wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Exam 2.1 Intro to FST

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes food processing from food engineering?

a)

Processing models solid matter and simulates production systems

b)

Engineering focuses on consumer response through sensory tests

c)

Engineering studies material properties and designs equipment

d)

Processing applies operations to change or preserve foods

2.

What is the primary goal of food analysis in food science?

a)

Evaluate consumer flavour preferences statistically

b)

Extend shelf life during storage and transport

c)

Quantify substances of interest in food matrices

d)

Design equipment to convert agricultural materials

3.

Which description captures the role of food packaging within food technology?

a)

Study interrelationships between properties of materials

b)

Determine macronutrients and bioactive compounds in foods

c)

Handle microorganisms beneficial and detrimental to health

d)

Develop materials and systems to protect and preserve products

4.

Which definition aligns with food safety practice?

a)

Apply engineering methods to optimize manufacturing costs

b)

Use physics to collect material properties for modelling

c)

Handle, prepare, and store food to prevent contamination

d)

Perform sensory analysis to assess consumer preferences

5.

Which interdisciplinary field directly studies beneficial and pathogenic microorganisms relevant to food?

a)

Statistics

b)

Physics

c)

Chemistry

d)

Microbiology

6.

Why are innovations in food science and technology important for society?

a)

Ensure a safe, nutritious, economical, sustainable food supply

b)

Provide longer ingredient lists with advanced terminology

c)

Eliminate the need for regulations across manufacturing

d)

Shift production entirely to aquatic organisms for food

7.

Which competency profile component focuses on interpreting data and critical thinking?

a)

Core disciplinary knowledge

b)

Personal traits

c)

Interdisciplinary competencies

d)

Professional skills

8.

A food technologist developing a plant‑based snack must most directly combine which knowledge areas to ensure safety and composition?

a)

Chemical and microbiological

b)

Statistics and computer science

c)

Artistic and psychological

d)

Legal and social science

9.

Which foundation of food science examines effects of intrinsic and extrinsic factors on food safety?

a)

Fisheries

b)

Biology

c)

Chemistry

d)

Engineering

10.

Which statement reflects the scope of food technology components mentioned?

a)

Excludes quality assurance and regulatory compliance entirely

b)

Focuses solely on marketing, websites, and consumer psychology

c)

Includes analysis, chemistry, biotechnology, packaging, engineering

d)

Limits activities to transport and sale without processing

11.

Which core knowledge area activity directly supports labeling and compliance with food standards?

a)

Automating production processes and market research

b)

Evaluating consumer response using experimental design

c)

Designing packaging systems for extended shelf life

d)

Determining nutritional and chemical components of food

12.

Which foundation field in food science most closely relates to creating safer processes and reducing manufacturing costs?

a)

Law

b)

Engineering

c)

Statistics

d)

Arts

13.

Which statement best defines nutrient profiling in food science?

a)

Measuring consumer preference through panel tests

b)

Ranking products by shelf presentation aesthetics

c)

Determining nutritional and energy content of foods

d)

Classifying foods by flavor intensity for marketing

14.

Which analytical method pair is correctly associated with precise measurement in food analysis?

a)

Magnetic resonance and thermal cameras

b)

Ultrasound imaging and X-ray diffraction

c)

pH strips and taste panels assessments

d)

Spectrophotometry and chromatography techniques

15.

Quality assurance mainly focuses on which activity compared to quality control?

a)

Randomized market surveys after distribution

b)

Routine sensory panels for batch selection

c)

Final product tasting for defects detection

d)

Systems and documentation to prevent defects

16.

Which item aligns with regulatory compliance in food composition work?

a)

Reducing salt for trends without testing

b)

Following Codex Alimentarius standards uniformly

c)

Selecting local recipes popular to consumers

d)

Optimizing package colors for better appeal

17.

Which processing technique directly targets pathogen elimination to ensure safety and longevity?

a)

Cold plasma retains nutrient quality

b)

Pulsed electric fields reduce heat damage

c)

High-pressure processing maintains freshness

d)

Pasteurization and sterilization remove pathogens

18.

Which principle best describes hurdle technology in preservation?

a)

Using multiple barriers like pH and temperature

b)

Reliance on single extreme heat treatment

c)

Switching packaging color to deter spoilage

d)

Exclusive use of natural antimicrobials only

19.

