muscles

c)

because the pupils of the px constrict to increase the DOF

d)

because px has better lighting as compared at home

20.

the ff. are contra indication of 2.5% - 10% phenylephrine except

a)

hypertension

b)

bronchial asthma

c)

myocardial infarction

d)

congestive heart failure

21.

why is it that px manifest chest and nape pain using 10% phenylephrine

a)

px failed to take antihypertensive agent

b)

phenylephrine elevates the blood pressure

c)

phenylephrine dilate cerebral arteries that causes HA

d)

dilated pupils cause HA on the px

22.

as an optometrist, what will you do to the px after suffering chest and nape pain using 20% phenylephrine

a)

give him a potent analgesic to relieved the pain

b)

give him sublingual Nifedipine to lower the BP

c)

advice the px to take his medication and go the nearby medical clinic for further evaluation

d)

continue doing the refraction, it will pass away

23.

what is the reversing agent to the mydriatic effect of 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

0.5% dapiprazole

b)

0.5% tropicamide

c)

4% cocaine

d)

0.5% proparacaine

24.

ocular side effect of 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

melanin like (adenochrome) deposits at cornea

b)

optic neuritis and optic nerve atrophy

c)

xanthopsia

d)

retinopathy

25.

what is the type of glaucoma if the px's IOP was elevated after using 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

primary angle closure glaucoma

b)

primary open angle glaucoma

c)

secondary angle closure glaucoma

d)

secondary open angle glaucoma

26.

which of the ff. is NOT the ocular effect of 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

contraction of dilator pupillae

b)

conjunctival blanching acting as ocular decongestant

c)

contraction of mueller muscles of eyelids

d)

ciliary injection

27.

condition using 2.5% phenylephrine which relieves incomplete ptosis

a)

adie's pupil

b)

argyll robertson pupil

c)

marcus gunn pupil

d)

horner's syndrome

28.

propriety name of 2.5% phenylephrine if the medication will be bought at drug store

a)

mydriacyl

b)

miostat

c)

mydfrin

d)

atroptal

29.

if the ophthalmologists instil one drop every 5 minutes for 3 doses at 9:00am, what time will the pupil start to dilate

a)

9:15am

b)

1:00pm

c)

9:30am

d)

9:00pm

30.

at what time will the pupil start to react on light after instillation of 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

9:15am

b)

1:00pm

c)

9:30am

d)

9:00pm

31.

reason why 3 dose every 5 minutes are usually done to attain maximum pupillary dilatation

a)

first 2 doses bind with melanin pigments while last dose binds with dilator pupillae

b)

first 2 doses will egress to puncta lacrimalis while the last dose pass the cornea barriers

c)

to prolonged the contact time of the medication

d)

that is what the ophthalmologists are usually doing

32.

reversing agent to the mydriatic effect of phenylephrine

a)

0.5% timolol

b)

0.5% apraclonidine

c)

0.5% proparacaine

d)

0.5% dapiprazole

33.

color cap of the reversing agent of 2.5% phenylephrine

a)

red

b)

green

c)

brown

d)

blue

34.

diagnostic dye in strip used by the licensed optometrist

a)

fluorescein dye

b)

lissamine green dye

c)

rose bengal dye

d)

indocyanine green dye

35.

the ff. diagnostic dyes act by staining devitalized cells except

a)

fluorescein dye

b)

lissamine green dye

c)

rose bengal dye

d)

indocyanine green dye

36.

which dye for angiography will shows the not only the retinal vessels but also the choroidal vessels

a)

fluorescein dye

b)

lissamine green dye

c)

rose bengal dye`

d)

indocyanine green dye

37.

the ff. are the indications of using fluorescein dye in strip except

a)

fitting of hard cl

b)

TBUT

c)

angiography

d)

jones test 1

38.

indication of using fluorescein dye in TBUT

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine the pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhages

d)

measures intraocular pressure

39.

indication of using fluorescein dye during angiography

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine the pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhages

d)

measures intraocular pressure

40.

indication of using fluorescein dye in Fluorescein dye test 1

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine the pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhages

d)

measures intraocular pressure

41.

indication of using fluorescein dye using applanation tonometer

a)

determine the patency of lacrimal passage

b)

determine if there is mucin deficiency that causes dry eye syndrome

c)

determine the pattern of retinal vessels for any obstruction or hemorrhages

d)

measures intraocular pressure

42.

