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A&P1 Final Review

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the characteristics of cardiac muscle?

a)

Involuntary

b)

Found in the heart

c)

Banded appearance

d)

Dense connective tissue packaging

2.

Where is smooth muscle found?

a)

Heart

b)

Facial

c)

Organs

d)

Legs

3.

The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle fasciculus is:

a)

epimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

perimysium

4.

Given the following events:

1. Acetylcholine is broken down

2. Acetylcholine moves across the synaptic cleft

3. Action potential reaches the terminal branch (presynaptic terminal)

4. Acetylcholine combines with a receptor molecule on a skeletal muscle (postsynaptic membrane)

5. Action potential is produced in the skeletal muscle cell


Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur at a neuromuscular junction.

a)

2,3,4,1,5

b)

3,2,4,5,1

c)

3,4,2,1,3

d)

4,5,2,1,3

5.

Muscles that oppose one another are

a)

synergist

b)

hateful

c)

prime movers

d)

antagonists

6.

Muscles are composed of which of the following?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Fats

7.

Which of the following is defined as the ability of an object to quickly return to its original shape and size?

a)

Elasticity

b)

Excitibility

c)

Flexibility

d)

Extensibility

8.
Which of the following is defined as the ability to change or be changed according to circumstances?
a)
Elasticity
b)
Excitability
c)
Flexibility
d)
Extensibility
9.
Which of the following is NOT a type of muscle?
a)
Rough
b)
Smooth
c)
Cardiac
d)
Skeletal
10.
Skeletal muscles are responsible for which of the following?
a)
Movement of the body
b)
Movement of the heart
c)
Movement of the ligaments 
d)
Movement of the extremities
11.

Which of the following describes the sarcomere?

a)

The basic unit of muscle’s cross-striated myofibril

b)

A protein band that defines the boundary between one sarcomere

c)

Various muscle proteins

d)

Contains the protein actin

12.

Which of the following describes muscle bundles?

a)

Long, multinucleated, thread-like cells

b)

A set of muscle fibers grouped together

c)

Considered to be the cell of the muscle

d)

Organelles that are unique to muscle tissue

13.

What are muscles needed for?

a)

movement

b)

decoration

c)

pump blood

d)

no one knows

14.

Where is smooth muscle located?

a)

heart

b)

bones

c)

toes

d)

internal organs

15.

The nerve releases a chemical called a

a)

neurotransmitter

b)

neuron

c)

myofibril

d)

cell

16.

The following is NOT one of the 3 joint classifications:

a)

Cartilaginous

b)

Cartilage

c)

Fibrous

d)

Synovial

17.

The joints that allow the most movement are called

a)

Fixed

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Synovial

18.

Examples of a Ball & Socket Joint are found in the:

a)

Shoulder

b)

Knee

c)

Hip

d)

Ankle

19.

An example of a saddle joint is found in the

a)

Knee

b)

Hip

c)

Thumb

d)

Vertebral column

20.

Which of the following are parts of a synovial joint?

a)

Synovial membrane

b)

Joint cavity

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

21.

When kicking a football, the knee

a)

Flexes

b)

Extends

c)

Abducts

d)

Adducts

22.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
23.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
24.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Abduction
d)
Adduction
25.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Circumduction
b)
Lateral Rotation
c)
Medial Rotation
d)
Eversion
26.

The elbows, knees, and phalanges are examples of this type of joint.

a)

ball and socket

b)

condyloid

c)

gliding

d)

hinge

27.

What are fibrous joints?

a)

freely moveable

b)

partially moveable

c)

immovable

28.

What is the central nervous system (CNS) made of?

a)

brain and spinal cord

b)

brain and cranial nerves

c)

spinal cord and spinal nerves

d)

cranial nerves and spinal nerves

29.

What are the two major divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

a)

Sensory & Motor

b)

Peripheral & Central

c)

Somatic & Autonomic

d)

Brain & Spinal Cord

30.

Sensory neurons carry nerve impulses from the sense organs and internal organs (such as your stomach) to the

a)

peripheral nervous system (PNS)

b)

central nervous system (CNS)

c)

muscles

d)

sense organs

31.