Which statement reflects sustainability and efficiency in modern preservation?

a)

Preference for heavy-metal preservatives usage

b)

Incorporating energy-efficient systems and eco-packaging

c)

Maximizing heat exposure to extend shelf life

d)

Prioritizing aesthetics over nutrient retention

20.

Which testing parameter is typical in product quality assessments?

a)

Celebrity endorsements and social metrics

b)

Sensory, microbiological, and physical tests

c)

Astrological alignment scoring systems

d)

Retail price elasticity curve fitting

21.

Continuous improvement in QA encourages which practice?

a)

Random changes without performance data

b)

Outsourcing testing to avoid inspections

c)

Eliminating documentation to reduce overhead

d)

Ongoing monitoring and process upgrades

22.

Which step is included in stages of product development for foods?

a)

Immediate mass manufacturing before trials

b)

Prototype formulation and pilot testing

c)

Skipping feasibility to speed commercialization

d)

Private tasting by the CEO only

23.

Which sensory evaluation method pair is commonly used to measure attributes like taste and aroma?

a)

Descriptive analysis and duo–trio tests

b)

Magnetic resonance and EEG scans

c)

Retail surveys and coupon redemptions

d)

Thermal imaging and moisture maps

24.

Which trend often guides innovation and market design in food products?

a)

Exclusive glass containers for all items

b)

Maximal artificial coloring in packaging

c)

Mandatory inclusion of rare animal fats

d)

Plant-based and low-sugar formulations

25.

What core principle is central to HACCP-based food safety management systems?

a)

Marketing and branding critical points only

b)

Identification and control of critical points

c)

Outsourcing hazard analysis to retailers

d)

Elimination of documentation requirements entirely

26.

ISO 22000 framework combines HACCP with which elements?

a)

Seasonal promotions and discount strategies

b)

Exclusive sensory panels and taste rankings

c)

Traceability and continual improvement systems

d)

Sports sponsorships and celebrity partnerships

27.

Which laboratory practice ensures precision by reducing measurement error?

a)

Routine calibration of analytical instruments

b)

Visual estimation using unmarked cylinders

c)

Occasional instrument cleaning post trials

d)

Random adjustments during sample testing

28.

Which documentation practice supports reproducibility and data reliability in labs?

a)

Keeping notes on sticky pads near benches

b)

Using verbal updates during team meetings only

c)

Leaving steps to memory for experienced analysts

d)

Recording procedures in standard operating protocols

29.

Which statement best describes the main goal of HACCP in food production?

a)

Prevent hazards through proactive control points

b)

Measure product quality after final packaging

c)

Compare batches using retrospective statistics

d)

Document complaints to inform future recalls

30.

In chromatography for food analysis, GC is most appropriate for which type of compounds?

a)

Large, polar biomolecules

b)

Volatile, thermally stable molecules

c)

Ionic, aqueous salts

d)

Heat-sensitive proteins

31.

HPLC is commonly chosen over GC when analyzing what kind of food components?

a)

Non-volatile, thermally labile compounds

b)

Highly volatile flavor aldehydes

c)

Permanent gases in headspace

d)

Neutral salts in brines

32.

Which step is essential when applying root cause analysis to a recurring quality defect?

a)

Increase sample size arbitrarily

b)

Identify underlying process causes

c)

Replace all equipment immediately

d)

Ignore outliers to simplify data

33.

Which statistical tool primarily helps detect shifts in a stable production process?

a)

Descriptive medians alone

b)

One-way ANOVA for group means

c)

Control charts for process monitoring

d)

Simple correlation coefficients

34.

Which action aligns with ethical conduct in food data reporting?

a)

Ensure honesty and transparency

b)

Highlight only favorable results

c)

Delay disclosure of safety risks

d)

Share confidential data publicly

35.

A QA Officer discovers a potential allergen cross-contact. What is the most appropriate immediate response?

a)

Delete records to avoid scrutiny

b)

Release product to meet deadlines

c)

Blame operators without evidence

d)

Hold product and investigate root causes

36.

Which responsibility is central to a Food Safety Officer’s role?

a)

Conduct consumer taste panels

b)

Negotiate supplier pricing

c)

Ensure compliance with food laws

d)

Design marketing campaigns

37.

Which practice demonstrates accountability in a laboratory setting?

a)

Take responsibility for decisions

b)

Shift blame to other teams

c)

Avoid documenting procedures

d)

Discard unexpected results

38.

During project management for a food R&D study, which element is most critical for traceability?

a)

Unstructured email notes

b)

Informal verbal updates

c)

Memory-based timelines

d)

Systematic documentation of processes

39.