what is the importance of doing seidel test using fluorescein dye

a)

determine aqueous leakage post intraocular operations

b)

determine if there is epithelial breaks wherein the dye is located at anterior aqueous chamber

c)

shows corneal dendritic pattern on cornea

d)

shows fishnet mosaic pattern of pre corneal tear film

43.

what is the importance of doing pseudoflare using fluorescein dye

a)

determine aqueous leakage post intraocular operations

b)

determine if there is epithelial breaks wherein the dye is located at anterior aqueous chamber

c)

shows corneal dendritic pattern on cornea

d)

shows fishnet mosaic pattern of pre corneal tear film

44.

what is the importance of doing fisher-schweizer's corneal patterns using fluorescein dye

a)

determine aqueous leakage post intraocular operations

b)

determine if there is epithelial breaks wherein the dye is located at anterior aqueous chamber

c)

shows corneal dendritic pattern on cornea

d)

shows fishnet mosaic pattern of pre corneal tear film

45.

what is the importance of using fluorescein dye in herpetic keratitis

a)

determine aqueous leakage post intraocular operations

b)

determine if there is epithelial breaks wherein the dye is located at anterior aqueous chamber

c)

shows corneal dendritic pattern on cornea

d)

shows fishnet mosaic pattern of pre corneal tear film

46.

most common living microbe contaminant of fluorescein dye

a)

fusarium

b)

escherichia coli

c)

staphylococcus aureus

d)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

47.

what is present in fluress that will prevent overgrowth of most common living microbe contaminant of fluorescein dye

a)

sodium borate

b)

benoxinate

c)

EDTA

d)

BAK

48.

filter used during slit lamp examination using fluorescein dye

a)

cobalt blue

b)

green filter

c)

yellow light

d)

red filter

49.

MOA of fluorescein dye

a)

pass and stain corneal epithelial breaks

b)

stain mucus secretions

c)

stain dead devitalized cells

d)

AOTA

50.

interpret if the result on TBUT using fluorescein dye is 7 seconds

a)

pxs have dry eye syndrome

b)

px have normal tear film

c)

px have blockage at lacrimal passage

d)

px have increase lacrimal secretion

51.

interpret if the result on jones test showed heavily stained irrigant (NSS) with fluorescein dye

a)

pxs have dry eye syndrome

b)

px have normal tear film

c)

px have blockage at lacrimal passage

d)

px have increase lacrimal secretion

52.

interpret if the result on schirmer's test with anesthesia combine with fluorescein dye is >30mm

a)

pxs have dry eye syndrome

b)

px have normal tear film

c)

px have lacrimation

d)

NOTA

53.

local ester anesthesia is instilled initially before schirmer's test and applanation tonometry. what is the most common approved local ester anesthetic agent used by the optometrist

a)

0.4% benoxinate

b)

2% cocaine

c)

0.5% proparacaine

d)

2% lidocaine

54.

0.5% proparacaine was instilled at 11am prior to pterygium excision. at what time will the ophthalmologist will instill another drop so that the the px will not feel the pain prior to sub conjunctival injection of another local anesthetic agent

a)

11:30AM

b)

11:20AM

c)

11:45AM

d)

after 5 minutes of instillation

55.

propriety name of 0.5% proparacaine

a)

mydriacyl

b)

miostat

c)

mydfrin

d)

alcaine

56.

classify 0.5% tropicamide

a)

cholinomimetic agent

b)

adrenomimetic agent

c)

parasympatholyticagent

d)

sympatholytic

agent

57.

what are the ocular effects of 0.5% tropicamide during refraction

a)

produce mydriasis with cycloplegia

b)

produce mydriasis w/o cycloplegia

c)

produce miosis with accommodation

d)

produce miosis w/o accommodation

58.

color cap of 0.5% tropicamide

a)

red

b)

green

c)

brown

d)

blue

59.

classify 0.5% tropicamide according to its use

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective

60.

classify 2% pilocarpine

a)

cholinomimetic agent

b)

adrenomimetic agent

c)

parasympatholytic agent

d)

sympatholytic agent

61.

why is it that pilocarpine is given immediately after instillation of tropicamide

a)

it will reverse the mydriatic effect of tropicamide to widen the trabecular angle

b)

it will reverse the mydriatic effect of tropicamide to narrow the trabecular angle

c)

it will lower the IOP by decreasing the aqueous humor secretion

d)

AOTA

62.

color cap of 2% pilocarpine

a)

red

b)

green

c)

brown

d)

blue

63.

