Free Printable Principles of Flight Final Review

1.

Which events occur during a four-stroke reciprocating engine cycle? Select all that apply.

a)

A) A fuel and air mixture is sucked into the cylinder through the intake valve.

b)

B) A fuel and air mixture is converted into oxygen.

c)

C) A fuel and air mixture is ignited.

d)

D) A fuel and air mixture is compressed.

e)

E) A fuel and air mixture is ejected through the exhaust valve.

2.

What first step should be taken during an electrical fire during flight?

a)

A) Turn off the master switches.

b)

B) Turn off all interior lights.

c)

C) Extinguish the fire, if possible.

d)

D) Land immediately.

3.

Which of the following is NOT true of a cruise propeller?

a)

They produce lower RPM.

b)

They are more effective at higher power.

c)

They have a higher pitch.

d)

They are more efficient for long-range cruising.

4.

Which of the following are sources of information for the pilot about weather conditions?

a)

Flight Service (1-800-WX-BRIEF)

b)

Aviationweather.gov

c)

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)

d)

All of the above

5.

A carburetor mixes fuel and air before sending it to the intake manifold while a fuel injection system delivers fuel and air ________.

a)

directly to the cylinder

b)

directly to the fuel pump

c)

directly to the intake valve

d)

directly to the carburetor

6.

For UAS, fuel may take the form of ________. Select all that apply.

a)

fuel cells

b)

liquid fuel

c)

hot air

d)

batteries

e)

compressed air

7.

________ occurs when the correct fuel is used for the engine type and when the spark plugs are precisely timed.

a)

Detonation

b)

Pre-ignition

c)

All of the above

d)

Normal combustion

8.

Where can the aircraft serial number be found?

a)

Under the pilot's seat

b)

In the repair manual

c)

On the right landing gear

d)

The title page of the POH/AFM

9.

In which in-flight emergency would a pilot immediately need to reduce the airplane's altitude?

a)

Uneven fuel tank balance

b)

Electrical fire

c)

Explosive decompression

d)

Hazardous storm conditions

10.

Which of the following lists the 5 stages of a jet engine in the correct order?

a)

intake, compressor, combustor, turbine, exhaust

b)

intake, turbine, combustor, exhaust, compressor

c)

turbine, intake, combustor, compressor, exhaust

d)

intake, turbine, combustor, compressor, exhaust

11.

_____ is a formal, paid work-based learning experience that may last up to two years.

a)

Work-study

b)

An apprenticeship

c)

An internship

d)

Job shadowing

12.

If a pilot flies with the altimeter set at 28.50 when the correct setting would be 29.00, the pilot is flying _____ than intended.

a)

50 feet higher

b)

50 feet lower

c)

500 feet lower

d)

500 feet higher

13.

When the engine is running, the __________ of the electrical current the spark plugs need to ignite the fuel-air mixture.

a)

batteries provide all

b)

magnetos provide all

c)

ground power unit provides all

d)

magnetos provide

14.

UAS never use internal combustion engines.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

What is the difference between jet fuel and avgas?

a)

Jet fuel has a higher flashpoint than avgas.

b)

Jet fuel is kerosene-based and avgas is gasoline-based.

c)

Jet fuel is red-colored, while avgas is blue-colored.

d)

Avgas is colorless, while jet fuel isn’t.

16.

How can water enter the fuel supply? Select all that apply.

a)

Higher altitudes

b)

Low humidity

c)

Condensation in partially filled fuel tanks

d)

Faulty filler caps

e)

Overheating

17.

A turbocharger uses the engine’s ______ to drive a turbine that compresses incoming air.

a)

intercooler

b)

fuel-air mixture

c)

compressor

d)

exhaust gases

18.

Hydraulics is the use of fluids to _______.

a)

lubricate engine parts

b)

stabilize temperature

c)

transmit power

d)

all of the above

19.

The _______ is the source of ignition in most reciprocating engines.

a)

cylinder head

b)

intake port

c)

piston

d)

spark plug

20.

