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Software Management

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is/are not among the project attributes?

a)

A project is temporary

b)

A project drives change and enables value creation

c)

A project requires resources, often from various areas.

d)

A project involves certainty

e)

A project is developed using progressive elaboration

2.

Manage risk at the appropriate level

a)

Project Resilience

b)

Integrated risk management

c)

Non

Event Risks

d)

Non

Event Risks

3.

Ability to handle risk that was not known. Ability to handle unknown

unknowns.

a)

Project Resilience

b)

Integrated risk management

c)

Non

Event Risks

d)

Event Risk

4.

-

Uncertainties arising from lack of knowledge or understanding. E.g.:

Use of new technology, future regulations.

a)

Variability Risk

b)

Ambiguity Risk

5.

Amount of risk you are willing to take for a reward

a)

Risk appetite

b)

Risk tolerance

6.

The risk exposure of the project as a whole. It’s

made up of the sum of individual project risks plus other sources of

uncertainty.

a)

Individual project risk:

b)

Overall project risk

7.

Information is sent to recipients at their request

via Web sites, bulletin boards, e learning, knowledge repositories like

blogs, and other means

a)

Pull

communication

b)

Push

communication

c)

Interactive

communication

8.

Some aspect of a planned task or situation is uncertain. E.g.:

Productivity targets, error during testing, weather patterns.

a)

Variability Risk

b)

Ambiguity Risk

9.

Directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach

a)

Confrontation

b)

Compromise

c)

Smoothing

d)

Forcing

10.

▪ is a matrix that maps the work of the project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the OBS.

a)

RTX

b)

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

11.

▪ Projects are more likely to succeed when project managers influence with

......./.......

a)

▪ expertise

b)

▪ work challenge

c)

▪ authority

d)

▪ money

12.

Theory .....

Assumes workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threats and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives.

a)

x

b)

y

c)

z

13.

Which theory group has the following properties?

▪ Achievement (nAch): They seek to excel and tend to avoid risky situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile.

▪ Affiliation (nAff): They desire harmonious relationships and need to feel accepted by others, so managers should try to create a cooperative work environment for them.

▪ Power: (nPow): People with a need for power desire either personal power (not good) or institutional power (good for the organization).

a)

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

b)

McClelland’s Acquired-Needs Theory

c)

Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory

d)

McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y

14.

Which motivation theory this idea belong to?

▪ Motivational factors: Achievement, recognition, the work itself, responsibility, advancement, and growth, which produce job satisfaction.

▪ Hygiene factors: Cause dissatisfaction if not present, but do not motivate workers to do more. Examples include larger salaries, more supervision, and a more attractive work environment.

a)

Herzberg’s Motivation- Theory

b)

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

c)

McClelland’s Acquired-Needs Theory

d)

McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y

15.

▪ ....... developed a hierarchy of needs which states that people’s behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.

a)

Herzberg

b)

Maslow

c)

McClelland

d)

McGregor

16.

....... causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.

a)

Intrinsic motivation

b)

Extrinsic motivation

17.

........... is the measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work (Budgeted Cost of Work Performed).

a)

Actual Cost (AC)

b)

Earned Value (EV)

c)

Planned Value (PV)

18.

Which model might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on ?

a)

Analogous Estimates

b)

Parametric Estimating

c)

Bottom-up Estimates

19.

▪ .............. involve estimating the costs of individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total.

▪ This approach is sometimes referred to as Activity-based Costing.

a)

Parametric Estimating

b)

Bottom-up Estimates

c)

Analogous Estimates

20.

▪ A ........ provides an accurate estimate of project costs.

▪ .............. are used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.

• For example, if a project involves purchasing 1,000 personal computers from an outside supplier in the next three months, a definitive estimate would be required to aid in evaluating supplier proposals and allocating the funds to pay the chosen supplier.

a)

Budgetary Estimate

b)

Definitive Estimate

c)

1. Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) Estimate

21.

▪ ............ estimate provides an estimate of what a project will cost. A ....... estimate can also be referred to as a ballpark estimate, a guesstimate, a swag, or a broad gauge.

a)

Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM)

b)

Budgetary Estimate

c)

Definitive Estimate

22.