classify 2% pilocarpine according to its use to prevent elevation of IOP

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

64.

why is it that the px was subjected for cycloplegic refraction rather than using auto-refraction

a)

px is not in right mental condition

b)

px might not be educated to identify object

c)

px is uncooperative during actual refraction

d)

AOTA

65.

main contraindication of using 0.5% tropicamide

a)

primary angle close glaucoma

b)

primary open angle glaucoma

c)

mental disorder

d)

cycloplegic refraction

66.

how does 2% pilocarpine lower the IOP

a)

open the trabecular by contraction of ciliary muscles

b)

widen the trabecular angle by contraction of sphincter pupillae

c)

enhance the outflow of the aqueous humor

d)

AOTA

67.

propriety name of 2% pilocarpine

a)

mydriacyl

b)

isopto carpine

c)

mydfrin

d)

alcaine

68.

propriety name of 0.5% tropicamide

a)

mydriacyl

b)

isopto carpine

c)

mydfrin

d)

alcaine

69.

time wherein pilocarpine will reverse the mydriatic effect of tropicamide if the tropicamide was instilled at 3pm

a)

3:30pm

b)

4:00pm

c)

4:30pm

d)

5:00pm

70.

how long will be the miotic effect of pilocarpine after instillation

a)

4 hours

b)

2 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

24 hours

71.

which is better to use in suspected angle closure glaucoma

a)

2% pilocarpine

b)

2% cyclopentolate

c)

0.5% tropicamide

d)

1% atropine

72.

a 43 y/o female optometry student is reviewing for board examination. Every time that she started to review her notes, she manifested sudden ocular pain, seeing halos around light and blurring of vision. She consulted an ophthalmologist and was diagnosed with glaucoma. The ff. are the medication given to control the IOP: oral acetazolamide and Travaprost combine with timolol ophthalmic solution. What do you think is the type of glaucoma manifested by the px

a)

primary angle closure glaucoma

b)

primary open angle glaucoma

c)

secondary angle closure glaucoma

d)

secondary open angle glaucoma

73.

which of the ff. procedures will NOT confirm the diagnosis of glaucoma

a)

perimetry

b)

tonometry

c)

shadow test

d)

biomicroscopy

74.

what is the type of red eye manifested by the px with glaucoma

a)

conjunctival injection

b)

ciliary injection

c)

subconjunctival hemorrhage

d)

retinal hemorrhage

75.

where does travaprost belong as anti-glaucoma agent

a)

beta blocker

b)

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

c)

prostaglandin analog

d)

cholinomimetic agent

76.

what the MOA of travaprost to lower IOP in glaucoma

a)

decreasing the aqueous humor secretions

b)

enhanced the uveoscleral outflow

c)

enhancing the outflow directly opening the trabecular meshwork

d)

enhancing outflow by ciliary muscles contraction (accommodation)

77.

what is the color cap of ophthalmic travaprost

a)

blue or yellow

b)

green

c)

orange

d)

turquoise

78.

classify travaprost according to its use

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

79.

where does timolol belong as anti-glaucoma agent

a)

beta blocker

b)

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

c)

prostaglandin analog

d)

cholinomimetic agent

80.

what the MOA of timolol to lower IOP in glaucoma

a)

decreasing the aqueous humor secretions

b)

enhanced the uveoscleral outflow

c)

enhancing the outflow directly opening the trabecular meshwork

d)

enhancing the outflow by ciliary muscles contraction (accommodation)

81.

what is the color cap of ophthalmic timolol

a)

blue or yellow

b)

green

c)

orange

d)

turquoise

82.

classify timolol according to its use

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

83.

where does acetazolamide belong as anti glaucoma agent

a)

beta blocker

b)

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

c)

prostaglandin analog

d)

cholinomimetic agent

84.

what the MOA of acetazolamide to lower IOP in glaucoma

a)

decreasing the aqueous humor secretions

b)

enhanced the uveoscleral outflow

c)

enhancing the outflow directly opening the trabecular meshwork

d)

enhancing the outflow by ciliary muscles contraction (accommodation)

85.

if ophthalmic dorzolamide was given instead of acetazolamide, what is the color cap of dorzolamide

a)

blue or yellow

b)

green

c)

orange

d)

turquoise

86.

classify dorzolamide according to its use

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

87.

if pilocarpine was also given as anti glaucoma agent, where does it belong

a)

beta blocker

b)

