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Baseline NHA CCMA Test

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A medical assistant drops an instrument on the floor while setting up a sterile tray for a procedure. They pick up the instrument and place it back on the sterile field. A few days after the procedure, the patient calls the office concerned that the area surrounding the procedure site is infected. Which of the following torts has the assistant committed?

a)

Battery

b)

Assault

c)

Negligence

d)

Defamation

2.

Which of the following dictates the operations of physician office clinical laboratories?

a)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

b)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

d)

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)

3.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient for a flexible sigmoidoscopy examination. In which of the following positions should the assistant place the patient?

a)

Supine position

b)

Left lateral position

c)

Prone position

d)

Fowler’s position

4.

Which of the following supplies are required for proper handwashing technique?

a)

Hand sanitizer

b)

Paper towels

c)

Sterile gloves

d)

Alcohol wipes

5.

Prior to running an EKG tracing, which of the following is the final step a medical assistant should take to ensure the tracing will be clear with a horizontal baseline?

a)

Confirm the patient’s fasting status

b)

Ask the patient to remove jewelry

c)

Double-check the electrodes’ attachment

d)

Increase the paper speed

6.

Which of the following letter formats uses indented paragraphs?

a)

Full block letter

b)

Modified block letter

c)

Semi block letter

d)

Simplified letter

7.

A medical assistant calls a patient from the waiting area to obtain a specimen. Which of the following actions should the assistant do first?

a)

Explain the collection procedure

b)

Identify the patient

c)

Verify the provider’s order

d)

Offer privacy

8.

Which of the following elements is a component of the standard precautions use of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a)

Gowns

b)

Masks

c)

Face shields

d)

Shoe covers

9.

Which of the following fasting blood sugar laboratory results should the medical assistant recognize as abnormal for a nondiabetic patient?

a)

7575 mg/dL

b)

9090 mg/dL

c)

101101 mg/dL

d)

9595 mg/dL

10.

According to the Controlled Substances Act, which of the following is true regarding the storage of controlled substances in the office?

a)

Controlled medications may be kept in exam rooms

b)

Controlled medications should be stored in a locked cabinet

c)

Controlled medications must be refrigerated

d)

Controlled medications can be stored with over‑the‑counter drugs

11.

A medical assistant is performing a scratch allergy test on a patient’s back. Which of the following distances describes the correct spacing for the small amounts of allergen scratched into the skin?

a)

1/4 to 1/2 inch

b)

3 to 4 inches

c)

1 1/2 to 2 inches

d)

1 to 1 1/4 inches

12.

Which of the following cardiac procedures is within a medical assistant’s scope of practice and does not require a license technician or provider to assist with or perform the procedure?

a)

Stress test interpretation

b)

A Holter monitor application

c)

Cardiac catheterization prep

d)

Echocardiogram performance

13.

A medical assistant in an outpatient facility is preparing a patient for venipuncture. Which of the following actions should the assistant take to confirm the patient’s identity?

a)

Check the patient’s room number

b)

Ask the patient to state and spell their full name and provide date of birth

c)

Compare the patient’s face to the photo ID without asking questions

d)

Verify only the appointment time

14.

A medical assistant is weighing a patient that is 7272 kg. Which of the following values is the patient’s weight converted to pounds?

a)

144.0144.0

b)

158.4158.4

c)

165.0165.0

d)

132.5132.5

15.

Which of the following types of artifacts does the EKG tracing contain?

a)

Somatic tremor

b)

Wandering baseline

c)

60‑cycle interference

d)

Interrupted baseline

16.

Which of the following methods aids in gathering additional details from the patient regarding their chief complaint?

a)

Using leading questions

b)

Asking open‑ended questions

c)

Speaking only in medical terminology

d)

Avoiding follow‑up questions

17.

A medical assistant is talking with a patient who is experiencing home displacement following a hurricane. To which of the following resources should the assistant refer the patient for information, support, and links to community services?

a)

Federal Emergency Management Agency

b)

Local hospital billing office

c)

American Red Cross

d)

Private insurance broker

18.

Overwhelming experiences often cause which of the following conditions?

a)

Generalized anxiety disorder

b)

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

c)

Major depressive disorder

d)

Somatic symptom disorder

19.