Effective team communication in food safety most requires which behavior?

a)

Use casual language in reports

b)

Exclude regulators from updates

c)

Share information responsibly

d)

Ignore confidentiality rules

40.

Which scenario best illustrates cross-functional application of data in food manufacturing?

a)

QA, R&D, and production act on trends

b)

Production decides without data

c)

Only QA reviews control charts

d)

R&D ignores plant deviations

41.

Which measure reflects continuous professional growth for food technologists?

a)

Reject feedback from audits

b)

Limit learning to college notes

c)

Avoid new trainings and tools

d)

Maintain and improve competence

42.

Which choice best describes a key global challenge to food security by 2050?

a)

Population growth raising demand

b)

Declining hunger regardless of yield

c)

Unlimited arable land expansion

d)

Stable climate with ample water

43.

What major source contributes to post-harvest food losses?

a)

Seasonal marketing cycles

b)

High retail margins alone

c)

Excess consumer demand

d)

Poor handling and storage

44.

A production line shows increasing variability in moisture content. Which initial analytical approach is most appropriate?

a)

Change suppliers immediately

b)

Ignore changes until complaints

c)

Use control charts to track shifts

d)

Switch packaging without tests

45.

When designing an experiment to validate a new preservative, which step supports scientific integrity?

a)

Report only positive outcomes

b)

Alter data to fit expectations

c)

Skip replication to save time

d)

Define hypotheses and controls

46.

Which role most likely leads allergen risk assessments during product development?

a)

Restaurant maître d’

b)

Advertising specialist

c)

Retail store manager

d)

Quality Assurance Officer

47.

Which statement best describes a primary driver of food insecurity in regions lacking infrastructure?

a)

Advanced logistics systems overwhelm local markets

b)

High consumer demand reduces stock availability

c)

Limited cold storage increases post-harvest losses

d)

Enhanced farmer training saturates supply chains

48.

Food waste contributes approximately what share of global greenhouse gas emissions?

a)

About 8–10 percent of global emissions

b)

About 15–18 percent of global emissions

c)

About 2–4 percent of global emissions

d)

About 25–30 percent of global emissions

49.

Which economic consequence most directly results from global food loss and waste?

a)

Nearly $1 trillion in annual global costs

b)

Lower retail prices for consumers worldwide

c)

Reduced need for supply-chain financing

d)

Expanded profits for smallholder farmers

50.

Weak coordination among supply-chain actors typically leads to which outcome?

a)

Mismatched supply and demand

b)

Balanced inventories across regions

c)

Rapid adoption of traceability tools

d)

Improved storage and cold chains

51.

Which consumer behavior most increases edible food being discarded?

a)

Preference for visual perfection and misreading dates

b)

Frequent purchase of frozen foods with long shelf-life

c)

Routine meal planning and portion control

d)

Strong awareness of sustainability labeling

52.

Which climatic factor most consistently reduces crop yields in major staples like wheat and maize?

a)

Stable temperatures maintaining soil moisture

b)

Higher nighttime humidity improving flowering

c)

Heat stress weakening plant development

d)

Slight cooling during growing seasons

53.

Erratic precipitation patterns primarily threaten production by causing

a)

Droughts and floods that reduce soil moisture

b)

Uniform rainfall that enhances root growth

c)

Perennial rivers that stabilize irrigation

d)

Consistent monsoons that raise yields

54.

How does soil degradation undermine long-term agricultural sustainability?

a)

It increases nutrient depletion and erosion

b)

It accelerates carbon sequestration rates

c)

It stabilizes salinization in arable land

d)

It boosts microbial diversity and fertility

55.

Warmer climates expand pest ranges, leading most directly to

a)

Lower pesticide dependence among farmers

b)

Higher post-harvest losses and infestations

c)

Reduced pathogen pressure on crops

d)

Improved resilience of storage facilities

56.

Which climate-related change heightens mortality rates among livestock?

a)

Lower carbon dioxide improving forage quality

b)

Cooler nights enhancing reproduction

c)

Heat stress impairing animal health

d)

Stable temperatures with mild humidity

57.

Supply-chain disruptions from extreme weather most likely cause

a)

Expanded market access and price stability

b)

Damaged transport networks and storage losses

c)

Faster delivery and improved cold-chain

d)

Greater resilience of distribution centers

58.