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

c)

prostaglandin analog

d)

cholinomimetic agent

88.

how does pilocarpine lower IOP in glaucoma

a)

decreasing the aqueous humor secretions

b)

enhanced the uveoscleral outflow

c)

enhancing the outflow directly opening the trabecular meshwork

d)

enhancing the outflow by ciliary muscles contraction (accommodation)

89.

what is the color cap of ophthalmic pilocarpine

a)

blue or yellow

b)

green

c)

orange

d)

turquoise

90.

if the px hx reveals previous medical hx of iridocyclitis, what is the px type of glaucoma

a)

primary angle closure glaucoma w/o pupillary block

b)

primary open angle glaucoma

c)

secondary angle closure glaucoma with pupillary block

d)

secondary open angle glaucoma w/o pupillary block

91.

if surgery warrant the treatment in px with iridocyclitis, what is the best surgical management to control the IOP

a)

laser iridotomy

b)

trabeculectomy

c)

vitrectomy

d)

laster assisted in situ keratomileusis

92.

a 30 y/o male px seek for eye refraction. He was diagnosed with horner's syndrome. refraction revealed no EOR but on physical eye examination, there was pathologic conditions. which of the pathologic eye conditions is NOT typically present in Horner's syndrome

a)

partial blepharoptosis

b)

miosis

c)

anhidrosis

d)

esotropia of the OS

93.

what causes ptosis in Horner's syndrome

a)

injury on parasympathetic nerve innervating the dilator pupillae

b)

weakness of the mueller's muscles of eyelids

c)

injury on sympathetic nerve innervating the sphincter pupillae

d)

weakness of the ciliary muscles

94.

what is the initial ophthalmic medication (screening test) to test horner's syndrome

a)

4% cocaine

b)

1% hydroxyamphetamine

c)

2.5% phenylephrine

d)

1% epinephrine

95.

if the initial test ophthalmic medication will not dilate the pupil in horner's syndrome, what is the next ophthalmic medication to confirm the diagnosis

a)

4% cocaine

b)

1% hydroxyamphetamine

c)

2.5% phenylephrine

d)

1% epinephrine

96.

if the confirmatory medication that the eye doctor used will not dilate the pupil in Horner's syndrome, where is the probable lesion located

a)

preganglionic sympathetic nerve

b)

postganglionic sympathetic nerve

c)

at the pretectal nucleus of midbrain

d)

at edinger westphal nucleus of midbrain

97.

which of the ff. eye drops will dilate the pupil in horner's syndrome since this px is hyperreactive to mydriatic agent

a)

4% cocaine

b)

1% hydroxyamphetamine

c)

2.5% phenylephrine

d)

0.1% epinephrine

98.

classify cocaine used in Horner's syndrome

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

99.

classify hydroxyamphetamine used in Horner's syndrome

a)

diagnostic agent

b)

curative agent

c)

palliative agent

d)

protective agent

100.

which of the ff. is NOT the characteristic of fluorescein dye

a)

smallest of ophthalmic dye with molecular weight of 376

b)

stain devitalized cells and mucus

c)

give yellow green color on cobalt blue filter

d)

safely use in strip than in solution to prevent contamination

101.

what intraocular dye introduced during phacoemulsification

a)

lissamine green dye

b)

fluorescein dye

c)

indocyanine green dye

d)

trypan blue dye

102.

what is the use of introducing intraocular dye during phacoemulsification

a)

to stain the cataractous crystalline lens

b)

to stain the anterior lens capsule during capsulorrhexis

c)

to stain the posterior lens capsule during capsulorrhexis

d)

to stain site of incision at cornea if there is corneal leakage after phacoemulsification

103.

why biometry is done prior to phacoemulsification

a)

measure the power of the cornea and length of the eye

b)

measure the power of the lens and the cornea

c)

measure the power of the lens and length of the eye

d)

measure the power of the lens & cornea plus length of the eye

104.

if the IOL implants became opaque after 5 years it is implanted, what is the best method to remove the opacity after phacoemulsification with IOL implant

a)

subject the px again for phacoemulsification and replaced the opaque IOL implant

b)

subject the px for YAG laser to punch a hole on posterior opaque capsule

c)

subject the px for photocoagulation

d)

subject the px for LASIK or LASEK

105.

which of the ff. characteristic of fluorescein dye that gives fishnet-like pattern of fluorescein in tear film after rubbing the eye instilled with fluorescein dye

a)

seidel test

b)

fisher-schweizer's corneal mosaic

c)

quenching phenomenon

d)

pseudoflare

106.