Which of the following actions is within the scope of practice for a medical assistant?

a)

Initiating IV therapy

b)

Interpreting lab results

c)

Providing first aid procedures

d)

Prescribing non‑controlled medications

20.

A medical assistant administers an injection and the patient faints. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

Place the patient in a supine position

b)

Give the patient water

c)

Apply a warm compress

d)

Continue with the next injection

21.

A medical assistant is preparing the exam room for a patient’s general physical examination. Which of the following should be available to the provider for the examination?

a)

Otoscope

b)

Laryngoscope

c)

Colposcope

d)

Ophthalmic tonometer

22.

Which of the following is defined by 99 calories per gram?

a)

Carbohydrate energy content

b)

Protein energy content

c)

The number of calories from fat

d)

Alcohol energy content

23.

Which of the following should the medical assistant verify with the patient prior to the patient receiving a prescription for their acute ear infection?

a)

Preferred pharmacy hours

b)

Medication allergies

c)

Recent travel history

d)

Family medical history

24.

According to OSHA guidelines for proper waste disposal, which of the following should the medical assistant dispose of in a regular waste container?

a)

Used sharps container

b)

Blood‑soaked gauze

c)

An empty urine container

d)

Used test strips with blood

25.

Which of the following is the recommended age for children to receive their first human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine?

a)

99 to 1010 years of age

b)

1111 to 1212 years of age

c)

1313 to 1414 years of age

d)

1515 to 1616 years of age

26.

Which of the following stages described by the Kübler‑Ross grieving process indicates that a patient may attempt to give something up to gain more time?

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Depression

d)

The bargaining stage

27.

Which of the following is a medical assistant required to document in the electronic health record (EHR) when administering immunizations to a patient?

a)

Patient’s insurance group number

b)

Lot number

c)

Room number

d)

Pharmacy preference

28.

Which of the following is the correct placement for lead V4?

a)

Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border

b)

Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

c)

Right midclavicular line at the fifth rib

d)

Anterior axillary line at the fifth intercostal space

29.

When a medical assistant is performing a patient interview, it is important they understand the patient’s message so that they can relay it accurately to the provider. Which of the following techniques is the assistant using when they state, "I hear what you are saying…"?

a)

Reflecting

b)

Clarifying

c)

Paraphrasing

d)

Summarizing

30.

A medical assistant is examining a patient who has a third‑degree burn on their hands. Which of the following is a first aid procedure the medical assistant can perform?

a)

Apply ice directly to the burn

b)

Separate the patient’s burned fingers

c)

Remove any stuck clothing

d)

Break blisters to relieve pressure

31.

An angry patient confronts a medical assistant in the reception area. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

a)

Raise their voice to assert authority

b)

Ask security to restrain the patient immediately

c)

Escort the patient to a more private area

d)

Ignore the patient until they calm down

32.

Which of the following cell structures provides energy for cells?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosomes

33.

A patient reports severe headaches and chronic tingling in their arms and legs. To which of the following specialties should the provider refer the patient for a consultation?

a)

Cardiology

b)

Neurology

c)

Orthopedics

d)

Dermatology

34.

Which of the following is the appropriate instrument for removing stitches?

a)

Hemostat

b)

Suture scissors

c)

Bandage scissors

d)

Iris scissors

35.

A medical assistant has orders to collect blood cultures, a CBC, a prothrombin time (PT) and an iron panel. They forget to draw the PT. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

Discard all specimens and recollect

b)

Keep the specimens previously collected and draw the PT

c)

Add the PT to the CBC tube

d)

Send what has been collected and cancel the PT

36.

Which of the following types of advance directives provide information about the person that a patient delegated to make care decisions on their behalf if they are unable to do so?

a)

Do‑not‑resuscitate order

b)

Living will

c)

Health care proxy

d)

Physician orders for life‑sustaining treatment

37.

Which of the following classes of fire extinguisher should be used on flammable liquids?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

38.

Which of the following processes provides the ability to send prescriptions electronically?

a)

Computerized physician order entry (CPOE)

b)

E‑prescribing

c)

Telemedicine visit

d)

Digital faxing

39.