Which Reserves are sometimes called known-unknowns?

a)

Contingency reserves

b)

Management reserves

23.

Expenses that vary based on the usage of resources.

a)

Fixed Costs

b)

Variable Costs

24.

..... costs or benefits are easy to measure in dollars.

........... costs or benefits are difficult to measure in dollars.

a)

Tangible/Intangible

b)

Intangible/Tangible

25.

What can we call the cost of electricity,

paper towels, and other

necessities in a large building

that houses 1 000 employees who

work on many projects

a)

Direct Cost

b)

Indirect Cost

26.

▪ ........ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.

Slack or float is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying a succeeding activity or the project finish date.

a)

CPM

b)

Three Point Estimating

c)

Parametric Estimating

d)

Gantt Chart

27.

......., which is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.

........... includes the actual amount of time worked on an activity plus elapsed time.

a)

Effort/Duration

b)

Duration /Effort

28.

In Three Point Estimating Which point is described below?

This estimate is based on the duration of the activity, given the resources likely to be assigned, their productivity, realistic expectations of availability for the activity, dependencies on other participants, and interruptions.

a)

Optimistic

b)

Pessimistic

c)

Most likely

29.

▪ ............. are the preferred technique for showing activity sequencing.

▪ A network diagram is a schematic display of the logical relationships among project activities and their sequencing.

a)

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

b)

Network Diagrams

c)

Lead and Lag

30.

A .............. is the amount of time a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.

A ........ is the amount of time a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.

a)

lead /lag

b)

lag /lead

31.

......... is a technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.

a)

RDM

b)

PDM

c)

Network Diagrams

d)

Lead and Lag

32.

In Activity Dependencies Which of the definitions should switch choose to options.

a)

Mandatory Dependencies:

Legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

b)

Discretionary Dependencies:

Defined by the project team.

c)

Internal Dependencies:

Involve relationships between project and non-project activities.

d)

External Dependencies:

Involve relationships between project activities that are generally inside the project team's control.

33.

What are the define activity outputs?

a)

Activity List/

Activity Attributes

b)

Milestone List

c)

Others

d)

All

34.

................... .......... is an iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work further in the future is planned at a higher level.

a)

Rolling Wave Planning

b)

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

c)

Network Diagrams

35.

The amount of delay that would be considered worrisome

and trigger corrective or preventive actions

a)

Project

schedule model development

b)

Units

of measure

c)

Level

of accuracy

d)

Control

thresholds

36.

What is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger called?.

a)

Out Of Control Scope

b)

Scope Creep

c)

RTMX

37.

.......... is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

a)

Validate Scope

b)

Control Scope

38.

............ ....... is a tabulation of activities to be included on a project schedule.

a)

A milestone

b)

Activity list

39.

........ ........... activities involves identifying and documenting the relationships

between project activities

a)

Defining

activities

b)

Sequencing

activities

c)

Planning

schedule management

d)

Estimating

activity durations

40.

If I write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format for my WBS.

Which approach I might be using?

a)

The Top-down and Bottom-up Approaches

b)

The Analogy Approach

c)

The Mind-mapping Approach

d)

Using Guidelines

41.

If I'm starting with the largest items of the project and break them into subordinate items for WBS. Which approach I'm using?.

a)

The Top-down and Bottom-up Approaches

b)

The Mind-mapping Approach

c)

The Analogy Approach

d)

Using Guidelines

42.

What is the the lowest level of WBS components are called?

a)

data packages

b)

work packages

c)

Strutcture

43.

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Deliverables also include ancillary results, such as project management reports and documentation. These deliverables may be described at a summary level or in great detail.

a)

Product scope description

b)

Deliverables

c)

Acceptance criteria

d)

Project exclusions

44.

If I'm using a similar project’s WBS as a starting point Which approach I'm using?.

a)

The Analogy Approach

b)

The Top-down and Bottom-up Approaches

c)

The Mind-mapping Approach

d)

Using Guidelines

45.

Progressively elaborates the characteristics of the product, service, or result described in the project charter and requirements documentation.

a)

Product scope description

b)

Deliverables

c)

Project exclusions

46.