Why are smallholder farmers particularly vulnerable to climate risks?

a)

They prioritize export crops over staples

b)

They have reliable insurance and capital

c)

They benefit from strong extension services

d)

They lack adaptive technologies and support

59.

Agriculture’s contribution to greenhouse gas emissions is largely driven by

a)

Livestock production, fertilizer use, and land-use change

b)

Marine aquaculture and coastal mangroves

c)

Urban consumer waste and packaging disposal

d)

Renewable energy powering farm operations

60.

Which challenge complicates control of emerging foodborne pathogens?

a)

Microbes evolving adaptability to controls

b)

Uniform global detection capabilities

c)

Reduced international trade of food products

d)

Declining antibiotic resistance in Salmonella

61.

Which statement best describes a key risk of gene flow from genetically modified crops?

a)

It eliminates the need for post-release monitoring

b)

It guarantees higher incomes for smallholders

c)

It can affect non-target species across borders

d)

It always improves crop nutrition worldwide

62.

Which trade-off is most associated with removing synthetic preservatives in clean-label reformulation?

a)

Immediate decrease in R&D time and costs

b)

Reduced spoilage without processing changes

c)

Lower need for packaging validation

d)

Higher risk of microbial or oxidative spoilage

63.

Natural replacers in clean-label products often increase which development barrier?

a)

International tariff harmonization

b)

Supply chain traceability requirements

c)

Sensory trials and reformulation costs

d)

Mandatory pesticide residue testing

64.

Which factor contributes most to supply variability for specialty natural ingredients?

a)

Seasonal harvests and higher prices

b)

Uniform global production schedules

c)

Stable yields from indoor cultivation

d)

Guaranteed long-term purchase contracts

65.

Which challenge reflects an ethical sourcing concern in global food supply chains?

a)

Automatic income growth for producers

b)

Excess consumer demand for luxury goods

c)

Incomplete farm-level traceability systems

d)

Rapid certification processing times

66.

Why do equity and compliance burdens often persist despite due-diligence programs?

a)

They never require financial support

b)

They disproportionately affect smallholders

c)

They only apply to large multinational firms

d)

They remove the need for local engagement

67.

Which requirement raises the evidence bar for functional food health claims?

a)

Shelf-life studies using sensory panels only

b)

Clinical or bioavailability data for bioactives

c)

Government bans on fortified formulations

d)

Marketing testimonials from early adopters

68.

What is a common stability challenge for bioactive compounds in functional foods?

a)

Unlimited thermal resilience of nutrients

b)

Elimination of encapsulation technologies

c)

Degradation during processing and storage

d)

Rapid growth in probiotic diversity

69.

Which barrier most limits scale-up of alternative proteins like cultivated meat?

a)

Uniform global regulatory pathways

b)

Abundant low-cost bioreactor capacity

c)

Immediate parity in consumer flavor expectations

d)

Process innovation and capital requirements

70.

Why does regulatory clarity matter for alternative proteins?

a)

It reduces uncertainty from varying evidence

b)

It standardizes sensory panel methods

c)

It removes the need for safety evaluation

d)

It guarantees subsidies for all producers

71.

Which strategy best supports consumer acceptance of novel proteins?

a)

Emphasize transparent nutrition communication

b)

Avoid discussing environmental impacts

c)

Replace labels with brand logos only

d)

Hide processing methods to reduce scrutiny

72.

Which smart packaging feature most directly enables faster recalls?

a)

Heat-resistant decorative coatings

b)

Blockchain-enabled digital traceability

c)

Single-use plastic sealing strips

d)

Flavor-enhancing microcapsules

73.

What interoperability issue can undermine end-to-end traceability systems?

a)

Universal RFID adoption by all suppliers

b)

Reliable on-farm data capture practices

c)

Fragmented data standards across regions

d)

Consistent cloud storage performance

74.

Which risk must be evaluated for novel packaging materials to ensure safety?

a)

Color fading of external graphics

b)

Chemical migration and endocrine disruption

c)

Loss of brand recognition during transport

d)

Increased recycling rates and costs

75.

Which goal of food safety best explains why companies invest in proper handling, processing, and storage?

a)

To prevent foodborne illnesses across the supply chain

b)

To increase shelf labels and marketing claims

c)

To reduce product variety offered to consumers

d)

To avoid taste changes during transportation

76.