When hydraulic fluid pressure exceeds a set pressure, the _______ opens to reduce pressure and routes fluid back to the reservoir.

a)

fluid reservoir

b)

actuator

c)

relief valve

d)

selector valve

21.

If the alternator of an engine fails, the electrical system will drain the battery.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Replenishing hydraulic fluid, replacing position and landing lights, and installing or repairing new tires are examples of ________.

a)

A) an FAA inspection

b)

B) free maintenance provided under every warranty

c)

C) preventive maintenance

d)

D) all of the above

23.

________ is the pressure of the air against an aircraft caused by the movement of the aircraft.

a)

A) Total pressure

b)

B) Air pressure

c)

C) Static pressure

d)

D) Dynamic pressure

24.

Why is it recommended that pilots avoid using flaps, gears, and spoilers during icing conditions?

a)

Drag devices are likely to get stuck.

b)

More fuel is required using these devices during icing environments.

c)

They increase surface area and ice accumulation.

d)

Maneuvers would be minimized during icing environments.

25.

A pilot who performs preventive maintenance must make an entry in the aircraft logbooks.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

An airspeed indicator is a scale that shows the difference between _______ and total pressure.

a)

air pressure

b)

pressure altitude

c)

static pressure

d)

density pressure

27.

When the static port becomes blocked and the aircraft descends below the altitude where the static port became blocked, the airspeed indicator will indicate lower-than-actual airspeed.

a)

A) True

b)

B) False

28.

Which of the following does an Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) control? Select all that apply.

a)

Heading indicator

b)

Slip and skid indicator

c)

Attitude indicator

d)

Turn rate indicator

e)

Airspeed indicator

29.

When there is a suspected failure of the pitot-static systems due to icing, the pilot should ________.

a)

turn off the engine cooling system

b)

decrease airspeed

c)

turn on pitot heat

d)

all of the above

30.

Pilots use "ARROW" to remind them of ________.

a)

safety procedures in the event of an electrical fire

b)

the required documents that must be in an aircraft during flight

c)

the aircraft's registration date and requirements

d)

when to perform a preflight inspection

31.

When the static port becomes blocked, the altimeter will __________.

a)

show a higher-than-actual reading

b)

fluctuate between higher-than-actual and lower-than-actual readings

c)

begin decreasing down to its lowest possible reading

d)

freeze at the last pressure indication and will not change

32.

Airplane Flight Manuals must be approved by the FAA.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What could be the source of a low oil pressure gauge reading?

a)

Not enough oil in the sump

b)

Oil pump failure

c)

Leaking oil line

d)

All of the above

34.

The tail number of an aircraft is N580AT. Which part of this tail number shows that the aircraft is registered in the United States?

a)

AT

b)

N5

c)

A

d)

N

35.

Which of the following are UAS registration requirements? Select all that apply.

a)

Registration number must be visible on the outside of the aircraft.

b)

UAS that can hover must be registered.

c)

UAS weighing more than .55 pounds must be registered.

d)

UAS with at least two rotors must be registered.

e)

Registered operator must be at least 13 years old.

36.

A cabin pressure regulator prevents the ______ from exceeding its limitations.

a)

oxygen level

b)

differential pressure

c)

engine temperature

d)

cabin temperature

37.

Safety is the primary reason the FAA mandates regular aircraft inspections.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Which of the following is recommended when checking the airplane’s engine oil?

a)

Check around the engine, on the fuselage, and on the ground for signs of oil leaks.

b)

After checking, be sure the oil filler cap is secure.

c)

Use the dipstick accessed through the cowling to check the oil.

d)

All of the above.

39.

Which of the following is true about an EFD (Electronic Flight Display)? Select all that apply.

a)

It is also called a "glass cockpit."

b)

It improves situational awareness.

c)

It is only used in commercial airliners.

d)

It reduces pilot workload in comparison to analog gauges.

e)

EFD stands for “engine flight diagram.”

40.

A(n) ______ is issued by the FAA to address a safety problem related to an aircraft or its equipment.

a)

Airworthiness Certificate

b)

Temporary Airworthiness Certificate

c)

Airworthiness Directive

d)

Airworthiness Bulletin

41.

