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Worksheets

MSK 1

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

____ relates the concentration of the drug at the receptor to the magnitude of the response

a)

pharmacokinetics

b)

pharmacodynamics

2.

the _________ leads to the effect we're looking for

a)

drug

b)

drug-receptor complex

c)

receptor

3.

ligand that binds to a receptor and thereby results in a biological response

a)

agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

antagonist

d)

inverse agonist

4.

ligand that produces less than maximal response

a)

agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

antagonist

d)

inverse agonist

5.

ligand that diminishes the response of the receptor

a)

agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

antagonist

d)

inverse agonist

6.

ligand that binds to the same receptor site as the agonist, but reverses the activity of the receptor

a)

agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

antagonist

d)

inverse agonist

7.

an antagonist

a)

does nothing if there is no basal response

b)

always diminishes the response

c)

will stop the activity if there is basal response

8.

morphine is an example of a(n)

a)

agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

antagonist

d)

inverse agonist

9.

codeine is an example of a(n)

a)

agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

antagonist

d)

inverse agonist

10.

naloxone is an example of a(n)

a)

agonist

b)

partial agonist

c)

antagonist

d)

inverse agonist

11.

in the pharmacodynamic sigmoid Emax model, the E is ____

a)

the pharmacologic effect

b)

the maximum pharmacologic effect

c)

the concentration of the ligand at the receptor site

d)

the parameter describing the sigmoid nature of the curve

e)

the plasma concentration required to achieve half of the maximum effect

12.

in the pharmacodynamic sigmoid Emax model, the Emax is ____

a)

the pharmacologic effect

b)

the maximum pharmacologic effect

c)

the concentration of the ligand at the receptor site

d)

the parameter describing the sigmoid nature of the curve

e)

the plasma concentration required to achieve half of the maximum effect

13.

in the pharmacodynamic sigmoid Emax model, the EC50 is ____

a)

the pharmacologic effect

b)

the maximum pharmacologic effect

c)

the concentration of the ligand at the receptor site

d)

the parameter describing the sigmoid nature of the curve

e)

the plasma concentration required to achieve half of the maximum effect

14.

in the pharmacodynamic sigmoid Emax model, the C is ____

a)

the pharmacologic effect

b)

the maximum pharmacologic effect

c)

the concentration of the ligand at the receptor site

d)

the parameter describing the sigmoid nature of the curve

e)

the plasma concentration required to achieve half of the maximum effect

15.

in the pharmacodynamic sigmoid Emax model, the n is ____

a)

the pharmacologic effect

b)

the maximum pharmacologic effect

c)

the concentration of the ligand at the receptor site

d)

the parameter describing the sigmoid nature of the curve

e)

the plasma concentration required to achieve half of the maximum effect

16.

select all that are true

a)

the law of diminishing returns claims that you will observe smaller increments in response as the drug concentration increases

b)

the law of diminishing returns claims that you will observe larger increments in response as the drug concentration decreases

c)

larger values of "n" will demonstrate greater changes in effect at concentrations near EC50

d)

smaller values of "n" will demonstrate greater changes in effect at concentrations near EC50

17.

_____ is an effect, _____ is a concentration

a)

Emax, EC50

b)

EC50, Emax

18.

in PK we look at _____. in PD we look at _____

a)

concentration vs time; pharmacologic response vs concentration

b)

pharmacologic response vs concentration; concentration vs time

19.

this pharmacodynamic response occurs on a scale or continuum

a)

continuous

b)

graded

c)

quantal

d)

dichotomous

20.

this pharmacodynamic response cannot be continuously correlated with drug concentration

a)

continuous

b)

graded

c)

quantal

d)

dichotomous

21.

what are some reasons that it's clinically difficult to determine the "true" Emax

a)

it may not be ethical to reach that effect

b)

metabolites or adverse effects can put a limit on the maximum tolerated concentration

22.

in dichotomous responses we evaluate the response from

a)

drug concentration

b)

cumulative frequency

c)

EC50 refers to a concentration that will produce a predetermined response in 50% of patients

23.