Why is prevention over inspection emphasized in modern food safety systems?

a)

It focuses on reactive responses after outbreaks

b)

It relies solely on end-product testing

c)

It addresses contamination before it occurs

d)

It eliminates the need for sanitation steps

77.

Which statement best describes the farm-to-table approach?

a)

Safety responsibilities span all stages and stakeholders

b)

Processing plants are the single critical control point

c)

Retailers alone are accountable for final product safety

d)

Only farms determine contamination risks and controls

78.

Which is a key component of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP)?

a)

Elimination of employee training programs

b)

Clean facilities and maintained equipment

c)

Exclusive reliance on consumer complaints

d)

Randomized storage without records

79.

Good Hygienic Practices (GHP) primarily focus on:

a)

Reducing packaging material thickness

b)

Automated flavor enhancement systems

c)

Maximizing production speed metrics

d)

Personal and environmental hygiene measures

80.

Which principle is central to Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP)?

a)

Identify hazards and set critical limits

b)

Test only finished goods after distribution

c)

Outsource sanitation to third-party vendors

d)

Rely on historical recall data for decisions

81.

What is the most accurate definition of a foodborne hazard?

a)

Any advertising claim that confuses market choices

b)

Any factor in food that can adversely affect health

c)

Any ingredient that lowers product cost to consumers

d)

Any storage method that changes product appearance

82.

Which symptom set is most typical of biological hazards causing foodborne illness?

a)

Skin dryness, hair breakage, eye strain

b)

Gastrointestinal distress, diarrhoea, vomiting

c)

Joint pain, muscle cramp, bone density loss

d)

Nasal congestion, ear ringing, sore throat

83.

Which pairing correctly matches pathogen habitat with associated foods for Salmonella spp.?

a)

Human skin; cooked rice and potatoes

b)

Marine water; raw shellfish and seaweed

c)

Animal intestine; raw meat, poultry, eggs

d)

Soil and root crops; steamed meat and poultry

84.

Which bacterial pathogen is most linked with soil and animal intestines and often associated with steamed meat and stuffed poultry?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Vibrio spp.

d)

Escherichia coli O157:H7

85.

Which statement best captures why allergens are classified under chemical hazards?

a)

They are proteins causing hypersensitivity reactions

b)

They are metals accumulating in plant tissues

c)

They are cleaning residues altering pH balance

d)

They are pesticides applied post-harvest only

86.

A company aims to bolster consumer trust and market competitiveness through food safety. Which strategy aligns most directly with this goal?

a)

Reducing documentation to speed up audits

b)

Relying on recalls as the primary control

c)

Focusing only on retail checks before sale

d)

Meeting standards to maintain brand reputation

87.

Which statement best distinguishes bacterial infections from bacterial intoxications in foodborne illness?

a)

Infections result from live pathogens colonizing the host

b)

Intoxications arise when viruses replicate in the intestine

c)

Intoxications require antibiotic resistance to develop

d)

Infections occur only after toxins contaminate cooked foods

88.

Mycotoxins are primarily produced by which source associated with food contamination?

a)

Viruses in improperly canned vegetables

b)

Parasites in undercooked seafood

c)

Pathogenic bacteria in refrigerated meats

d)

Certain molds growing on crops and foods

89.

Why are antibiotics considered a chemical hazard in the food supply?

a)

Residues can disrupt gut microbiota and resistance

b)

They always destroy beneficial food enzymes

c)

They convert proteins into carcinogenic compounds

d)

Residues only form during high‑temperature pasteurization

90.

Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) pose risks largely because they

a)

Rapidly degrade in sunlight and air exposure

b)

Bioaccumulate through food chains and persist

c)

Cannot cross biological membranes in animals

d)

Exist only in fresh produce and bottled water

91.

Which list best represents common heavy metals of food safety concern?

a)

Sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, zinc

b)

Mercury, lead, cadmium, arsenic, uranium

c)

Iron, copper, manganese, cobalt, nickel

d)

Chromium, molybdenum, selenium, silver, tin

92.

Carcinogens are chemicals that primarily

a)

Increase cancer risk with small exposures

b)

Only cause acute respiratory irritation

c)

Explode when mixed with water or air

d)

Prevent DNA synthesis during cooking

93.

Mutagens are best defined as chemicals that

a)

Induce genetic changes in DNA or RNA

b)

Ignite easily when exposed to oxygen

c)

Halt fetal development in late pregnancy

d)

React violently with non‑chemical substances

94.