Aircraft icing in flight is most likely to occur when it is snowing.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

The FAA gives the ______ full authority in an emergency because of the ability to make immediate and careful decisions that result in the least amount of harm to everyone involved.

a)

National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)

b)

All of the above

c)

Control tower

d)

Pilot in Command (PIC)

43.

In which situation would a pilot set the fuel-air mixture to a "full rich" position?

a)

At low altitudes where the air density is low.

b)

At low altitudes where the air density is high.

c)

At high altitudes where the air density is high.

d)

At high altitudes where the air density is low.

44.

Many accidents that appear to have a single cause actually have numerous contributing factors which occur in a sequence called ________.

a)

an error chain

b)

an accident log

c)

a ripple effect

d)

an emergency list

45.

What first step should be taken during an electrical fire during flight?

a)

A) Turn off all interior lights.

b)

B) Land immediately.

c)

C) Turn off the master switches.

d)

D) Extinguish the fire, if possible.

46.

What action should a pilot take if the oil temperature gauge reads unusually high?

a)

Check for possible oil leaks

b)

Reduce engine power

c)

Increase airspeed

d)

All of the above

47.

Which component is responsible for regulating the flow of air into an aircraft's engine?

a)

Throttle valve

b)

Fuel injector

c)

Carburetor

d)

Exhaust manifold

48.

What is the primary function of wing flaps during landing?

a)

To increase descent rate without increasing speed

b)

To decrease lift and increase drag

c)

To increase both lift and speed

d)

To stabilize the aircraft laterally

49.

What is the primary function of the aircraft's rudder?

a)

To control the aircraft's pitch.

b)

To control the aircraft's yaw.

c)

To control the aircraft's roll.

d)

To increase the aircraft's speed.

50.

What does the term 'VFR' stand for in aviation?

a)

Variable Flight Regime

b)

Visual Flight Rules

c)

Verified Flight Readiness

d)

Vertical Flight Range

51.

Which instrument indicates the aircraft's altitude above sea level?

a)

Airspeed Indicator

b)

Altimeter

c)

Attitude Indicator

d)

Vertical Speed Indicator

52.

Where can the operating limitations for an aircraft be found?

a)

On the airworthiness certificate.

b)

In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

c)

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

53.

Which of the following are required to be carried in the aircraft during flight?

a)

Pilot's information manual (PIM).

b)

Pilot's operating handbook (POH).

c)

FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM).

54.

How long does the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

a)

As long as the aircraft has a current registration certificate.

b)

Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.

c)

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as trequried by the Federal Aviation Regulations.

55.

In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

a)

Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.

b)

Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.

c)

Operating limitations and registration certificate.

56.

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, you should refer to the

a)

airworthiness certificate.

b)

registration certificate.

c)

aircraft maintenance records.

57.

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

a)

1349.6 hours.

b)

1359.6 hours.

c)

1369.6 hours.

58.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

a)

A certificated aircraft mechanic.

b)

The pilot in command.

c)

The owner or operator.

59.

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

a)

pilot in command.

b)

owner or operator.

c)

mechanic who performs the work.

60.

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

a)

owner or operator.

b)

pilot in command.

c)

mechanic who performed the work.

61.

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

a)

Repair station.

b)

Certified mechanic.

c)

Owner or operator.

62.

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe fo flight?

a)

The owner or operator.

b)

The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.

c)

The pilot in command.

63.

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

a)

Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

b)

Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.

64.

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot before each flight?

a)

Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

b)

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

c)

Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

65.

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive?

a)

Aircraft maintenance records.

b)

Airworthiness certificate and pilot's operating handbook.

c)

Airworthiness and registration certificates.

66.

What should an owner or operator know about airworthiness directives (ADs)?

a)

They are for informational purposes only.

b)

They are mandatory.

c)

They are voluntary.

67.

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive (AD)?

a)

Yes, under VFR conditions only.

b)

Yes, ADs are only voluntary.

c)

Yes, if allowed by the AD.

68.

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

a)

Repair of landing gear brace struts.

b)

Replenishing hydraulic fluid.

c)

Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

69.