____ measures the activity of a ligand in terms of the concentration required to produce the defined effect

a)

potency

b)

efficacy

24.

____ describes the way by which agonists vary in response, even when occupying the same number of receptors

a)

potency

b)

efficacy

25.

______ is displayed when a lower drug concentration is required to achieve the same response

a)

higher potency

b)

lower potency

c)

greater efficacy

d)

lesser efficacy

26.

______ is displayed when you get a larger response with the same drug concentration as another compound

a)

higher potency

b)

lower potency

c)

greater efficacy

d)

lesser efficacy

27.

what factors affect the relationship between plasma concentration and physiologic response

a)

reversible vs. irreversible effects

b)

direct vs. indirect mechanism of action

c)

plasma and effect site concentration

d)

hysteresis loops (tolerance and sensitization)

28.

in a direct pharmacodynamic link/response

a)

can usually relate plasma concentration to effect

b)

cannot relate plasma concentration to effect

c)

not normally a time delay between administration and resulting effect

d)

there may be a temporal dissociation between change in concentration vs. effect

29.

in an indirect pharmacodynamic link/response

a)

can usually relate plasma concentration to effect

b)

cannot relate plasma concentration to effect

c)

not normally a time delay between administration and resulting effect

d)

there may be a temporal dissociation between change in concentration vs. effect

30.

counter-clockwise hysteresis (the time delay between the measured plasma concentration and the observed effect) is

a)

sensitization

b)

tolerance

c)

tachyphylaxis

31.

clockwise hysteresis (the time delay between the measured plasma concentration and the observed effect) is

a)

sensitization

b)

tolerance

c)

tachyphylaxis

32.

in counter-clockwise hysteresis

a)

response increases at later time points

b)

you can draw two straight lines up and hit the graph twice

c)

increase in response with time at the same effect site concnetration

33.

what are some reasons that sensitization (counter-clockwise hystereisis) can occur

a)

delayed distribution to the site of action

b)

accumulation of active metabolites

c)

upregulation of receptors

d)

an indirect MOA

34.

clockwise hysteresis (proteresis)

a)

effect is decreased at later time points

b)

due to tolerance: a decrease in the pharmacologic response following prolonged exposure to a drug

c)

tachyphylaxis can occur which is an abrupt and complete cessation of effect

35.

what are some reasons tolerance can occur

a)

inactive, competing metabolites

b)

downregulation of receptors

c)

decreased affinity between drug and receptor

d)

decreased response generated from the receptor following drug binding

36.

how do we prevent tachyphylaxis from occuring

a)

we cannot

b)

drug-free intervals are required in order to keep the drug working

c)

we give more of the drug to make sure it keeps working

37.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: enzyme inhibition

a)

PK

b)

PD

38.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: enzyme induction

a)

PK

b)

PD

39.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: changes in metabolism

a)

PK

b)

PD

40.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: changes in organ function

a)

PK

b)

PD

41.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: CNS depressants

a)

PK

b)

PD

42.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: Anticoagulants

a)

PK

b)

PD

43.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: Anticonvulsants

a)

PK

b)

PD

44.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: QT-prolonging agents

a)

PK

b)

PD

45.

PK vs. PD drug and disease interactions: drug concentration changed

a)

PK

b)

PD

46.

t/f: dosage form/route of administration does not have a significant effect on onset and duration of analgesia

a)

true

b)

false

47.

t/f: changes in dosing regimens are driven primarily by efficacy and tolerability

a)

true

b)

false

48.

t/f: onset and duration of analgesia will be a result of combined PK, MOA, receptor location, dosage form, and patient factors

a)

true

b)

false

49.

t/f: PD is sometimes related to the side effects of a class of drugs where the side effects become the targeted pharmacologic outcome

a)

true

b)

false

50.

n-acetyl-cysteine

a)

acts as a glutathione substitute and binds the NAPQI metabolite

b)

ideally want to start this within 8-10 hours of OD, but patients are relatively asymptomatic for 24-36 hours

c)

it will not undo the damage already done

51.

which is expressed in response to insult/injury

a)

COX-1

b)

COX-2

52.

t/f: must functions, including GI protection, renal function, and inflammation are impacted by at least two prostaglandins

a)

true

b)

false

53.

there is no ____ in platelets

a)

COX-1

b)

COX-2

54.