Chemical teratogens are most associated with

a)

Producing flammable vapors in storage

b)

Disrupting normal fetal development

c)

Causing immediate skin corrosion

d)

Generating microbial toxins in food

95.

Chemical reactants as hazards are substances that

a)

Trigger dangerous reactions like explosions

b)

Always burn at room temperature in air

c)

Only corrode metals upon direct contact

d)

Cause allergic reactions after repeated use

96.

A flammable chemical hazard in food facilities is characterized by its ability to

a)

Ignite or burn when exposed to oxygen

b)

Cause blindness after minimal skin contact

c)

Bioaccumulate in animal fat tissues

d)

Mutate viral genomes during storage

97.

Which description best fits a chemical asphyxiant hazard?

a)

Bioaccumulates in aquatic food chains

b)

Leads to genetic mutations in cell nuclei

c)

Causes reversible skin irritation on contact

d)

Deprives the body of oxygen via bloodstream

98.

Chemical corrosives are defined by their ability to

a)

Cause visible or irreversible material changes

b)

Produce allergenic reactions after exposure

c)

Disrupt fetal neural development only

d)

Explode when mixed with non‑chemical agents

99.

Chemical irritants primarily affect the

a)

Genetic material in DNA and RNA

b)

Liver, kidneys, and brain tissue

c)

Eyes, skin, or respiratory system

d)

Fetal organs during early gestation

100.

Sensitizers are chemicals that

a)

Explode when combined with acidic solutions

b)

Instantly deprive tissues of oxygen transport

c)

Cause allergic reactions after repeated exposure

d)

Always corrode metals upon prolonged contact

101.

Which scenario most likely introduces a physical hazard into food?

a)

Broken glass fragments in processed jars

b)

Mycotoxin presence in stored grains

c)

Low‑level POPs in animal fat tissues

d)

Antibiotic residues in poultry products

102.

Which statement aligns with the principle "if it is not safe, it is not food"?

a)

Food must be free of hazards to be acceptable

b)

Unsafe food can be sold with warning labels

c)

Minor contamination is allowed for retail sale

d)

Safety applies only to fresh produce items

103.

Which Philippine agency primarily regulates processed and pre‑packaged foods?

a)

Department of Agriculture main office

b)

Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources

c)

Food and Drug Administration under DOH

d)

Local Government Units health divisions

104.

Under RA 10611, which practice is required of business operators to ensure safety?

a)

Removal of all allergens from packaged foods

b)

Routine addition of antibiotics to animal feed

c)

Exclusive use of imported sanitation equipment

d)

Good Agricultural, Hygienic, and Manufacturing Practices

105.

Which responsibility belongs to Local Government Units in food safety enforcement?

a)

Conduct local inspection and surveillance

b)

Issue export‑level phyto certifications

c)

Accredit slaughterhouses nationwide

d)

Set Codex Alimentarius standards

106.

Which function is correctly matched to the Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources?

a)

Enforces labeling rules for allergen declarations

b)

Conducts ante‑mortem inspections in slaughterhouses

c)

Issues LTO for food establishments and CPR for products

d)

Regulates fishery products from harvest to post‑harvest

107.

Which law establishes the national framework for food safety in the Philippines, coordinating multiple agencies to protect consumer health?

a)

Presidential Decree No. 856 of 1975

b)

Republic Act No. 9003 of 2000

c)

Republic Act No. 9275 of 2004

d)

Republic Act No. 10611 of 2013

108.

Which agency oversees plant-based food safety including pesticide residue limits, plant quarantine, and phytosanitary certification?

a)

National Food Authority

b)

Bureau of Animal Industry

c)

Fertilizer and Pesticide Authority

d)

Bureau of Plant Industry

109.

Which body regulates the production, trade, and safety of animal and animal-based food products and issues sanitary and veterinary permits?

a)

Department of Health

b)

National Meat Inspection Service

c)

Bureau of Animal Industry

d)

Bureau of Plant Industry

110.

Who issues the Meat Inspection Certificate and oversees classification of AAA, AA, and A slaughterhouses?

a)

Local Government Units

b)

National Meat Inspection Service

c)

National Food Authority

d)

Food and Drug Administration

111.

Which authority ensures safe and responsible use of fertilizers and pesticides to protect consumer health and the environment?

a)

Philippine Rice Research Institute

b)

Food and Drug Administration

c)

Bureau of Postharvest Research

d)

Fertilizer and Pesticide Authority

112.