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

a)

A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.

b)

The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.

c)

The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

70.

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

a)

Student or Recreational pilot.

b)

Private or Commercial pilot.

c)

None of the above.

71.

Who is responsible for ensuring that airworthiness directives (ADs) are complied with?

a)

Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).

b)

Owner or operator.

c)

Repair station.

72.

Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

a)

the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate

b)

an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.

c)

an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.

73.

Excessively high engine temperatures will

a)

cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.

b)

cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

c)

not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

74.

Float-type carburetors operate based on

a)

automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.

b)

the difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

c)

increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.

75.

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

a)

decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.

b)

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

c)

increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

76.

During the runup at a high elevation airport, you notice a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

a)

Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

b)

Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.

c)

Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

77.

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

a)

Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.

b)

Temperature between 32°F and 50°F and low humidity.

c)

Temperature between 20°F and 70°F and high humidity.

78.

The risk of carburetor ice is

a)

high when the ambient temperature is between 20°F and 70°F and the relative humidity is high.

b)

nonexistent at 95°F even when there is visible moisture.

c)

high at 0ºF when the relative humidity is high.

79.

Applying carburetor heat will

a)

result in more air going through the carburetor.

b)

enrich the fuel/air mixture.

c)

not affect the fuel/air mixture.

80.

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

a)

A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.

b)

The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

c)

The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.

81.

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

a)

decrease engine performance.

b)

increase engine performance.

c)

have no effect on engine performance.

82.

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

a)

more susceptible to icing.

b)

equally susceptible to icing.

c)

less susceptible to icing.

83.

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

a)

the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.

b)

hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.

c)

the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

84.

Detonation may occur at high-power settings as

a)

the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

b)

an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.

c)

the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

85.

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

a)

combustion.

b)

preignition.

c)

detonation.

86.

What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

a)

The next higher octane aviation gas.

b)

The next lower octane aviation gas.

c)

Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

87.

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

a)

a properly functioning thermostat.

b)

air flowing over the exhaust manifold.

c)

the circulation of lubricating oil.

88.

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

a)

the oil level being too low.

b)

operating with a too high viscosity oil.

c)

operating with an excessively rich mixture.

89.

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

a)

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

b)

Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.

c)

Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

90.

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

a)

Enrichen the fuel mixture.

b)

Increase the RPM.

c)

Reduce the airspeed.

91.

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

a)

Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

b)

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

c)

Provides a smoother operation with stable

d)

RPM and eliminates vibrations.

92.

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

a)

avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.

b)

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

c)

always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

93.

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

a)

fuel strainer drain.

b)

lowest point in the fuel system.

c)

fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

94.

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

a)

VA.

b)

VLo.

c)

VNE.

95.

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

a)

V FE.

b)

VLOF.

c)

VFC.

96.

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

a)

VLE•

b)

VLO.

c)

VFE•

97.

Vso is defined as the

a)

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

b)

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.

c)

stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.

98.

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

a)

The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.

b)

The elevation of the departure area.

c)

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

99.

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to

a)

the current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

b)

the corrected density altitude of the departure airport.

c)

the corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

100.

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

a)

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

b)

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

c)

The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

101.

Which instrument becomes inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

a)

Altimeter.

b)

Vertical speed.

c)

Airspeed.

102.

Which instruments) become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

a)

Airspeed only.

b)

Altimeter only.

c)

Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

103.

(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates

a)

500 feet.

b)

1,500 feet.

c)

10,500 feet.

104.

(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 2 indicates

a)

1,500 feet.

b)

4,500 feet.

c)

14,500 feet.

105.

(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates

a)

9,500 feet.

b)

10,950 feet.

c)

15,940 feet.

106.

(Refer to Figure 3.) Which altimeters) indicate(s)

a)

more than 10,000 feet?

b)

1, 2, and 3.

c)

1 and 2 only.

d)

1 only.

107.

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

a)

calibrated altitude at field elevation.

b)

absolute altitude at field elevation.

c)

true altitude at field elevation.

108.

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

a)

Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

b)

Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.

c)

Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

109.

What is true altitude?

a)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

b)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

c)

The height above the standard datum plane.