Which of the following information should a medical assistant verify at every office visit?

a)

Employment status

b)

Allergies

c)

Marital status

d)

Home square footage

40.

Which of the following eating disorders is demonstrated by purging, use of laxatives, and mood swings?

a)

Anorexia nervosa

b)

Binge‑eating disorder

c)

Bulimia nervosa

d)

Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder

41.

A medical assistant is preparing a patient to have a mole excised. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

Shave the area with a razor only

b)

Cleanse the site with surgical soap and an antiseptic

c)

Apply a topical anesthetic without an order

d)

Bandage the area prior to the provider’s arrival

42.

A medical assistant is speaking with a patient about their social history and the assistant notices the patient is fidgeting and appears anxious. Which of the following nonverbal communication styles is the patient exhibiting?

a)

Aggressive communication

b)

Passive communication

c)

Assertive communication

d)

Reflective communication

43.

A patient’s insurance company calls the office to obtain additional information regarding a recently submitted claim. Which of the following regulations allows the office to release this information to an insurance company without a written authorization?

a)

Fair Credit Reporting Act

b)

The HIPAA Privacy Rule

c)

False Claims Act

d)

Health Care Quality Improvement Act

44.

A medical assistant is performing an EKG on a patient. Which of the following describes the appropriate placement of the electrodes on the arm?

a)

Tabs upward on the arm

b)

Tabs downward on the arm

c)

Tabs facing the chest

d)

Tabs toward the hand

45.

A medical assistant needs to draw a blood glucose level on a patient. Which of the following tubes should they use?

a)

Red top tube

b)

Blue top tube

c)

Gray top tube

d)

Green top tube

46.

Which statement describes the doctrine of professional discretion?

a)

Providers must always release full medical records upon request.

b)

When a patient requests a copy of their medical records, the provider may choose not to disclose all of the patient information.

c)

Only office managers can authorize record releases.

d)

Medical assistants determine which records are disclosed.

47.

On an 837P/CMS-1500 claim form, which component identifies the practitioner who provided the submitted services?

a)

Tax identification number (TIN)

b)

National provider identifier (NPI)

c)

Practice address

d)

Patient account number

48.

When applying a transdermal patch for a patient, which method is correct?

a)

Apply the patch directly to the skin to maintain effectiveness.

b)

Place the patch on top of clothing to avoid irritation.

c)

Apply the patch over lotion for better adhesion.

d)

Secure the patch with tight elastic bandaging.

49.

A medical assistant is labeling a blood sample for anemia. Which test should be labeled on the requisition form?

a)

STAT-CRIT hematocrit

b)

Prothrombin time (PT)

c)

Comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP)

d)

Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C)

50.

After obtaining preauthorization for a patient’s referral to a specialist, which situation can cause the insurer to deny the specialist’s claim?

a)

The patient canceled a follow-up appointment.

b)

The specialist provided the service after the expiration date of the preauthorization.

c)

The referral was to an in-network provider.

d)

The patient paid a copay at the visit.

51.

While sorting mail, the assistant is unsure where a particular item should go. What step should be taken?

a)

Discard the item.

b)

File it alphabetically under the practice name.

c)

Ask the office manager or provider how to distribute the item.

d)

Return all uncertain items to the sender.

52.

Replacing a sharps container, the assistant receives a small laceration from the plastic lid. Which documentation should be completed?

a)

OSHA log summary only

b)

Incident report

c)

Progress note in the patient’s chart

d)

Vaccination record

53.

When measuring oxygen saturation with a pulse oximeter, which action should the assistant take?

a)

Check capillary refill in the patient's finger.

b)

Place the probe over dark nail polish.

c)

Apply the sensor loosely to improve comfort.

d)

Ignore motion artifacts during reading.

54.

An EKG tracing shows upward and downward movement of the waveform unrelated to cardiac activity. Which artifact is indicated?

a)

Somatic tremor

b)

Wandering baseline

c)

Interrupted baseline

d)

AC interference

55.

Within the health information exchange (HIE), what does the Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology (ONC) promote to allow patients control over the use of their health information?

a)

Provider-to-provider exchange

b)

Consumer-mediated exchange

c)

Regional data repository

d)

Automatic full data sharing

56.