Which agency regulates the quality and safety of staple grains and implements standards for procurement, storage, and distribution?

a)

Bureau of Plant Industry

b)

Food and Drug Administration

c)

World Health Organization

d)

National Food Authority

113.

Which institute promotes Good Agricultural Practices and proper pesticide management specifically in rice farming?

a)

Fertilizer and Pesticide Authority

b)

Bureau of Animal Industry

c)

Philippine Rice Research Institute

d)

International Organization for Standardization

114.

Which decree provides the national sanitation framework for food establishments and empowers inspectors to enforce closures for violations?

a)

Republic Act No. 9275

b)

Republic Act No. 9003

c)

Republic Act No. 10611

d)

Presidential Decree No. 856

115.

Which code empowers Local Government Units to implement national food safety laws and adopt ordinances on market sanitation and food vending?

a)

Presidential Decree No. 856

b)

Republic Act No. 10611

c)

Republic Act No. 9275

d)

Republic Act No. 7160

116.

Under RA 7160, which local officers supervise public markets, slaughterhouses, and food establishments?

a)

Provincial engineers

b)

Agriculture extension workers

c)

Local health officers

d)

Barangay captains

117.

Which law promotes waste segregation to prevent environmental contamination that can affect food safety and requires management of biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste?

a)

RA 7160 Local Government Code

b)

RA 9275 Philippine Clean Water Act

c)

RA 9003 Ecological Solid Waste Management Act

d)

RA 10611 Food Safety Act

118.

Which act requires food establishments to comply with effluent standards and obtain discharge permits when releasing wastewater?

a)

Republic Act No. 9275

b)

Republic Act No. 9003

c)

Republic Act No. 10611

d)

Presidential Decree No. 856

119.

Which international commission sets voluntary global food standards used as benchmarks for trade and dispute resolution?

a)

International Organization for Standardization

b)

Codex Alimentarius Commission

c)

World Trade Organization

d)

ASEAN Food Safety Network

120.

Which organization partners with WHO and plays a consultative role in international food policy-making?

a)

Food and Agriculture Organization

b)

International Organization for Standardization

c)

World Trade Organization

d)

National Food Authority

121.

ISO’s Food Safety Management System incorporates which concepts?

a)

Meat Inspection Certificate requirements

b)

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points

c)

Good Agricultural Practices only

d)

TBT and SPS agreements

122.

Which network includes the Philippines and cooperates on food safety standards across ASEAN countries?

a)

Codex Alimentarius Commission

b)

ASEAN Food Safety Network

c)

World Health Organization

d)

Philippine Rice Research Institute

123.

Which organization balances fair trade practices and food safety through TBT and SPS agreements?

a)

World Health Organization

b)

Food and Agriculture Organization

c)

International Organization for Standardization

d)

World Trade Organization

124.

Which statement best characterizes Codex standards compliance?

a)

Applicable only to grain storage

b)

Mandatory for national authorities

c)

Voluntary and globally recognized

d)

Legally binding for all WTO members

125.

Which body develops international food standards to protect consumer health and ensure fair trade?

a)

Codex Alimentarius Commission

b)

International Organization for Standardization

c)

United States Food and Drug Administration

d)

World Trade Organization (WTO)

126.

What primary focus distinguishes ISO 22000 within food safety management?

a)

Mandatory government inspections

b)

Integration of HACCP into FSMS

c)

Trade dispute resolution mechanisms

d)

Farm-to-fork precautionary rules

127.

Which agreement allows countries to set scientifically justified, non-discriminatory food safety regulations?

a)

Food Safety Modernization Act

b)

EU Regulation No. 178/2002

c)

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

d)

Sanitary and Phytosanitary Agreement

128.

Under EU Regulation No. 178/2002, which agency holds authoritative power to set the food safety framework among member states?

a)

WTO

b)

US-FDA

c)

EFSA

d)

ISO

129.

The Food Safety Modernization Act primarily shifts U.S. policy toward which approach?

a)

Consumer labeling standardization only

b)

Reactive enforcement after outbreaks

c)

Preventive controls across the supply chain

d)

Trade liberalization through mutual recognition

130.

Which benefit of compliance directly builds public trust in food quality and safety?

a)

Consumer confidence through accurate labeling

b)

Economic growth from expanded exports

c)

Environmental protection via water use rules

d)

Governance by empowering local agencies

131.

Which outcome is most associated with traceability and accountability in the food supply chain?

a)

Improved taste consistency

b)

Reduced recall costs and waste

c)

Higher marketing budgets

d)

Faster customs clearance

132.