COX-2 selective drugs were developed in order to

a)

inhibit some of the COX-1 side effects

b)

COX-2 is more upregulated and released in response to injury, it will not affect housekeeping

55.

because platelets do not have a nucleus, they cannot inhibit platelet aggregation. when you inhibit with COX-2...

a)

you lose your protection against platelet aggregation, leading to the sticky platelet phenomenon

b)

also leads to increased CV risk

c)

there is now an imbalance of prothrombic state and antithrombic state

d)

this is called the mechanism-based Fitzgerald hypothesis

56.

what are you at risk for if children use ASA

a)

reye's syndrome

b)

SJS

57.

what patients should not use ASA

a)

a 7 year old with community-acquired pneumonia

b)

a 60 year old woman with heart failure

c)

a 18 year old male with asthma

d)

a 40 year old woman with nasal polyps

e)

a 21 year old with rhinitis

58.

t/f: gralise and horizant are interchangeable with other gabapentin products

a)

true

b)

false

59.

which chemical mediator increases vascular permeability, and increases blood flow to the injured area

a)

histamine

b)

prostaglandins and leukotrienes

c)

phagocytes

d)

serotonin

60.

which chemical mediator(s) is (are) involved in pain response, vascular permeability, and chemotaxis

a)

histamine

b)

prostaglandins and leukotrienes

c)

phagocytes

d)

serotonin

61.

which chemical mediator(s) increase capillary blood flow and vascular permeability

a)

histamine

b)

prostaglandins and leukotrienes

c)

phagocytes

d)

serotonin

62.

prostaglandins have (a)   carbons

63.

what is the only NSAID that irreversibly covalently modifies COX by acetylating Ser530 of COX-1 and SER516 of COX-2.

a)

ASA

b)

ibuprofen

c)

diclofenac

d)

sulindac

64.

salicylates are more potent against ___ than ___ which is why we see so many side effects with ASA

a)

COX-1, COX-2

b)

COX-2, COX-1

65.

ASA should be avoided in patients with

a)

hypoprothrombinemia

b)

vitamin k deficiency

c)

history of peptic ulcer or GI bleeds

d)

ASA hypersensitivity

66.

as effective as ASA but few side effects. does not cause GI bleeds and can be given to ASA sensitive patients

a)

salsalate

b)

salicylamide

c)

diflunisal

67.

has an amide group instead of a carboxylic acid. it is not acidic which means there's a lack of gastric irritation. this one can be used in patients with ASA hypersensitivity. has minimal anti-inflammatory activity

a)

salsalate

b)

salicylamide

c)

diflunisal

68.

longer-acting, slower onset. more potent and more effective than ASA but fewer side effects. this one is also much more expensive

a)

salsalate

b)

salicylamide

c)

diflunisal

69.

one of the most potent NSAIDS in use. more potent than ASA and acetaminophen (10x analgesic potency of ASA)

a)

indomethacin

b)

sulindac

c)

ketorolac

d)

naproxen

e)

nabumetone

70.

has way too many side effects to be used long term

a)

indomethacin

b)

sulindac

c)

ketorolac

d)

naproxen

e)

nabumetone

71.

a non-nitrogenous analog of indomethacin

a)

fenoprofen

b)

sulindac

c)

ketorolac

d)

naproxen

e)

nabumetone

72.

can be used long-term because there are limited side effects

a)

indomethacin

b)

sulindac

c)

ketorolac

d)

naproxen

e)

nabumetone

73.