Collecting data from a patient experiencing heatstroke, which manifestation should be expected?

a)

Cool, clammy skin

b)

Hot skin

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypothermia

57.

Preparing hemostats for sterilization after an invasive procedure, which technique should be used?

a)

Cold sterilization in alcohol

b)

Autoclave

c)

Handwashing and air-drying

d)

UV light exposure

58.

While taking blood pressure, the cuff is inflated and the valve opened to deflate as sounds are heard with a stethoscope. When should the diastolic pressure be read?

a)

At the first sound heard

b)

When the sound disappears

c)

At the point of maximum intensity of sound

d)

When the cuff is fully deflated

59.

Reviewing a patient’s current medications, which medication is available in sublingual form?

a)

Metformin

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Omeprazole

60.

When obtaining a rectal temperature from an infant, how far should the probe be inserted?

a)

1 inch into the rectum

b)

The thermometer should be inserted 1/2 inch into the rectum.

c)

Just past the anal sphincter (about 2 inches)

d)

Until resistance is felt

61.

Composing business correspondence using the simplified letter style, which feature should be used?

a)

Indented paragraphs with left-aligned dateline

b)

Center aligned dateline and salutation

c)

Right-aligned body text

d)

Mixed punctuation with justified margins

62.

After a successful blood draw, what information should be recorded on venipuncture tube labels prior to transport?

a)

Patient’s diagnosis

b)

Initials of collector and the time collected

c)

Name of ordering provider only

d)

Future appointment date

63.

Which allergy testing type applies an allergen to the skin to detect delayed allergic reactions?

a)

Skin prick testing

b)

Patch testing

c)

Intradermal testing

d)

Serum IgE testing

64.

Assisting with a colposcopy procedure, in which position should the patient be placed?

a)

Supine

b)

Lithotomy position

c)

Prone

d)

Fowler’s

65.

How should an 18‑month‑old patient be positioned when administering ear drops to the right ear?

a)

Left ear facing up with the earlobe pulled up and back

b)

Right ear facing up with the earlobe pulled down and back

c)

Right ear facing down while sitting upright

d)

Prone with the head turned left

66.

What can prevent a patient from comprehending an informed consent?

a)

Language barrier

b)

Having eaten before the procedure

c)

Being accompanied by a caregiver

d)

Receiving written instructions

67.

Which term means the absence of infection or infectious material?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Medical asepsis

c)

Nosocomial

d)

Colonization

68.

After completing venipuncture, how should a medical assistant assist with hemostasis?

a)

Apply heat to the site.

b)

The assistant should tell the patient to hold pressure on the site and elevate their arm.

c)

Immediately remove the bandage.

d)

Ask the patient to flex the arm repeatedly.

69.

Scheduling a procedure at a local facility with a patient, which step should be taken first?

a)

Confirm transportation arrangements.

b)

Verify insurance will cover the procedure.

c)

Schedule the earliest available time slot.

d)

Provide preoperative instructions.

70.

Preparing to draw venous blood samples, which OSHA-required personal protective equipment must be worn?

a)

Face shield

b)

Gloves

c)

Hair cover

d)

Lead apron

71.

Performing intake for a 6‑month‑old patient, which measurement is required to complete the pediatric growth chart?

a)

Body mass index

b)

Head circumference

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Sitting height

72.

Communicating with an upset patient, which mechanism indicates the assistant is receptive and listening?

a)

Taking phone calls during the conversation

b)

Maintaining an open posture toward the patient

c)

Avoiding eye contact to reduce tension

d)

Standing behind the patient

73.

A homebound patient with a foot fracture reports difficulty navigating with crutches while managing most tasks at home. To which resource should the patient be referred?

a)

Physical therapy clinic

b)

Meals on wheels

c)

Skilled nursing facility

d)

Urgent care

74.

Working with a patient who has cognitive impairment causing short‑term memory loss, how should the assistant adapt to this barrier?

a)

Provide easy‑to‑read handouts.

b)

Speak more rapidly.

c)

Use only medical terminology.

d)

Limit written materials.

75.

Preparing a patient for a urine creatine test, over what period should the patient collect the specimen?

a)

8 hr

b)

12 hr

c)

24 hr

d)

48 hr

76.