What is NOT a part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

a)

axons

b)

sensory receptors

c)

spinal cord

d)

motor neurons

32.

A signal molecule that transmits nerve impulses across synapses.

a)

neuron

b)

neurotransmitter

c)

nerve

d)

action potential

33.

Nerve impulse

a)

action potential

b)

resting potential

c)

membrane potential

d)

synapse

34.

Part of a neuron that receives information from other neurons

a)

axon

b)

dendrites

c)

myelin sheath

d)

synapse

35.

The part of the neuron that carries information away from the cell body is called a(n) _____________.

a)

dendrite

b)

axon

c)

cell body

d)

Schwann cell

36.

The location at which a neuron can transfer an impulse to another cell using neurotransmitters is called __________.

a)

myelin sheath

b)

axon

c)

threshold

d)

synapse

37.

Label the Neuron - What does the letter "H" represent?

a)

Myelin Sheath

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Dendrite

38.

Label the Neuron - What does the letter "F" represent?

a)

Myelin Sheath

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Dendrite

39.

Label the Neuron - What does the letter "C" represent?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon Terminal

d)

Cell Body

40.

Label the Neuron - What does the letter "A" represent?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Myelin Sheath

d)

Node of Ranvier

41.

These neuron processes transmit information from sensory organs to the central nervous system.

a)

efferent

b)

afferent

42.

These neuron processes transmit information from the central nervous system to muscles and glands.

a)

efferent

b)

afferent

43.

This part of the nervous system regulates involuntary actions such as heart function, blood pressure, breathing, and digestion.

a)

Autonomic Nervous System

b)

Sensory Nervous System

c)

Motor Nervous System

d)

Peripheral Nervous System

44.

Where is the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) located?

a)

Organs & Limbs

b)

Brain & Spinal Cord

c)

Motor Neurons & Cerebrum

d)

Sensory Neurons & Medulla Oblongata

45.
What part of the brain controls smell?
a)
Medulla Oblongata
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Olfactory Lobe
d)
Cerebellum
46.
What does the Medulla Oblongata control?
a)
Smell
b)
Autonomic Functions
c)
Taste
d)
Muscles & Coordination
47.

What does the cerebrum control? 

a)

What you've learned since birth

b)

Smell

c)

Autonomic functions

d)

Muscles & coordination

48.

What does the Cerebellum control?

a)

What you have learned since birth

b)

Smell

c)

Autonomic functions

d)

Muscles & coordination

49.

What does the Corpus Callosum connect?

a)

Left/Right Hemispheres

b)

Medulla & Cerebellum

c)

Cerebrum & Medulla Oblongata

d)

Frontal & Occipital Lobes

50.

What does the Pons connect?

a)

Left/Right Hemispheres

b)

Medulla & Cerebellum

c)

Cerebrum & Medulla Oblongata

d)

Frontal & Occipital Lobes

51.

What makes up the convolutions of the brain?

a)

Gyri & Sulci

b)

Fissures

c)

Ventricles

d)

Cerebrospinal Fluid

52.
Which of the following lobes are unpaired?
a)
Temporal & Frontal
b)
Frontal & Occipital
c)
Temporal & Parietal
d)
Parietal & Occipital
53.
Which of the following lobes are paired?
a)
Temporal & Frontal
b)
Frontal & Occipital
c)
Temporal & Parietal
d)
Parietal & Occipital
54.

Where is the "tree of life"?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Longitudinal Cerebral Fissure

55.

What does the Vagus Nerve control?

a)

Heart, Lungs, Digestive Tract

b)

Muscles & Coordination

c)

Sense Organs

d)

Left Hemisphere

56.

What is the 3-layered, protective skin on the brain & spinal cord?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Pleura

c)

Meninges

d)

Cerebrospinal Fluid

57.
What part of the brain is myelinated last?
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Occipital Lobe
c)
Medulla Oblongata
d)
Cerebellum
58.
Which is not part of the meninges?
a)
Arachnoid Mater
b)
Pia Mater
c)
Dura Mater
d)
Whatsa Matter
59.

What does the Prefrontal Cortex control?

a)

Sense Organs

b)

Decision Making / Judgement

c)

Learning & Memory

d)

Muscles & Coordination

60.