there is a sulfoxide group on the compound. when it is reduced to sulfide, we get the active form of the drug. when it's oxidized to sulfone, we get the inactive form

a)

indomethacin

b)

sulindac

c)

ketorolac

d)

naproxen

e)

nabumetone

74.

if the R group is a hydrogen it's _____. if the R group is a methyl it's _____.

a)

ibuprofen, ibuprofenac

b)

ibuprofenac, ibuprofen

75.

in most racemic arylacetic acid derivatives, the ____ is the only isomer with anti-inflammatory activity

a)

S(+)

b)

S(-)

c)

R(+)

d)

R(-)

76.

in terms of potency, put these in order from most potent to least: ibuprofen, indomethacin, ASA

(a)  

77.

in this med, caution use with hydantoins, sulfonamides, and sulfonylureas. this drug displaces the drugs listed from their binding sites and can cause toxicity

a)

fenoprofen

b)

ibuprofen

c)

tolmetin

d)

naproxen

78.

an arylacetic acid derivative that is NOT sold as a racemic mixture. Only the S(+) isomer is obtained and marketed

a)

ibuprofen

b)

naproxen

c)

fenoprofen

d)

indomethacin

79.

not recommended for pregnant or lactating women

a)

ibuprofen

b)

naproxen

c)

ketoprofen

d)

suprofen

80.

not recommended for children under 16

a)

ibuprofen

b)

naproxen

c)

ketoprofen

d)

suprofen

81.

has more anti-inflammatory activity than phenylbutazone but less than indomethacin. it's COX-2 selective analog was removed from the market due to anaphylaxis, particularly in patients with ASA sensitivity

a)

tolmetin

b)

ketoprofen

c)

suprofen

d)

nabumetone

82.

instead of inhibiting COX, this drug inhibits the synthesis of leukotrienes and leukocyte migration into inflamed joints in addition to inhibiting the biosynthesis of prostaglandins

a)

ketoprofen

b)

tolmetin

c)

suprofen

d)

nabumetone

83.

mainly used as 1% ophthalmic solution for prevention of surgically induced miosis during cataract extraction

a)

ketoprofen

b)

tolmetin

c)

suprofen

d)

nabumetone

84.

oral dosage forms have been discontinued due to renal effects

a)

ketoprofen

b)

tolmetin

c)

suprofen

d)

nabumetone

85.

this is NOT an arylacetic acid. it is a ketone. it is non-acidic which decreases GI side effects. the active metabolite IS an acetic acid.

a)

nabumetone

b)

oxaprozin

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

86.

a propionic acid derivative with an a-methyl group

a)

nabumetone

b)

oxaprozin

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

87.

1st topical NSAID indicated for ophthalmic use in the US

a)

nabumetone

b)

diclofenac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

88.

inhibits intraoperative miosis induced by prostaglandins in cataract surgery

a)

oxaprozin

b)

diclofenac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

89.

a cyclized heteroaryl propionic acid derivative with a-methyl group fused to the pyrrole ring. this is done for rigidity.

a)

oxaprozin

b)

diclofenac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

90.

relatively more effective as an analgesic than as an anti-inflammatory

a)

oxaprozin

b)

etodolac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

91.

relief of ocular itching caused by seasonal allergies

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

92.

contraindicated in patients receiving ASA or NSAIDs due to cumulative risk of inducing serious side effects

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

e)

diclofenac

93.

belongs to arylacetic acid derivatives, but is also considered a homolog of n-arylanthranillic acid

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

e)

diclofenac

94.

it inhibits COX but also inhibits the lipooxygenase pathway, resulting production of leukotrienes. it also inhibits arachidonic acid release and stimulation of it's uptake, resulting in a reduction of arachidonic acid availability.

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

e)

diclofenac

95.

highly selective for COX-2. has a high safety profile.