In which abdominal quadrant is the gallbladder located?

a)

Left upper quadrant

b)

Left lower quadrant

c)

Right upper quadrant

d)

Right lower quadrant

77.

Preparing the autoclave for sterilization, which temperature range is recommended for effective sterilization?

a)

100° to 110° C (212° to 230° F)

b)

121° to 123° C (250° to 255° F)

c)

135° to 140° C (275° to 284° F)

d)

160° to 170° C (320° to 338° F)

78.

Failing to document a patient’s preference to avoid blood products during a procedure falls under which legal principle?

a)

Contract law

b)

Administrative law

c)

Negligent torts

d)

Civil rights law

79.

Which method is best to measure the amount of body fat on a patient?

a)

Skinfold calipers only

b)

Hydrostatic weighing

c)

Body mass index (BMI)

d)

Bioelectrical impedance

80.

Processing blood samples for DNA analysis and paternity testing, which information must be included to maintain chain of custody?

a)

Patient’s insurance number

b)

Initials of the person transporting the specimen

c)

Ordering provider’s DEA number

d)

Date of birth of the collector

81.

During patient check‑in, which spatial consideration should be taken?

a)

0 to 18 inches

b)

18 inches to 4 feet

c)

4 to 12 feet

d)

12 to 25 feet

82.

A practice is part of an Accountable Care Organization (ACO). This designation indicates the care team focuses on improving care for patients with which medical coverage?

a)

Private PPO plans

b)

Medicaid

c)

Medicare

d)

Workers’ compensation

83.

According to stages of hypertension, which blood pressure reading is in the elevated stage?

a)

118/76 mm Hg

b)

128/78 mm Hg

c)

138/88 mm Hg

d)

146/92 mm Hg

84.

Which term refers to ensuring the balance of a financial account matches the balance on a bank statement?

a)

Amortization

b)

Reconciliation

c)

Accrual

d)

Provisioning

85.

Preparing to perform venipuncture, according to order of draw, which tube is drawn after obtaining blood cultures?

a)

Green

b)

Lavender

c)

Light blue

d)

Gray

86.

Which of the following is a CLIA‑waived laboratory test?

a)

Complete blood count (CBC)

b)

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test

c)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

d)

Blood culture

87.

In which position should a medical assistant place a patient when preparing to perform a 12‑lead EKG in the office?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Fowler’s

d)

Lateral recumbent

88.

A medical assistant is reviewing the medical history of a patient who regularly comes into contact with coal and wood dust. The assistant should recognize that this patient is at an increased risk for developing which disorder?

a)

Emphysema

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Myocarditis

d)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

89.

Which term should a medical assistant use to tell a provider that a patient is having discomfort and difficulty with breathing?

a)

Apnea

b)

Orthopnea

c)

Dyspnea

d)

Hyperpnea

90.

A medical assistant is preparing an 837P/CMS‑1500 claim form for a patient treated for a burn injury. Which of the following information is required?

a)

International Classification of Diseases (ICD) chapter title

b)

National Provider Identifier (NPI) of the patient

c)

Current procedural terminology (CPT) code

d)

Advance beneficiary notice (ABN) number

91.

Which aseptic technique can be achieved using dry heat, moist heat, ultraviolet light, gas, chemicals, or ionizing radiation?

a)

Sanitization

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sterilization

d)

Asepsis

92.

Which statement best describes the purpose of the right route as part of the rights of medication administration?

a)

Verifying the patient’s identity before administering medication

b)

Administering medication using the physical technique identified by the provider’s written order

c)

Confirming the expiration date of the medication

d)

Documenting the time the medication was administered

93.

A patient arrives at the provider’s office with a laceration on their right forearm, and the provider determines the patient will need sutures. Which of the following supplies should the medical assistant hand to the provider?

a)

Disposable skin stapler

b)

Iris scissors

c)

The needle holder with the suture attached

d)

Thumb forceps only

94.

A medical assistant is collecting a health history from a patient who exhibits moderate hearing loss. Which action should the assistant take?

a)

Speak while turning away to avoid shouting

b)

Face the patient and speak clearly

c)

Increase room noise to test comprehension

d)

Communicate only through written notes

95.