If a requirements contains tests, certifications, validations etc which group it is belong to?

a)

Transition and readiness requirements

b)

Project requirements

c)

Quality requirements

47.

If the Requirements include milestone dates, contractual obligations, constraints, etc which group they are belong to ?.

a)

Quality requirements

b)

Project requirements

c)

Transition and readiness requirements

d)

Business Requirements

48.

Which requirement is described below?

Describe temporary capabilities, such as data conversion and training requirements, needed to transition from the current as-is state to the desired future state.

a)

Project requirements

b)

Quality requirements

c)

Transition and readiness requirements

d)

Business requirements

49.

• Visually depict the product scope by showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

• Show inputs to the business system, the actor(s) providing the input, the outputs from the business system, and the actor(s) receiving the output.

a)

Affinity Diagrams

b)

Mind mapping

c)

Nominal Group Technique

d)

Context Diagrams

50.

Enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.

a)

Benchmarking

b)

Context Diagrams

c)

Mind mapping

d)

Nominal Group Technique

51.

Allow large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis.

a)

Affinity Diagrams

b)

Mind mapping

c)

Benchmarking

d)

Nominal Group Technique

52.

Consolidates ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.

a)

Affinity Diagrams

b)

Mind mapping

c)

Benchmarking

d)

Nominal Group Technique

53.

• Involves comparing actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

a)

Mind mapping

b)

Affinity Diagrams

c)

Benchmarking

d)

Nominal Group Technique

54.

The second step in project scope management is often the most difficult: ............... ......... .

a)

Creating Plan

b)

Collecting requirements

55.

Describes how project and product requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

a)

Requirement

b)

Requirements Management Plan

c)

Scope Management Plan

56.

Describes

how the scope

will be defined, developed,

monitored, controlled, and

validated

a)

Requirements Management Plan

b)

Scope Management Plan

57.

Which one is not main constraint of project?

a)

Scope

b)

Time

c)

Cost

d)

Risk

58.

Which option isn't Skill of a Project Manager?

a)

Leadership

b)

Being Born in Sivas

c)

Strategic and Business Management Skills

d)

Technical Project Management Skills

59.

A code of ethics is related to ....... .

a)

Morals

b)

immorals

60.

Which is/are the ethics of moral?

a)

Responsibility

b)

Respect

c)

Fairness

d)

Honesty

61.

Which Factors influence the selection of a development approach?

a)

Product, service, or result

b)

The project

c)

Organization

d)

NONE

62.

........................... Domain is meeting the metrics identified in the ....... Domain .

a)

Delivery Performance/Planning Performance

b)

Planning Performance /Delivery Performance

63.

Which Way of measuring performance has the indicators?

a)

Effective Metrics

b)

KPI

64.

Which indicator predicts changes or trends in the project?

a)

Lagging indicators

b)

Leading indicators

65.

Which indicator measures project deliverables or events?

a)

Leading indicators

b)

Lagging indicators

66.

Effective order of stakeholder engagement.

a)

1-)Identify

2-)Engage

3-)Prioritize

4-)Monitor

b)

1-)Prioritize

2-)Identify

3-)Engage

4-)Monitor

c)

1-)Identify

2-)Prioritize

3-)Engage

4-)Monitor

d)

1-)Prioritize

2-)Identify

3-)Monitor

4-)Engage

67.

(a)   is a process by which software is developed and deployed.

68.

Which approach is Waterfall?

a)

Adaptive approach

b)

Predictive approach

c)

Hybrid approach

69.

Which approach are Iterative and incremantal?

a)

Hybrid approach

b)

Predictive approach

c)

Adaptive approach

70.

What are the 2 major Predictivekinds of projects?

(a)  

71.

A ................. lifecycle is where the requirements are clear at the beginning of the project, hence documented, converted to specifications, and then executed and after execution, the scope is validated to ensure that all the requirements have been met.

a)

predictive

b)

adaptive

72.

The .......... lifecycles (like ⚠️ agile) are undertaken because the scope of the project is not very clear or fixed at the early stage of the project. The journey itself is expected to unravel more requirements. Which means that these lifecycles are open to “changes”.

a)

predictive

b)

adaptive

73.