which of the ff. characteristic of fluorescein dye wherein the fluorescence or luminosity losses as the concentration of fluorescein dye increases to >0.001%

a)

seidel test

b)

fisher-schweizer's corneal mosaic

c)

quenching phenomenon

d)

pseudoflare

107.

which of the ff. characteristic of fluorescein dye wherein the fluorescence or luminosity losses as the pH of the dye increases to >8pH

a)

seidel test

b)

fisher-schweizer's corneal mosaic

c)

quenching phenomenon

d)

pseudoflare

108.

which of the ff. characteristic of fluorescein dye appearing as greenish glow behind the cornea once the fluorescein dye is instilled on the cornea and penetrate whole corneal layers into the aqueous chamber due to corneal epithelial damage

a)

seidel test

b)

fisher-schweizer's corneal mosaic

c)

quenching phenomenon

d)

pseudoflare

109.

which of the ff. characteristic of fluorescein dye once instilled on eye, the dye is seen flowing downward from surgical or penetrating wound on the cornea appearing as bright green in contrast to duller, yellow - orange background

a)

seidel test

b)

fisher-schweizer's corneal mosaic

c)

quenching phenomenon

d)

pseudoflare

110.

which of the ff. is NOT the indication of using fluorescein dye using strip

a)

TBUT

b)

Jones test

c)

RGP cl fitting

d)

fluorescein angiography

111.

ophthalmic dye which has NO strip preparation, given ONLY intravenous

a)

lissamine green dye

b)

indocyanin green dye

c)

rose bengal dye

d)

fluorescein dye

112.

which of the ff. dye does NOT stain devitalized cells on cornea and conjunctiva

a)

lissamine green dye

b)

rose bengal dye

c)

fluorescein dye

d)

methylene blue

113.

which of the ff. dye given IV will visualized both retinal and choroidal blood vessels clearly

a)

lissamine green dye

b)

indocyanin green dye

c)

rose bengal dye

d)

fluorescein dye

114.

what is the anesthetic agent combine with fluorescein dye in Fluress

a)

proparacaine

b)

benoxinate

c)

bupivacaine

d)

lidocaine

115.

where does the anesthetic agent benoxinate in fluress belong

a)

amide local anesthetic

b)

ester local anesthetic

c)

general anesthetic

d)

inhalation anesthetic

116.

why is it that the anesthetic agent benoxinate in fluress is combine with fluorescein dye

a)

to suppress the growth of pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

to suppress the growth of candida albicans

c)

to suppress the growth of acanthamoeba

d)

to suppress the growth of herpes keratitis

117.

who is the common contaminant among homemade saline solution for eye wash

a)

pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

staphylococcus aureus

c)

candida albicans

d)

acanthamoeba

118.

what is the other use of benzalkonium chloride in the CL solution

a)

wetting agent

b)

excipient

c)

ophthalmic vehicle

d)

compartment

119.

which of the ff. is NOT the uses of thimerosal CL solution

a)

antiseptic agent for Staphylococcus aureus

b)

antimycotic agent for fusarium

c)

antiviral agent for herpes simplex

d)

acting as preservative

120.

what is the possible consequence to neonate on prolong use of thimerosal in ophthalmic solution during gestation

a)

autism

b)

congenital cataract

c)

arrhythmia

d)

COPD

121.

what should be added to CL solution if it contains thimerosal as preservative to prevent deposition of calcium in the cornea

a)

BAK

b)

deferoxamine

c)

EDTA

d)

penicillamine

122.

which of the ff. is NOT the component of the CL solution

a)

BAK

b)

EDTA

c)

thimerosal

d)

amoxicillin

123.

which of the ff. is NOT a physiologic organic contaminant of CL

a)

proteins

b)

sodium

c)

lipids

d)

mucin

124.

most common physiologic organic contaminant of CL

a)

proteins

b)

sodium

c)

lipids

d)

mucin

125.

what is the characteristic of the CL if CL contaminant is proteins

a)

slick and greasy

b)

filmy and doughnut patterm

c)

dendritic patterns

d)

punctate opacity

126.

what is the characteristic of the CL if CL contaminant is lipids

a)

slick and greasy

b)

filmy and doughnut patterm

c)

dendritic patterns

d)

punctate opacity

127.