A patient comes to the clinic with dysuria, discharge from the penis, and pain in the lower abdomen. A medical assistant should recognize these as manifestations of which disorder?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Syphilis

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection

96.

A medical assistant must provide community resources to a patient whose partner bent their arm backwards until it broke. Which resource should be provided?

a)

Homeless shelter

b)

Domestic violence shelter

c)

Addiction recovery center

d)

Long‑term care facility

97.

A medical assistant is billing a patient’s third‑party payer for today’s office visit. Which document does this require?

a)

An 837P/CMS‑1500 claim form

b)

Hospital discharge summary

c)

Employee incident report

d)

Explanation of benefits (EOB) from a previous claim

98.

A medical assistant receives a denial of payment for a patient’s cholecystectomy. The reason stated is “preauthorization required.” If the provider deems this procedure emergent, which action should the assistant take?

a)

Resubmit with a different diagnosis code

b)

Submit an appeal for the denied claim

c)

Close the claim and bill the patient

d)

Request a new referral from the primary care provider

99.

Which preventative screening is matched correctly with the age at which it should be initially completed?

a)

Bone density scan, 25 years old

b)

Colonoscopy, 45 years old

c)

Prostate‑specific antigen test, 25 years old

d)

Mammogram, 25 years old

100.

Which measurement would a medical assistant take during a routine well‑child exam when determining if a child has microcephaly?

a)

Body mass index

b)

Head circumference

c)

Chest expansion

d)

Visual acuity

101.

Which technique should a medical assistant use when bandaging a wound with a roller bandage?

a)

Wrap proximal to distal

b)

Wrap the wound from distal to proximal

c)

Use circular turns only

d)

Apply the bandage loosely and avoid overlapping

102.

A medical assistant is performing a drug test on a patient. The temperature of the urine sample should be within which range for the sample to be usable?

a)

20° to 24° C (68° to 75° F)

b)

24° to 28° C (75° to 82° F)

c)

32° to 38° C (90° to 100° F)

d)

40° to 45° C (104° to 113° F)

103.

A patient reports feeling depressed due to the recent loss of a partner. In which of the five stages of grief does depression present itself?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

104.

When assisting a patient from a different culture, which action should a medical assistant take to help the patient feel more comfortable in the medical office setting?

a)

Avoid discussing beliefs

b)

Try to understand their beliefs about disease

c)

Use only medical jargon

d)

Skip patient education

105.

Which example of patient coaching addresses disease prevention?

a)

Explaining the cost of imaging studies

b)

Providing information on the importance of recommended vaccines

c)

Scheduling follow‑up visits for established disease

d)

Demonstrating wound irrigation technique

106.

Which venipuncture site is appropriate when hand access is needed?

a)

Antecubital median cubital vein

b)

Superficial dorsal hand veins

c)

Femoral vein

d)

External jugular vein

107.

A medical assistant has a provider order to draw blood for a lead level on an 18‑month‑old toddler. Which site should the assistant choose for the venipuncture?

a)

Heel stick

b)

External jugular vein

c)

Antecubital vein

d)

Femoral vein

108.

A medical assistant is removing sutures from a patient who has a laceration on their left lower leg. After setting up the sterile field, which action should the assistant take?

a)

Cut the knot flush with the skin

b)

Grasp and lift the knot away from the skin

c)

Pull the suture straight up without cutting

d)

Apply antibiotic ointment before removal

109.

Which of the following is an advantage of using an electronic practice management software for scheduling appointments?

a)

Eliminates patient reminders

b)

Ability to generate reports

c)

Requires no data backup

d)

Prevents double‑booking automatically in all systems

110.

A medical assistant is using an alcohol‑based hand sanitizer after patient contact. The hand sanitizer should contain at least what percentage of alcohol?

a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

70%

111.

Which condition involves an overload of iron in the body?

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Hemochromatosis

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Beriberi

112.

A medical assistant is cleaning countertops and other surfaces after a surgical procedure. Which disinfectant should the assistant use for this purpose?

a)

Pure hydrogen peroxide

b)

A 1:10 bleach and water solution

c)

Isopropyl alcohol only

d)

Sterile saline

113.