 

Which methodology group do Waterfall, Critical Path Method (CPM), and Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM) belong to?

a)

Process Based Methodology

b)

Sequential Methodology

c)

Agile Methodology

d)

Uncertainty Methodology

74.

Which methodology group Scrum Project Management ,Kanban Extreme Programming (EP) and Adaptive Project Framework (APF) belong to?

a)

Sequential Methodologies

b)

Uncertainty Methodologies

c)

Process Based Methodologies

d)

Agile Methodologies

75.

Which methodoloy do Event Chain Methodology (ECM) belong to ?

a)

Process Based Methodologies

b)

Uncertainty Methodologies

c)

Agile Methodologies

d)

Sequential Methodologies

76.

Which methodology group do PRINCE2, Lean Project Management and Six Sigma belong to ?

a)

The PMI/PMBOK “Method

b)

Agile Methodologies

c)

Process Based Methodologies

d)

Uncertainty Methodologies

77.

The order in which the development of more elementary components of the project is organized.

a)

The formality of the process

b)

The linearity of the process

78.

Proceeds from specification to implementation, with litle opportunities for backtracking.

a)

Cyclical development

b)

Sequential development

c)

Parallel development

79.

Organizes development in different rounds

a)

Parallel development

b)

Cyclical development

c)

Sequential development

80.

Uses concurrent development

a)

Parallel development

b)

Sequential development

c)

Cyclical development

81.

The amount of infrastructure a project requires.

a)

The linearity of the process

b)

The formality of the process

82.

Focuses on efficiency and flexibility

a)

Traditional Project Management ( PM)

b)

Extreme PM

c)

Agile PM

83.

High risk and exploratory projects require even more flexilbilty than agile methodologies can provide.

a)

Traditional Project Management

b)

Extreme PM

c)

Agile PM

84.

Which is/are SDLC methodologies?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Prototyping

c)

Spiral Development

d)

V-model

e)

Incremental/

Agile process models

85.

What are the disadvantages of the waterfall method?

a)

Nonefficiency

b)

Higher risk, requirements of the system should be frozen, difficult to go back to any stage.

c)

Poor documentation

d)

Early demand of product

86.

Spiral Model = ....... + .....

a)

v-shaped + prototyping

b)

waterfall +agile

c)

waterfall + prototyping

87.

Requirements are divided into multiple standalone modules

a)

V-SHAPED MODEL

b)

INCREMENTAL DEVELOPMENT

c)

Spiral Model

d)

PROTOTYPING

88.

In terms of Project or Product will be: Features, Products, or Services can be used by users, and measurable.

a)

output

b)

outcome

89.

Feedback or feelings of the user when using the product or the features

a)

outcome

b)

output

90.

COTS

a)

COMMERCIAL OF THE SHELF

b)

Ezberle len

91.

⚠️ISO/IEC/IEEE

a)

12207

b)

12206

92.

Something that is important to users.

a)

Requirements

b)

Need

93.

Statement which translates or expresses a need and its associated constraints and conditions. conditions.

a)

Need

b)

Requirements

94.

This process assembles the implemented system elements

a)

Design

b)

Implementation

c)

Integration

95.

Provides sufficient detailed data and information about the system and its elements.

a)

Integration

b)

Design

c)

Implementation

96.

Creates a set of measurable system requirements that specify, from the supplier’s perspective.

a)

Integration

b)

Implementation

c)

System/Software Requirements Definition

97.

Provides objective evidence that a system or system element fulfills its specified requirements.

Identifies anomalies: errors, defects.

a)

Validation

b)

Verification

98.

provides objective evidence that the system, when in use, fulfills its business or mission objectives and stakeholder requirements, achieving its intended use in its intended operational environment.

a)

Verification

b)

Validation

99.

Which pm group Recommends corrective or preventive action in anticipation of possible problems?

a)

Planning Process Group

b)

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

c)

Executing Process Group

100.

In simple terms, .......... action prevents recurrence, while ......... action prevents occurrence.

a)

preventive/corrective

b)

corrective /preventive

101.

What are the five PM Process Groups?

a)

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring&

Controlling,Closing

b)

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring&

Controlling,Verification.