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

e)

diclofenac

96.

not strictly an arylacetic acid derivative

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

flurbiprofen

d)

ketorolac

e)

oxaprozin

97.

cannot be used safely for more than 7 days

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

meclofenamate sodium

d)

mefenamic acid

e)

oxaprozin

98.

can treat primary dysmenorrhea

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

meclofenamate sodium

d)

mefenamic acid

e)

oxaprozin

99.

can use for chronic treatment. does have a high incidence of severe diarrhea

a)

suprofen

b)

etodolac

c)

meclofenamate sodium

d)

mefenamic acid

e)

oxaprozin

100.

do not have a COOH but instead have an enolic acid

a)

suprofen

b)

piroxicam

c)

meclofenamate sodium

d)

mefenamic acid

e)

meloxicam

101.

which oxicam is considered a selective COX-2 inhibitor

a)

meloxicam

b)

piroxicam

102.

first marketed selective COX-2 inhibitor

a)

etodolac

b)

piroxicam

c)

celecoxib

d)

meloxicam

103.

side effects include increased risk of serious CV thrombotic events, MI, and stroke

a)

etodolac

b)

piroxicam

c)

celecoxib

d)

meloxicam

104.

proteins in the blood that cause inflammation and affect blood pressure. they also increase blood flow throughout the body, make it easier for fluids to pass through small blood vessels, stimulate pain receptors, and are part of a complex system that helps repair damaged tissues in the body

(a)  

105.

catalyzes the intracellular release of arachidonic acid from the phospholipids

(a)  

106.

the conversion of arachidonic acid to PGG2 via COX-1 and COX-2 is the ____ ________ ____

(a)  

107.

29 year old man drinking 3 shots of whiskey daily

a)

APAP

b)

ibuprofen

c)

either

d)

neither

108.

what percentage of acetaminophen gets metabolized to NAPQI

(a)  

109.

what is the specific isoenzyme that makes more NAPQI.

(a)  

110.

64 year old taking warfarin for blood clot

a)

APAP

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

111.

MM is on warfarin. disregarding all other factors, what could you select for your patient

a)

APAP

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Selective COX-2

d)

Non-acetylated salicylates

112.

CK is on heparin. disregarding all other factors, what could you select for your patient

a)

APAP

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Selective COX-2

d)

Non-acetylated salicylates

113.

JT is on antiplatelets. disregarding all other factors, what could you select for your patient

a)

APAP

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Selective COX-2

d)

Non-acetylated salicylates

114.

PH is on NOACs/DOACs. disregarding all other factors, what could you select for your patient

a)

APAP

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Selective COX-2

d)

Non-acetylated salicylates

115.

NS is on ASA. disregarding all other factors, what could you select for your patient

a)

APAP

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Selective COX-2

d)

Non-acetylated salicylates

116.

76 year old taking gabapentin

a)

APAP

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

117.

58 year old with heart failure

a)

APAP

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

118.

54 year old with history of GI bleeds

a)

APAP

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

119.

50 year old taking 40mg lisinopril daily

a)

APAP

b)

naproxen

c)

neither

d)

either

120.

26 year old woman in her third trimester of pregancy

a)

APAP

b)

ibuprofen

c)

salicylates

d)

naproxen

121.

26 year old woman in her third trimester of pregancy

a)

APAP

b)

ibuprofen

c)

salicylates

d)

naproxen

122.

at (a)   weeks gestation it is best to begin avoiding NSAIDs for the remainder of the pregnancy due to the potential to cause fetal kidney dysfunction.

123.

46 year old woman receiving chemotherapy for metastatic breast cancer

a)

APAP

b)

naproxen

c)

APAP or meloxicam

d)

neither

124.

what is safe to use in patients with thrombocytopenia

a)

nonacetylated salicylates

b)

celecoxib

c)

meloxicam

d)

acetaminophen

e)

opioids

125.

34 year old man with aspirin-sensitive asthma

a)

APAP

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

126.