Which vaccination should patients receive at 7 years of age or older?

a)

Rotavirus

b)

Varicella

c)

Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap)

d)

Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)

114.

Which assessment of a patient’s pulse is demonstrated by an extremely strong and full feeling?

a)

Thready pulse

b)

Regular pulse

c)

Bounding pulse

d)

Irregularly irregular pulse

115.

A pulse oximeter can register an artificially low oxygen saturation measurement for a patient with which condition?

a)

Fever

b)

Cold fingers

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Warm extremities

116.

A medical assistant is cleaning an examination room after assisting the provider with a biopsy. Which action should the assistant take?

a)

Dispose of a scalpel in a properly labeled, puncture‑proof container

b)

Place all sharps in a standard trash bin

c)

Store used biopsy needles for reuse

d)

Wipe counters with sterile saline only

117.

If a provider writes a prescription for a medication BID, how many times a day should the patient take the medication?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

d)

Four times

118.

When assisting a provider with a punch biopsy of a mole, which task should a medical assistant anticipate?

a)

Suture removal

b)

Receive and prepare tissue specimens for processing

c)

Administer local anesthesia

d)

Perform the excision

119.

Which task should a medical assistant have a patient complete prior to gowning for a physical examination to ensure the patient is more comfortable and to make the examination easier for the provider?

a)

Remove all jewelry

b)

Have the patient empty their bladder

c)

Fast for 8 hours

d)

Wash hands

120.

Which instruction should a medical assistant give a patient when administering an enteric‑coated tablet?

a)

“Chew the tablet thoroughly.”

b)

“Crush the tablet and mix with food.”

c)

“Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.”

d)

“Dissolve the tablet under the tongue.”

121.

Which condition requires a patient to avoid gluten?

a)

Lactose intolerance

b)

Celiac disease

c)

Irritable bowel syndrome

d)

Peptic ulcer disease

122.

A medical assistant is helping a provider who is caring for a patient with a laceration. Which step should the assistant recognize as the first step of first aid administration in this situation?

a)

Apply an antibiotic ointment to the wound

b)

Ensure bleeding of the laceration is under control

c)

Cover the wound with a sterile dressing immediately

d)

Cleanse the wound with soap and water

123.

A medical assistant is creating templates for a provider to send electronic prescriptions. Which item is most commonly included in electronic prescription templates?

a)

The patient’s laboratory values

b)

The medication type

c)

Insurance plan exclusions

d)

Radiology order codes

124.

A medical assistant is administering an intradermal injection for allergy testing. Which action should the assistant take?

a)

Insert the needle at a 90‑degree angle into the deltoid muscle

b)

Locate the middle portion of the anterior forearm

c)

Massage the site after injection

d)

Aspire to check for blood before injecting

125.

A medical assistant is collecting a forensic specimen at the request of an employer. Which person should sign the documentation for the specimen, according to the chain of custody protocol?

a)

Only the medical assistant

b)

Only the ordering provider

c)

All personnel that come in contact with the specimen

d)

Only the laboratory technician

126.

A medical assistant is preparing to perform a capillary puncture on an adult. Which finger should the assistant choose?

a)

Thumb

b)

Index

c)

Middle

d)

Little

127.

Which section of the clinical medical records includes a collection of the patient’s subjective data obtained by a medical assistant during the clinical intake process?

a)

Plan of care

b)

Laboratory results

c)

Health history

d)

Discharge instructions

128.

When a procedure requires informed consent, which of the following steps should occur prior to the patient signing the form?

a)

Provide information about alternative procedures

b)

Discuss only the risks after the form is signed

c)

Skip discussing benefits until after consent

d)

Ask the patient to sign before any discussion

129.

According to the CDC, a medical assistant should wash their hands for 1 full minute at which of the following time frames?

a)

When handling specimens

b)

Before putting on gloves for any task

c)

After removing a face mask

d)

Only at the beginning of the workday

130.

Which of the following formulas is used to convert a patient's weight from kilograms to pounds?

a)

Multiply kilograms by 2.2

b)

Divide kilograms by 2.2

c)

Multiply kilograms by 1.1

d)

Subtract 2.2 from kilograms

131.