102.

............... Management → Develop Project Charter

a)

Stakeholder

b)

Integration

103.

............. Management →Identify Stakeholders

a)

Integration

b)

Stakeholder

104.

Which are the inputs for developing the project charter?

a)

Benefits Management Plan

b)

Enterprise Environmental Factors

c)

Agreements/Business Case

d)

Organizational Process Assets

105.

High, medium, or low priority based on the current business environment.

a)

Time window

b)

General priority

106.

How long will it take to complete a project and what is the deadline for completing it?

a)

General priority

b)

Time window

107.

Which is/are the project selecting criteria?

a)

need

b)

funding

c)

will

d)

requirement

108.

(total discounted benefits total discounted costs)/discounted costs

a)

ROI

b)

RIO

109.

............... is often the most difficult and unappreciated process in project management.

a)

Planning

b)

Executing

c)

Closing

d)

Initiating

110.

PM Knowledge Areas

a)

Integration Management Scope Management Schedule Management

b)

Cost Management Quality Management Resource Management

c)

Communications Management risk mangement

d)

Procurement Management Stakeholders Management

111.

Money spent during and after the project to avoid failures

a)

Cost of Nonconformance

b)

Cost of Conformance

112.

....... testing occurs between unit and system testing to test functionally grouped components

a)

Unit

b)

Integration

c)

System

d)

User acceptance

113.

ISO 9000 a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three part,

continuous cycle of .........

a)

Planning

/Controlling

/Documenting

b)

Planning

/Testing

/Documenting

c)

Planning

/Controlling

/Monitoring

d)

Planning

/Controlling

/Closing

114.

According to

Plan Do Check Act (PDCA) Cycle. What is Review the test, analyze the results and identify what you’ve learned called.

a)

Plan

b)

Do

c)

Check

d)

act

115.

....... consists of organization-wide efforts to install and make permanent climate where employees continuously improve their ability to provide on demand products and services that customers will find of particular value.

a)

TQM

b)

PDCA

c)

Kaizen

d)

Six Sigma

116.

▪ ........... is a word term meaning "change for the better" or "continuous improvement."

▪ It also applies to processes, such as purchasing and logistics, that cross organizational boundaries into the supply chain.

▪ Techniques such as PDCA cycle and 5 Whys (an iterative interrogative technique used to explore the cause-and-effect relationships underlying a particular problem) are used in this technique.

a)

Six Sigma

b)

Kaizen

c)

TQM

117.

▪ Which model is Developed within Motorola in 1986 to compete with the Kaizen (or lean manufacturing) business model in Japan.

▪ This model projects normally follow a five-phase improvement process called DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control -pronounced «de-MAY-ick»).

a)

PDCA

b)

TQM

c)

Six sigma

118.

What is the open version of DMAIC

a)

Define

Measure

Analyze

Initialize

Control

b)

Detect

Measure

Analyze

Improve

Close

c)

Define

Measure

Analyze

Improve

Control

d)

Define

Measure

Analyze

Initialize

Close

119.

Which Method to Choose if the potentials below given?

• First, there must be a quality problem or gap between the current and desired performance.

• Second, the project should not have a clearly understood problem.

• Third, the solution should not be predetermined, and an optimal solution should not be apparent.

a)

TCQ

b)

Kaizen

c)

Six Sigma

d)

PDCA

120.

▪ Which method does combine lean manufacturing/lean enterprise and Six Sigma to eliminate the eight kinds of waste (muda):

• Defects,

• Over-Production,

• Waiting,

• Non-Utilized Talent,

• Transportation (unnecessary or excessive movement of materials, products, people, equipment, and tools),

• Inventory (excess in products and materials that are not yet processed),

• Motion (unnecessary movement by people) and

• Extra-Processing.

a)

Six Sigma

b)

Lean Six Sigma

c)

TCQ

d)

PCDA

121.

Which is/are the maturity models?1. Software Quality Function Deployment (SQFD) Model

a)

Software Quality Function Deployment (SQFD) Model

b)

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI)

c)

• Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3®)

d)

ALL

122.

▪ ...... is “a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements of effective processes. It can be used to guide process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization. ...... helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes.”

a)

SQFD

b)

CMMI

c)

OPM3®

123.