72 year old woman taking aspirin and sertraline

a)

APAP

b)

ibuprofen

c)

either

d)

neither

127.

t/f: bleeding can occur with low-dose ASA alone

a)

true

b)

false

128.

44 year old s/p roux-en y gastric bypass

a)

acetaminophen

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

129.

32 year old woman taking 20mg prednisone daily

a)

acetaminophen

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

130.

32 year old woman taking 20mg prednisone daily

a)

acetaminophen

b)

naproxen

c)

either

d)

neither

131.

found in the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and mucous membranes

a)

superficial somatic pain

b)

deep somatic pain

c)

visceral pain

132.

due to external mechanical, chemical, or thermal events

a)

superficial somatic pain

b)

deep somatic pain

c)

visceral pain

133.

found in muscles, tendons, joints, and bones.

a)

superficial somatic pain

b)

deep somatic pain

c)

visceral pain

134.

due to overuse, strain, mechanical injury, cramping, or inflammation

a)

superficial somatic pain

b)

deep somatic pain

c)

visceral pain

135.

carries proprioceptive signals, it is myelinated, the largest, and has the quickest conduction speed

a)

a-alpha

b)

a-beta

c)

a-delta

d)

c

136.

carries touch signals. it is myelinated, the second largest, and has the second quickest conduction speed

a)

a-alpha

b)

a-beta

c)

a-delta

d)

c

137.

not involved in pain signals unless there is a change in the nervous system. this is called allodynia.

a)

a-alpha

b)

a-beta

c)

a-delta

d)

c

138.

carries pain signals. it is myelinated. it carries the faster, more sharp-feeling pain. it has mechanoreceptors

a)

a-alpha

b)

a-beta

c)

a-delta

d)

c

139.

carries pain signals. it is not myelinated. it carries the slower pain which manifests as burning, aching, and gnawing. it is responsive to changes in temperature

a)

a-alpha

b)

a-beta

c)

a-delta

d)

c

140.

carries pain signals. it is not myelinated. it carries the slower pain which manifests as burning, aching, and gnawing. it is responsive to changes in temperature. it is chemically activated

a)

a-alpha

b)

a-beta

c)

a-delta

d)

c

141.

peripheral stimulus to dorsal root ganglion

a)

transduction

b)

conduction

c)

transmission

d)

perception

e)

modulation

142.

action potential from dorsal root ganglion to dorsal horn of the spinal cord

a)

transduction

b)

conduction

c)

transmission

d)

perception

e)

modulation

143.

dorsal horn of the spinal cord

a)

transduction

b)

conduction

c)

transmission

d)

perception

e)

modulation

144.

thalamus to reach somatic/sensory cortex and premotor cortex

a)

transduction

b)

conduction

c)

transmission

d)

perception

e)

modulation

145.

brainstem to spinal cord

a)

transduction

b)

conduction

c)

transmission

d)

perception

e)

modulation

146.

transduction

a)

chemical

b)

electrical

147.

conduction

a)

chemical

b)

electrical

148.

perception

a)

chemical

b)

electrical

149.

chemical to electrical

a)

transduction

b)

conduction

c)

transmission

d)

perception

e)

modulation

150.

chemical and electrical

a)

transduction

b)

conduction

c)

perception

d)

modulation

151.

incredibly complex GCPRs that are cell surface bound and set off a cascade of secondary messenger systems once a drug is bound that reduce the depolarization that is occuring

a)

opioid receptors

b)

voltage gated calcium channels

152.

presynaptic channels on the peripheral nociceptor

a)

opioid receptors

b)

voltage gated calcium channels

153.

there are two endogenous purine synthesis genetic enzyme abnormalities. which one is superactivity

a)

PRPP

b)

HGPRT

154.

there are two endogenous purine synthesis genetic enzyme abnormalities. which one is deficiency

a)

PRPP

b)

HGPRT

155.

accumulation of crystalline deposits in soft tissue and bone are called

(a)