The abbreviation PRN stands for which of the following?

a)

As needed

b)

By mouth

c)

Immediately

d)

Every day

132.

Which of the following defines the process of sterilization?

a)

Killing all pathogenic organisms and spores

b)

Reducing microbial load on surfaces

c)

Using antiseptics on skin

d)

Cleaning visible debris from instruments

133.

Which of the following is the purpose of utilizing a clinical centrifuge?

a)

To separate a specimen into different components

b)

To freeze a specimen for storage

c)

To warm a specimen before testing

d)

To mix reagents with a specimen

134.

Which of the following diseases should a medical assistant recognize as mandatorily reportable to the state?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Migraine

c)

Eczema

d)

Seasonal allergies

135.

A provider wants to ensure that late patients do not impact the appointment schedule in a negative way so they request that three patients be scheduled at the top of each hour to be seen in the order in which they arrive. Which of the following types of scheduling does this describe?

a)

Wave

b)

Open hours

c)

Double-booking

d)

Cluster scheduling

136.

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when dealing with an angry patient?

a)

Allow the patient to talk through their anger

b)

Ask the patient to leave immediately

c)

Speak loudly over the patient

d)

Ignore the patient's concerns

137.

A patient informs a medical assistant that they get headaches when they read from a computer monitor. The assistant should enter this information into which of the following locations when using the SOAP approach to organizing medical records?

a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

138.

Which of the following is considered an adverse reaction?

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Localized itching at site

c)

Mild nausea

d)

Drowsiness

139.

When a medical assistant is performing a venipuncture procedure, which of the following is a preanalytical error that can affect the test results?

a)

Adjusting the order of draw

b)

Labeling tubes at the bedside

c)

Using PPE

d)

Documenting the specimen collection time

140.

Which of the following can result from the use of outdated or incorrect codes on a billing claim?

a)

Reduction of payer reimbursement

b)

Improved turnaround time

c)

Automatic claim approval

d)

Higher level of service billed

141.

A patient's ability to walk, groom themselves, bathe, and eat is evaluated by which of the following screenings?

a)

Functional status screening

b)

Vision screening

c)

Depression screening

d)

Hearing screening

142.

A medical assistant is using a butterfly needle set to obtain a blood sample from a vein in a patient's hand. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

Hold the needle by its wings

b)

Anchor the hub and bend the wings flat

c)

Grip the tubing close to the skin

d)

Place the wings under the tourniquet

143.

When obtaining a blood pressure reading, which of the following describes how high a medical assistant should inflate the cuff?

a)

To approximately 30 mm Hg above the previously measured brachial pulse reading

b)

Until the patient reports discomfort then deflate

c)

To a fixed 200 mm Hg for all adults

d)

To the previous diastolic reading plus 10 mm Hg

144.

A medical assistant is processing a referral to transition the care of a patient who has less than 6 months to live. To which of the following care facilities will the medical assistant refer the patient?

a)

Hospice care facility

b)

Skilled nursing facility

c)

Urgent care center

d)

Rehabilitation gym

145.

Which of the following pulmonary function tests involves measuring the oxygen saturation of a patient's blood by placing a probe on their finger?

a)

Pulse oximetry

b)

Spirometry

c)

Peak flow

d)

Arterial blood gas

146.

As the body processes medications, which of the following terms best represents absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?

a)

Pharmacokinetics

b)

Pharmacodynamics

c)

Polypharmacy

d)

Bioequivalence

147.

A patient who has an acute illness calls to schedule an appointment. According to best practices, which of the following time frames should the patient's appointment be scheduled for?

a)

The same day

b)

Within two weeks

c)

Next available routine visit

d)

Next month

148.

Which of the following does a Snellen chart measure?

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Peripheral vision

c)

Depth perception

d)

Color vision

149.

A medical assistant is preparing to print an after-visit summary for a patient. Which of the following direct identifiers should the assistant verify to protect the patient's protected health information (PHI)?

a)

Mailing address

b)

Insurance formulary

c)

Preferred pharmacy hours

d)

Primary care office location

150.

Which of the following is the normal setting for the standardization mark on an EKG?

a)

10 mm/mV

b)

5 mm/mV

c)

20 mm/mV

d)

1 mm/mV