What is the name for the tough, membranous covering that encloses and protects the muscle?

a)

Endocardium

b)

Tendons

c)

Ligaments

d)

Fascia

61.

What is another name for the Achilles tendon?

a)

Calcaneal Tendon

b)

Biceps Tendon

c)

Calcaneal Ligament

d)

Arches of the foot

62.

What does a ligament connect?

a)

Muscle to Bone

b)

Bone to Bone

c)

Muscle to Muscle

d)

Bone to Fasciae

63.

What does a tendon connect?

a)

Muscle to Bone

b)

Bone to Bone

c)

Muscle to Muscle

d)

Bone to Fasciae

64.
What is the white line of your "six pack" called?
a)
Whitus Lineus
b)
Linea Aponeurosis
c)
Linea Alba
d)
Abdominal Sixpackeus
65.

What type of control do smooth muscles have?

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

c)

Optional

d)

Intentional

66.

What kind of control do cardiac muscles have?

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

c)

Partial

d)

Unintentional

67.

What type of control do skeletal muscles have?

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

68.
What movement increases the angle of a joint?
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Hyperextension
d)
Abduction
69.
What movement decreases the angle of a joint?
a)
Extension
b)
Flexion
c)
Hyperextension
d)
Abduction
70.

What movement goes beyondnormal extension of a joint?

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Hyperextension

d)

Abduction

71.

Which abdominal muscle runs straight up and down our abs?

a)

Transversus Abdominis

b)

Rectus Abdominis

c)

Internal Oblique

d)

External Oblique

72.

Which abdominal muscle runs diagonally on the inside?

a)

External Oblique

b)

Internal Oblique

c)

Rectus Abdominis

d)

Transversus Abdominis

73.

Which abdominal muscle runs diagonally on the outside?

a)

External Oblique

b)

Internal Oblique

c)

Rectus Abdominis

d)

Transversus Abdominis

74.

Allows you to swallow food

a)

Trigeminal

b)

Facial

c)

Glossopharyngeal

d)

Hypoglossal

75.
Sense of smell
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
VII
76.

What function do the orbits, eyelashes, and lacrimal glands all have in common?

a)

Nutrition

b)

Lubrication

c)

Protection

d)

Excretion

77.

When you look in a mirror, which part of the eye can you NOT see?

a)

Iris

b)

Pupil

c)

Sclera

d)

Retina

78.

What are the two functions of the lens of the eye?

a)

Refraction and accommodation

b)

Impulse reception and transmission

c)

Maintains the shape of the eyeball and refracts light

d)

Color vision and night vision

79.

Which part of the eye is actually a mucous membrane?

a)

Sclera

b)

Cornea

c)

Choroid coat

d)

Conjunctiva

80.

When a person looks at an image, light rays pass through the eye and are focused on the:

a)

Pupil

b)

Retina

c)

Optic nerve

d)

Lens

81.

Which eye condition can occur in a person with a normally shaped eyeball?

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Presbyopia

d)

Astigmatism

82.

How is glaucoma typically treated?

a)

Medication

b)

Surgical removal of the lens

c)

Corrective lenses

d)

Radial kertotomy

83.

Which eye condition occurs most frequently in children?

a)

Cataract

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Strabismus

d)

Presbyopia

84.
What is the largest structure of the ear?
a)
Malleus
b)
Cochlea
c)
Pinna
d)
Tympanic membrane
85.
Where would you find cerumen?
a)
Eustachian tube
b)
External auditory canal
c)
Semicircular canals
d)
Cochlea
86.
If your ossicles were removed, you would NOT be able to:
a)
Equalize pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane
b)
Maintain your sense of balance
c)
Transmit sound waves to the inner ear
d)
Carry nerve impulses to the cerebrum
87.

Of the following, when a sound is heard, which structure is the first to transmit the sound wave?

a)

Organ of Corti

b)

Cochlea

c)

Stapes

d)

Tympanic membrane

88.

Which organ of the inner ear is NOT involved in hearing?

a)

Vestibule

b)

Cochlea

c)

Organ of Corti

d)

Semicircular canals

89.