what is the characteristic of the CL if CL contaminant is mucin

a)

slick and greasy

b)

filmy and doughnut patterm

c)

dendritic patterns

d)

punctate opacity

128.

what is the ocular side effect of thimerosal on prolong use

a)

band keratopathy

b)

optic neuritis

c)

macular degeneration

d)

papilledema

129.

why is EDTA is added if the CL solution contains thimerosal

a)

chelate the calcium

b)

chelate the iron rust

c)

chelate the copper deposits

d)

chelate the gold deposits

130.

which of the ff. protein enzyme, that remove protein deposits at the CL, comes from Bacillus lichenformis

a)

papain

b)

subtilisin

c)

pancreatin

d)

lipase

131.

which of the ff. protein enzyme, that remove protein deposits at the CL, comes from papaya extract

a)

papain

b)

subtilisin

c)

pancreatin

d)

lipase

132.

which of the ff. protein enzyme, that remove protein deposits at the CL, comes from pancreas extract

a)

papain

b)

subtilisin

c)

pancreatin

d)

lipase

133.

most commonly abused OTC medication

a)

acetaminophen

b)

amoxicillin

c)

mefenamic acid

d)

ibuprofen

134.

most commonly abused non - OTC antibiotic

a)

ofloxacin

b)

amoxicillin

c)

tetracycline

d)

cefuroxime

135.

why is that there is disparity in the effect of the paracetamol since both of them are given the same dose and brand product

a)

probably one of the px took heavy meal before taking the medication

b)

probably one of the px has high grade fever while the other one has only mild fever

c)

probably one of the px took only small amount of water as compared to the other

d)

probably both of them are lactating which affect drug absorption

136.

which among the ff. glands excrete the largest amount of paracetamol

a)

kidneys

b)

lacrimal glands

c)

salivary glands

d)

mammary glands

137.

the ff. are the core aspects of pharmacokinetic of the paracetamol, which of the ff. does NOT belong to pharmacokinetics

a)

biotransformation

b)

bioavailability

c)

pharmacologic effect

d)

elimination

138.

where does paracetamol belong

a)

narcotic analgesic

b)

NSAID

c)

aspirin congener

d)

NOTA

139.

what is the enhancement of drug effect when epinephrine and pilocarpine was combined for treatment

a)

additive

b)

synergism

c)

potentiation

d)

antagonism

140.

what is the receptor site being interacted upon by pilocarpine

a)

nicotinic receptor

b)

a1 receptor

c)

a2 receptor

d)

muscarinic 3 receptor

141.

what is the ocular effect using pilocarpine

a)

brucke's muscles contract thus opening the trabecular meshwork

b)

conjunctival blood vessels constrict

c)

pupils dilate

d)

decrease aqueous humor secretion

142.

what pharmacologic principle when pilocarpine combine with specific receptor site

a)

"lock and key"

b)

bell's phenomenon

c)

crocodile tears

d)

dalrymple sign

143.

what is the specific receptor site if epinephrine will produce mydriasis

a)

b1 receptor

b)

a1 receptor

c)

a2 receptor

d)

muscarinic 3 receptor

144.

what is the specific receptor site if epinephrine will produce conjunctival blanch

a)

b1 receptor

b)

a1 receptor

c)

a2 receptor

d)

muscarinic 3 receptor

145.

what is the specific receptor site if epinephrine will directly open the trabecular meshwork

a)

b1 receptor

b)

a1 receptor

c)

a2 receptor

d)

muscarinic 3 receptor

146.

what is the specific receptor site if epinephrine will decrease the aqueous humor secretions

a)

b1 receptor

b)

a1 receptor

c)

a2 receptor

d)

muscarinic 3 receptor

147.

pertaining to drug selectivity, how would you classify epinephrine

a)

highly selective

b)

non selective

c)

partly selective

d)

no selectivity at all

148.

what is meaning of one gutta

a)

one ml

b)

one drop

c)

every one hour

d)

every one day

149.

if the resident MD instruct the px to instill the meds TID instead of once a day, what is the legal concept on the prescription order

a)

doctrine of informed consent

b)

doctrine of respondent superior

c)

doctrine on minors and incompetent

d)

doctrine on senior citizen

150.

The resident MD properly instruct the px on how to instill the meds and what is it for. What is the legal concept on the prescription order

a)

doctrine of informed consent

b)

doctrine of respondent superior

c)

doctrine on minors and incompetent

d)

doctrine on senior citizen

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