110.

What is absolute altitude?

a)

The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

b)

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

c)

The height above the standard datum plane.

111.

What is density altitude?

a)

The height above the standard datum plane.

b)

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

c)

The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

112.

What is pressure altitude?

a)

The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.

b)

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.

c)

The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

113.

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

a)

If the altimeter has no mechanical error.

b)

When at sea level under standard conditions.

c)

When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

114.

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

a)

Altimeter.

b)

Vertical-speed indicator.

c)

Airspeed indicator.

115.

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

a)

decrease as the true airspeed decreases.

b)

decrease as the true airspeed increases.

c)

remain the same regardless of altitude.

116.

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

a)

Maneuvering speed.

b)

Turbulence or rough-air speed.

c)

Never-exceed speed.

117.

(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

a)

55 to 100 knots.

b)

55 to 208 knots.

c)

55 to 165 knots.

118.

(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?

a)

0 to 55 knots.

b)

100 to 165 knots.

c)

165 to 208 knots.

119.

(Refer to Figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is

a)

100 knots.

b)

165 knots.

c)

208 knots.

120.

(Refer to Figure 4.) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?

a)

Upper limit of the green arc.

b)

Upper limit of the white arc.

c)

The red radial line.

121.

(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

a)

Upper limit of the green arc.

b)

Upper limit of the white arc.

c)

Lower limit of the green arc.

122.

(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?

a)

58 knots.

b)

100 knots.

c)

165 knots.

123.

(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?

a)

The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.

b)

The green arc.

c)

The white arc.

124.

(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

a)

Upper limit of the green arc.

b)

Upper limit of the white arc.

c)

Lower limit of the white arc.

125.

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

a)

Never-exceed speed.

b)

Maneuvering speed.

c)

Maximum structural cruising speed.

126.

(Refer to Figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

a)

angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.

b)

movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.

c)

attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.

127.

(Refer to Figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

a)

horizon bar to the level-flight indication.

b)

horizon bar to the miniature airplane.

c)

miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

128.

(Refer to Figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?

a)

By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).

b)

By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).

c)

By the relationship of the miniature airplane

d)

(C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

129.

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is

a)

magnetic deviation.

b)

magnetic variation.

c)

compass acceleration error.

130.

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

a)

presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.

b)

difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.

c)

magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

131.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

a)

a left turn is entered from a north heading.

b)

a right turn is entered from a north heading.

c)

an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

132.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

a)

an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.

b)

an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

c)

a left turn is entered from a north heading.

133.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

a)

a right turn is entered from an east heading.

b)

an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.

c)

an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

134.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when

a)

a left turn is entered from an east heading.

b)

a right turn is entered from a west heading.

c)

the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

135.

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate

a)

a turn momentarily.

b)

correctly when on a north or south heading.

c)

a turn toward the south.

136.

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

a)

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

b)

As long as the airspeed is constant.

c)

During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.

137.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

b)

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

c)

The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

138.

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

a)

a northerly turning error.

b)

certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.

c)

the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.

139.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

a)

a left turn is entered from a west heading.

b)

an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.

c)

an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

140.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

a)

15°C and 29.92 inches Hg.

b)

59°C and 1013.2 millibars.

c)

59°F and 29.92 millibars.

141.

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

a)

Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher.

b)

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

c)

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

142.

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

a)

When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

b)

When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

c)

When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.

143.

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

a)

At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.

b)

When the altimeter has no installation error.

c)

At standard temperature.

144.

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

a)

the actual altitude above sea level.

b)

higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

c)

lower than the actual altitude above sea level

145.

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

a)

lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

b)

higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

c)

the actual altitude above sea level.

146.

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

a)

In colder than standard air temperature.

b)

In warmer than standard air temperature.

c)

When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

147.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

a)

Air temperature lower than standard.

b)

Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.

c)

Air temperature warmer than standard.

148.

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

a)

An increase in barometric pressure.

b)

An increase in ambient temperature.

c)

A decrease in relative humidity.

Principles of Flight Final Review

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 25hrs 41mins

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