Which statement about the sense of taste is true?

a)

Taste is influenced by the sense of smell

b)

Taste buds are called lacteals

c)

There are no taste buds in the back of the tongue

d)

There are two main tastes, sweet and salty

90.

Olfactory receptors are found:

a)

on the tongue

b)

in the nose

c)

in the ear

d)

in the skin

91.

Pauline has conductive hearing loss, which can be caused by:

a)

auditory nerve damage

b)

an infection in the semicircular canals

c)

a ruptured tympanic membrane

d)

damage to the cochlea

92.
Organisms in the throat can travel up the eustachian tube and cause:
a)
Otosclerosis
b)
A cerumen plug
c)
Otitis media
d)
Meniere's disease
93.
The tube that connects the ear to the pharynx
a)
esophagus
b)
Eustachian tube
c)
palatine
d)
tympanic
94.

The colored portion of the eye.

a)

iris

b)

cornea

c)

retina

d)

pupil

95.
The outermost layer of the eye
a)
conjunctiva
b)
sclera
c)
retina
d)
Choroid coat
96.

The sense of smell is made possible by

a)

taste receptors

b)

nasal receptors

c)

olfactory receptors

d)

sense receptors

97.

The tongue is a mass of muscle tissue with projections called

a)

olfactory receptors

b)

taste buds

c)

papillae

d)

villi

98.

Sensors of black and white shades.

a)

cones

b)

conjunctiva

c)

rods

d)

schlera

99.
What is known as the "blind spot"?
a)
cornea
b)
optic disc
c)
optic nerve
d)
retina
100.
What is the name of the small bones in the ear?
a)
auricle
b)
ossicles
c)
cochlea
d)
tympanic membrane
101.

What is labeled as D?

a)

external auditory canal

b)

cochlea

c)

Eustachian tube

d)

stapes

102.

What is labeled as 4?

a)

lens

b)

optic disc

c)

cornea

d)

iris

103.

What is labeled as 5?

a)

retina

b)

cornea

c)

iris

d)

optic disc

104.

What number represents the iris?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

6

105.

What carries signals from the nose to the brain for processing?

a)

olfactory nerves

b)

receptor cells

c)

olfactory bulb

d)

auditory canal

106.

Hearing loss due to lesions or dysfunction of parts of the ear.

a)

sensory hearing loss

b)

conductive hearing loss

107.
The anterior chamber of the eye is filled with 
a)
aqueous humor
b)
vitreous humor
c)
air
d)
tears
108.
The layer of the eye that transports blood is 
a)
the fibrous tunic
b)
the sclera
c)
the choroid
d)
the retina
109.

The point of sharpest visual acuity is the 

a)

optic nerve

b)

retina

c)

fovea

d)

lens

110.

The boundary between the anterior and posterior chambers.

a)

iris

b)

sclera

c)

lens

d)

ciliary body

111.

What is the main function of the semicircular canals?

a)

speech recognition

b)

balance

c)

hearing

d)

word recognition

112.

Which part of the ear is visible?

a)

pinna

b)

malleus

c)

inner ear

d)

cochlea

113.
What is olfaction?
a)
Hear
b)
Taste
c)
Smell
d)
Touch
114.

Which type of receptor is responsible for gustation?

a)

Mechanoreceptor

b)

Chemoreceptor

c)

Photoreceptor

115.

Opens and closes to adjust the total amount of light entering the eye.

a)

Iris

b)

Sclera

c)

Cornea

d)

Lens

116.

Photoreceptors that detect gray tones in low light are called...

a)

Rods

b)

Cones

c)

Iris

d)

Choroid

117.

Transparent, jelly-like tissue that fills the eyeball behind the lens.

a)

Vitreous humor

b)

Plasma

c)

Aqueous humor

d)

Eyeball juice

118.

Which of the following is NOT a special sense?

a)

touch

b)

taste

c)

hearing

d)

equilibrium

119.

The dilation of the pupils is controlled by

a)

cardiac muscle.

b)

smooth muscle.

c)

skeletal muscle.

120.

Which humor helps prevent the eyeball from collapsing, provides nourishment to the avascular lens and cornea, and is continuously produced?

a)

aqueous humor

b)

vitreous humor

121.