Which global effect of compliance helps reduce trade barriers and simplify export processes?

a)

Increased domestic subsidies

b)

Mandatory private certification audits

c)

Harmonization of local laws with global standards

d)

Uniform hygiene requirements

133.

What is a core environmental protection benefit of food safety compliance?

a)

Proper waste management and pollution control

b)

Expanded advertising disclosures

c)

Higher inspection fees for non-compliance

d)

Faster product development cycles

134.

Which statement best explains how SPS Agreement participation supports developing countries?

a)

Eliminates local regulation authority

b)

Provides subsidies for exporters

c)

Offers technical assistance and capacity building

d)

Mandates use of ISO 22000 in all factories

135.

According to WHO, approximately how many people are affected by foodborne illnesses each year globally?

a)

33 million people

b)

600 million people

c)

220 million people

d)

420 million people

136.

Which pair lists one acute and one chronic outcome of foodborne diseases?

a)

Norovirus and aflatoxin-related liver cancer

b)

Diarrhea and handwashing compliance

c)

HACCP and ISO certification

d)

Traceability and recall notices

137.

Which benefit most directly minimizes healthcare costs and boosts workforce productivity?

a)

Increased labeling complexity

b)

Investment in food marketing

c)

Preventing foodborne disease outbreaks

d)

Transparent trade inspections

138.

Why does aligning national frameworks with international standards strengthen food systems?

a)

It allows more product variety in markets

b)

It ensures unified commitment and cooperation

c)

It reduces the need for hygiene training

d)

It replaces all local laws with Codex rules

139.

Which mechanism within ISO 22000 aids identification, assessment, and control of risks to consumers?

a)

Private trade arbitration panels

b)

Food Safety Management System

c)

Mandatory border inspections

d)

Retail-level sampling mandates

140.

Which component of risk analysis focuses on identifying hazards and evaluating their likelihood and severity in food systems?

a)

Risk assessment process evaluating harm likelihood

b)

Food defense protecting against intentional adulteration

c)

Risk management implementing preventive measures

d)

Risk communication sharing stakeholder information

141.

Which step is NOT one of the four key stages of risk assessment?

a)

Risk identification recognizing hazards

b)

Risk communication building trust

c)

Exposure assessment estimating intake

d)

Hazard characterization evaluating effects

142.

What is the primary goal of risk management in food safety?

a)

Share information across stakeholders

b)

Implement policies reducing food hazards

c)

Quantify dose–response relationships

d)

Detect intentional adulteration incidents

143.

Which statement best describes risk communication in food safety?

a)

Transparent exchange of safety information

b)

Verification that SSOPs are documented

c)

Quantitative analysis of hazard exposure

d)

Regulatory enforcement of CCPs

144.

Which HACCP principle defines acceptable parameters such as temperature or pH?

a)

Establish critical limits for parameters

b)

Conduct hazard analysis for hazards

c)

Establish verification to confirm system

d)

Determine CCPs for control points

145.

Which HACCP principle requires outlining actions when a deviation occurs?

a)

Establish corrective actions response plans

b)

Establish recordkeeping maintain traceability

c)

Conduct hazard analysis identify hazards

d)

Establish monitoring procedures routine checks

146.

Which statement correctly contrasts risk assessment and risk management?

a)

Assessment evaluates risks; management applies controls

b)

Neither informs decision-making in food safety

c)

Both implement policies and regulations

d)

Assessment implements controls; management evaluates risks

147.

Which key outcome of effective risk communication is emphasized for food safety incidents?

a)

Coordinated responses among stakeholders

b)

Fewer monitoring checks at plants

c)

Higher critical limits for CCPs

d)

Reduced exposure estimates in models

148.

What does HACCP primarily focus on within production?

a)

Critical points where contamination occurs

b)

End-product pathogen testing programs

c)

Consumer education campaigns

d)

Post-market recall communications

149.

Which GMP core principle addresses the need for workers to maintain cleanliness and wear protective clothing?

a)

Premises and equipment design standards

b)

Sanitation and pest control programs

c)

Raw material control and inspection

d)

Personnel hygiene requirements for staff

150.

Which GMP principle ensures facilities are designed for easy cleaning and workflow?

a)

Production and process validated steps

b)

Premises and equipment well-designed

c)

Maintenance and calibration regular checks

d)

Documentation and records compliance