Which maturity model is described below?

▪ It offers best practices for the interaction of portfolio management, program management and project management.

▪ It was recognized as an American national standard.

a)

OPM3

b)

CMMI

c)

SQFD

124.

Deming’s Cycle for Improvement: .............. .

▪ Most Six Sigma principles are based on the ............. model created by Deming.

a)

TCQ

b)

Six Sigma

c)

Plan, Do, Check, and Act

d)

Kaizen

125.

In Project Quality Management What happens in Executing step?

a)

Plan quality Management

b)

Manage Quality

c)

Control Quality

d)

None of them

126.

▪ ................ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.

▪ Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.

a)

Flowcharts

b)

Design of Experiments

c)

SIPOC

127.

........... is/are the screens and reports the system generates

a)

Functionality

b)

Features

c)

System Outputs

d)

Reliability

128.

Manage Quality is performed how many times in a project?

a)

It is performed throughtout the project

b)

Once in a project

129.

▪ ...... involves evaluating processes to maximize customer value while minimizing waste.

a)

Benchmarking

b)

Lean

c)

A quality audit

130.

▪ .......... generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.

a)

Lean

b)

Benchmarking

c)

A quality audit

131.

A .......... is a structured review of specific quality management activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on current or future projects.

a)

Lean

b)

Benchmarking

c)

quality audit

132.

.......... causes

people to participate in an

activity for their own enjoyment

a)

Extrinsic

motivation

b)

Intrinsic

motivation

133.

A

........ ( is a matrix that maps the work of

the project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing

the work as described in the OBS

a)

Random Assigment Matrix

b)

Responsibility assigment matrix

134.

Directly face a conflict using a problem solving approach

a)

Compromise

b)

Smoothing

c)

Forcing

d)

Confrontation

135.

Most

effective way to ensure common understanding

a)

Interactive Communication

b)

Push

Communication

c)

Pull Communication

136.

Individual Project Risks

List of all Identified Risks

List of Potential Responses

Provides a list of all identified risks on the project, what reactions to this

risk are, what the root causes are, and what categories the risks fall into.

a)

Risk Report

b)

Risk Register

137.

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs,

has a positive or negative impact on one or more parts of the project.

a)

Individual project risk

b)

Overall project risk

138.

What are the outputs of Plan Scope Management

a)

Scope Management Plan

b)

Requirements Management Plan

139.

It is used to justify organization's investment

a)

Benefits

Management Plan

b)

Business Case

c)

Agreements

d)

Enterprise Environmental Factors

140.

What are the inputs for Devoloping Project charter?

a)

Business Case/

Benefits

Management Plan

b)

Agreements

c)

Enterprise Environmental Factors

d)

Organizational Process Assets

141.

Knowledge

that can be readily

codified using words, pictures, and

numbers

a)

Explicit

Knowledge

b)

Tacit

Knowledge

142.

Knowledge

that is personal and

difficult to express, such as

beliefs, insights, experience, and

“know how”

a)

Explicit

Knowledge

b)

Tacit

Knowledge

143.

Status reports, progress reports,

memos, and other documents used to communicate

a)

Work

performance reports

b)

Change

requests

144.

......

actions reduce the

probability of negative

consequences associated with

project risks

a)

Corrective

b)

Preventive

145.

Allow

large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for

review and analysis

a)

Affinity

Diagrams

b)

Mind

mapping

c)

Nominal

Group Technique

146.

............ higher-level needs of the organization as a whole such as the business issues or opportunities and reasons why a project has been undertaken.

a)

Business Requirements

b)

Stakeholder requirements

c)

Functional requirements

d)

Nonfunctional requirements

147.

From the Solution requirements

Which Group is described below?

Supplement functional requirements and describe the environmental conditions or qualities required for the product to be effective. Examples include: reliability, security, performance, safety, level of service, supportability, retention/purge, etc.

a)

Functional requirements

b)

Nonfunctional requirements

c)

Stakeholder requirements

d)

Business requirements

148.

The features and functions that

characterize a product, service,

or result.

a)

Project Scope

b)

Product Scope

c)

Product

d)

Project