Which structure performs the majority of light bending as light enters the eye?

a)

Retina

b)

Lens

c)

Cornea

d)

Iris

122.

Sensation of dizziness

a)

Emmetropia

b)

Vertigo

c)

Myopia

d)

Tinnitus

123.
constant ringing or buzzing in the ears
a)
vertigo
b)
tinnitus
c)
neuritis
d)
iritis
124.

involuntary oscillation of the eyes

a)

hyperopia

b)

myopia

c)

nystagmus

d)

emmetropia

125.

During short bursts of intense exercise, muscles use which of the following for fuel? 

a)

glucose

b)

fat

c)

creatine phosphate

d)

glycogen

126.
Anaerobic respiration
a)
causes fatigue
b)
produces lactic acid
c)
produces oxygen debt
d)
all of these
127.
Which of the following MUST be present for aerobic respiration? 
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
lactic acid 
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
128.
Acetylcholine
a)
is responsible for producing lactic acid
b)
causes an action potential to begin in muscle fibers
c)
gives us good muscle tone
d)
causes cramps and spasms
129.

Which chemicals must be present for muscles to contract?

a)

calcium

b)

ATP

c)

lactic acid

d)

ATP and Calcium

130.

The part of a skeletal muscle from Z-line to Z-line is called

a)

nucleus

b)

H-zone

c)

perimysium

d)

sarcomere

131.
Where do actin and myosin overlap? 
a)
A-band
b)
I-band
c)
Z-line
d)
sarcomere
132.
Which structure contains large amounts of calcium used for muscle? 
a)
sarcomere
b)
mitochondria
c)
sarcoplasmic reticulum
d)
myofibril
133.

A person who exhibits very large muscles has the condition of 

a)

atrophy

b)

hypertrophy

c)

muscular dystrophy

d)

muscle 

134.

Point of contact between two bones.

a)

arthrosis

b)

articulation

c)

joint

d)

all of these

135.

Fluid in the joint cavity

a)

mucus

b)

plasma

c)

serous

d)

synovial

136.

Example of a synarthrosis

a)

gomphosis

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

suture

d)

all of these

137.

Joints with a little motion (a little "give")

a)

amphiarthosis

b)

diarthrosis

c)

synarthrosis

d)

synchondrosis

138.

Extra fluid-filled sacs in more complex synovial joints

a)

bursa

b)

menisci

c)

ligaments

d)

serosa

139.

Extra discs of fibrocartilage are found in more complex synovial joints.

a)

bursa

b)

menisci

c)

tendon sheaths

d)

serosa

140.

Intercarpal joint

a)

hinge

b)

planar

c)

pivot

d)

saddle

141.

Tooth joint

a)

gomphosis

b)

synchondrosis

c)

symphysis

d)

suture

142.

Which joint is shown in the picture?

a)

hinge joint

b)

plane joint

c)

pivot joint

143.

Which joint is shown in the picture?

a)

Hinge Joint

b)

Saddle joint

c)

Ball and socket joint

144.

Joints are classified in how many ways?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

2

145.

Which is one of the functional ways a joint is classified?

a)

Fibrous—tend to be immovable

b)

Amphiarthroses—slightly movable joints

c)

Synovial—tend to be freely movable

146.

Which is one of the structural ways a joint is classified?

a)

Cartilaginous—both immovable and slightly movable

b)

Synarthroses—immovable joints

c)

Diarthroses—freely movable joints

147.

Where is the coronal suture?

a)

between the parietal and occipital bones

b)

between right and left parietal bones

c)

between the frontal and parietal bones

148.

Where is the pivot joint located?

a)

Neck

b)

Knee

c)

Thumb

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149 questions

Bio_EC

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade

Skeletal Muscle and The Nervous System Intro

145 questions

Skeletal Muscle and The Nervous System Intro

quiz

Worksheet

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University

Biology Final Study Guide

148 questions

Biology Final Study Guide

quiz

Worksheet

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KG - Professional Dev...

Ch. 14- Human Remains

146 questions

Ch. 14- Human Remains

quiz

Worksheet

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12th Grade

EOC Review

151 questions

EOC Review

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade