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Anatomy semester 1 final

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 39hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which gland produces the following hormones; Mineralcoroticoids, Glucoroticods, Sex hormones (mostly androgens, but some estrogens)

a)

Adrenal Medulla

b)

Ovaries

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Adrenal cortex

2.

Helps establish the body's wake and sleep cycles, believed to coordinate the hormones of fertility in humans

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Melatonin

c)

Thyroxine(T4)

d)

Prolactin(PRL)

3.

The female illa of the pelvis do not flare more laterally

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Fracture common in the skull; bone is pressed inward

a)

Compression

b)

Greenstick

c)

Spiral

d)

Depression

5.

toward or at the backside of the body; behind

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

c)

Dorsal(posterior)

d)

Deep

6.

the study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts

a)

Anatomy

b)

Psychology

c)

Physiology

d)

Sociology

7.

away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body

a)

anterior(ventral)

b)

Inferior

c)

Superficial

d)

Lateral

8.

toward the head end or upper part of a structure or the body

a)

Superior

b)

Anterior

c)

inferior

d)

Medial

9.

Which lists all of life's necessary functions?

a)

Maintain Homeostasis, responsiveness, Digestion, metabolism, reproduction, growth, and excretion

b)

Food, water, shelter

c)

Homeostasis, metabolism excretion

d)

Food, shelter, metabolism, Excretion, water, digestion, growth, homeostasis

10.

study of how the body and its parts work or function

a)

pyschology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Physiology

d)

Sociology

11.

Toward or at the front of the body; in front of

a)

Dorsal(posterior)

b)

Lateral

c)

Superior

d)

Anterior (ventral)

12.

Divides the body into right and left parts

a)

Distal plane

b)

Saggital plane

c)

Frontal (coronal) plane

d)

Transverse plane

13.

close to the origin of the body part or point of attachment

a)

Distal

b)

Proximal

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

14.

How Necessary Life functions are there?

a)

8

b)

3

c)

5

d)

4

15.

Farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment

a)

Proximal

b)

Superficial

c)

deep

d)

Distal

16.

divides body or organ into superior and inferior parts

a)

Frontal(coronal) Plane

b)

Medial Plane

c)

Saggital Plane

d)

Transverse Plane

17.

toward or at the body's surface

a)

Superficial

b)

Lateral

c)

Distal

d)

Deep

18.

Away from the midline of the body; on the other side

a)

Proximal

b)

Superior

c)

Lateral

d)

Inferior

19.

toward or at the midline of the body; on the outer side

a)

lateral

b)

inferior

c)

distal

d)

medial

20.

Divides body or organ into posterior and anterior parts

a)

Saggital Plane

b)

Frontal(coronal)plane

c)

Transverse Plane

d)

Proximal Plane

21.

which lists the correct survival needs

a)

Water, Shelter, Food, Oxygen

b)

Stable body temp, nutrients, oxygen, water

c)

Water, Nutrients, Oxygen, Stable body temp, atmospheric pressure

d)

water, atmospheric pressure, oxygen, homeostasis

22.

Which lists biological levels of structural organization in the correct order (smallest to largest) A= Chemical B=tissues C= organ systems D=organs E= cells F=Organism

a)

ADFECB

b)

CDEFAB

c)

AEBDCF

d)

DBEFAC

23.

The dorsal cavity houses:

(a)  

24.

The Ventral body cavity houses:

(a)  

25.

A stimulus being responded to then the stimulus increasing is called:

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

26.

Stimulus increasing then ceasing release when stimulus is satisfied is called:

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

27.

Groups of cells with similar structure and function

a)

neoplasm

b)

melanin

c)

tissues

d)

muscles

28.

Away from the body surface; more internal

a)

Superficial

b)

Distal

c)

Deep

d)

Proximal

29.

protein found on epithelial cells

a)

Keratin

b)

Melanin

c)

malignant

d)

aerolar

30.

the pigment that gives humans skin, hair, and eye color

a)

Cutaneous

b)

Keratin

c)

Neoplasm

d)

Melanin

31.

an abnormal mass of tissue that forms when cells grow and divide more than they should

a)

Malignant

b)

Neoplasm

c)

tissues

d)

Keratin

32.

cancerous cells

a)

Malignant

b)

Begnin

c)

Keratin

d)

Neoplasm

33.

A single flat layer of cells

a)

Pseudosatisfied squamous epithelium

b)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Simple squamous epithelium

34.

Composed of a hard matrix of calcium salts, collagen fibers, and bone cells in lacunae

a)

Cardiac Tissue

b)

Areolar Tissue

c)

Dense Connective Tissue

d)

Osseous TIssue

35.

Single-layer of cube-like cells

a)

Simple Squamous Epithelium

b)

Simple Columnar Epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal Epithelium

d)

Stratified squamous epithelium

36.

Single-layer of cells taller than they are wide

a)

Simple Columnar Epithelium

b)

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

c)

Simple squamous epithelium

d)

Simple Cuboidal epithelium

37.

Voluntary, striated, multinucleate, non-branching

a)

Adipose Tissue

b)

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

c)

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

d)

Dense connective tissue

38.

Collagen Fibers are the main matrix component

a)

Osseous Tissue

b)

Adipose Tissue

c)

Dense Connective Tissue

d)

Areolar Tissue

39.

Flat epithelial cells arranged in layers

a)

Adipose Tissue

b)

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

c)

Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

d)

Simple Columnar Epithelium

40.

Loose connective tissue that functions as packing tissue

a)

Areolar Tissue

b)

Dense Connective Tissue

c)

Osseous tissue

d)

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

41.

Fat areolar tissue that protects organs

a)

Osseous Tissue

b)

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

c)

Adipose Tissue

d)

Dense Connective Tissue

42.

involuntary, intercalated disks, one nucleus per cell, branching cylinders

a)

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

b)

Smooth Muscle Tissue

c)

Osseous Tissue

d)

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

43.

Involuntary, makes up the walls of hollow organs, no visible striations, one nucleus per cell, spindle-shaped cells

a)

Dense connective tissue

b)

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

c)

Smooth Muscle Tissue

d)

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

44.

Which of the following tissues are easily regenerated:

a)

Epithelial Tissue

b)

Osseous tissue

c)

Fibrous Tissue

d)

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

45.

How many functions of the Integumentary system are there?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

9

d)

10

46.

Which of the following tissues are replaced largely with scar tissue when repaired

a)

Fibrous TIssue

b)

Nervous Tissue in the brain or spinal cord

c)

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

d)

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

47.

Which are one of the four types of tissue membranes

a)

Synovial

b)

Cutaneous

c)

Mucous

d)

Serous

e)

All of the above

48.

Which of the following tissues regenerate poorly:

a)

Fibrous Tissue

b)

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

c)

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

d)

Dense connective tissue

49.

Which Epithelial tissue is found in areas subject to considerable friction and abuse?

a)

Serous

b)

Cutaneous

c)

Synovial

d)

Mucous

50.

Which is the correct order of tissue repair:

A- Capiallaries become permeable

B- Regeneration of Surface Epithelium

C- Clot forms

D- Granulation tissue forms

a)

ACDB

b)

ADCB

c)

ABCD

d)

ACBD

51.

Which type of serous membrane is superficial and belongs to the lung

a)

Visceral Pleura

b)

Visceral Pericardium

c)

Parietal Pleura

d)

Parietal pericardium

52.

Which type of serous membrane is deep and relates to the lung

a)

Visceral Pleura

b)

Parietal Pericardium

c)

Parietal Pleura

d)

Visceral Pericardium

53.

Which of the following make up the general structures of the Integumentary system

a)

Hair

b)

Skin

c)

Nails

d)

Exocrine glands

e)

all of the above

54.

What are the functions of the Integumentary system?

(a)  

55.

What are the five layers of the Epidermis in Correct order

A- Stratum Basale

B- Stratum lucidum

C-Stratum granulosum

D-Stratum Correum

E- Stratum Spinosm

a)

ACBED

b)

DBCEA

c)

ADECB

d)

EDCBA

56.

Determines skin color by orange and yellow pigments from some vegetables

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Carotene

c)

Melanin

57.

Which of the following are a part of the dermis' papillary layer?

a)

capillary loops

b)

Pain and touch receptors

c)

Dermal Papillae projections

d)

Blood vessels

e)

Sweat and oil glands

58.

How often is the epidermis replaced

a)

Once a month

b)

every 25-45 days

c)

every week

d)

every 30 days

59.

which of the following are NOT part of the dermis' deepest layer called the Reticular layer

a)

Deep pressure Receptors

b)

Pain and touch receptors

c)

Blood vessels

d)

Sweat and oil glands

60.

Which layer of the epidermis is not present in thin skin

a)

Stratum Spinosum

b)

Stratum Basale

c)

Stratum Lucidum

d)

Stratum Corneum

61.

Determines skin color by yellow, black, and brown pigments + melanocytes

a)

Carotene

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Melanin

62.

Dry skin membrane made up of stratified squamous epithelium (superficial dermis) and Dense connective tissue (underlying dermis)

a)

Synovial

b)

Serous

c)

Cutaneous

d)

Mucous

63.

Determines Skin Color by oxygen content that determines the extent of red coloring

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Melanin

c)

Carotene

64.

The first threat of life from a third-degree burn

a)

Loss of blood

b)

Dehydration

c)

Nerve shock

d)

Infection

65.

Fracture that is closed to the outside world

a)

Compound

b)

Simple

66.

Single Layer, but some cells are shorter than others; may function in absorption or secretion

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Pseudostratified epithelium

c)

Simple columnar epithelium

d)

Simple squamous epithelium

67.

What is the ABCDE rule used for

a)

Burns

b)

Determining if a spot on the skin is cancerous or not

c)

classification of membranes

d)

Skeletal parts

68.

The membrane that lines body cavities closed to the exterior of the body, allows organs to slide easily without friction, made of simple squamous epithelium and areolar connective tissue

a)

Cutaneous

b)

Serous

c)

Mucous

d)

Synovial

69.

Fracture common in sports; caused by excessive twisting force

a)

Impacted

b)

Spiral

c)

Compression

d)

Greenstick

70.

The ABCDE rule

(a)  

71.

Ribs 1-7 are...

a)

False

b)

True

c)

Floating

72.

The membrane that lines all body cavities open to the exterior body surface, adapted for absorption or secretion

a)

Serous

b)

Synovial

c)

Cutaneous

d)

Mucous

73.

Fracture common when you try to break a fall; Broken bone ends forced into one another

a)

Compression

b)

Comminuted

c)

Depression

d)

Impacted

74.

Which of the following are functions of sweat

a)

Dissipate heat

b)

Inhibits bacterial Growth

c)

Protection

d)

Excretes Waste

e)

dehydration

75.

Composed of neurons and nerve support cells; function is to send impulses to other areas of the body

a)

Osseous tissue

b)

Skeletal muscle tissue

c)

Smooth muscle tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

76.

How a physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient

a)

ABCDE rule

b)

Rule of nines

c)

Rule of thirds

d)

Weight

77.

Fraction common in older people; Bone breaks into many fragments

a)

Impacted

b)

Compression

c)

Comminuted

d)

Spiral

78.

Structures that run through the core of osteons

a)

Nerve fibers

b)

minerals

c)

osseous tissue

d)

Blood vessels

79.

Functions of the skeletal system (5)

(a)  

80.

Fracture common in children; bone break is incomplete

a)

Impacted

b)

Compression

c)

Greenstick

d)

Depression

81.

Which bone is the dens located on

a)

Atlas

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Axis

d)

Cervical Vertabrae

82.

A unit of bone containing central and matrix rings

a)

Canal

b)

Osteon

c)

Caniculi

d)

Luncae

83.

Fibrous membranes connecting the cranial bones of the fetal skull

a)

Occipital

b)

Sutures

c)

Fontanelles

d)

Frontal

84.

Order the events in correct order:

A-Fibrocartilage callus forms

B- Permanent patch is remodeled

C- Bony callus forms

D- Hematoma forms

a)

CABD

b)

CABD

c)

DACB

d)

BDAC

85.

ribs 11 and 12 are....

a)

True

b)

Floating

c)

False

86.

Which bone is the transverse formina located on

a)

Atlas

b)

Axis

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Cervical Vertabrae

87.

The membrane that secretes a lubricating fluid to protect joints, lines fibrous capsules of surrounding joints and is made of only areolar connective tissue

a)

Synovial

b)

Serous

c)

Mucous

d)

Cutaneous

88.

The female ischial spines are shorter and farther apart; thus the outlet is larger

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Which bone has the sella turcica

a)

Axis

b)

Atlas

c)

Sphenoid

90.

trophic hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland; influences the growth and activity of the thyroid gland in response to T3 and T4 levels in the body

a)

Prolactin(PRL)

b)

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone(TSH)

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Thyroxin(T4)

91.

What kind of tissue is forerunner in long bones of embryos

a)

Fibrocartiliage

b)

Hyaline cartiliage

c)

Skeletal Muscle tissue

d)

Smooth Muscle tissue

92.

Spherical Head of one bone fits into the round socket of another; Shoulder and hip joints

a)

Ball and Socket

b)

Hinge

c)

Condylar

d)

Plane

93.

Fracture common in porous bones; Bones are crushed

a)

Compression

b)

Impacted

c)

Greenstick

d)

Depression

94.

Egg shaped surface of one bone fits into oval cavity of another; kunckle joints

a)

Plane

b)

Hinge

c)

Condylar

d)

Pivot

95.

Ribs 8-10 are...

a)

Floating ribs

b)

False ribs

c)

Floating ribs

96.

Which one fracture is open and exposed to the world

a)

Simple

b)

Compound

97.

Cylindrical end of one bone fits into a tough shaped surface on another; Elbow, ankle, fingers

a)

saddle

b)

Plane

c)

pivot

d)

hinge

98.

Which one indicates growth is complete

a)

Epiphyseal line

b)

Epiphyseal plate

99.

Surfaces are flat; bones slip or glide; intercarpal joints of wrist

a)

Condyar

b)

Hinge

c)

Plane

d)

Ball and socket

100.

Rounded end of bone fits into sleeve ring or ring of another; radius rotates in a ring around ulna and atlas and axis

a)

Plane

b)

Pivot

c)

Saddle

d)

Ball and socket

101.

The female inlet of the true pelvis is wider and more circular:

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Each surface has a concave and a convex area; joint in thumbs

a)

Ball and Socket

b)

Condylar

c)

Pivot

d)

Saddle

103.

which one is a line across the long bones that indicate someone is still growing

a)

Epiphyseal plate

b)

Epiphyseal line

104.

The skull, vertebral column, and bony thorax are part of what:

a)

Appendicular Skeleton

b)

Axial Skeleton

105.

Bones of the upper and lower limbs and the shoulder and pelvic girdle are part of which:

a)

Appendicular

b)

Axial

106.

The humerus and femur are:

a)

Long bones

b)

Flat bones

c)

Short bones

d)

Irregular bones

107.

tarsals and carpals are:

a)

Long bones

b)

Flat bones

c)

Short bones

d)

Irregular bones

108.

The frontal sternum, and ribs are

a)

Long bones

b)

Flat bones

c)

Short bones

d)

Irregular bones

109.

The coxal and vertebral bones ar e

a)

Long bones

b)

Flat bones

c)

Short bones

d)

Irregular bones

110.

The female pelvis as a whole is shallower, and the bones are lighter and thinner

a)

True

b)

False

111.

immovable joints such as skull sutures

a)

Diathroses

b)

Synathroses

c)

Amphiarthrosis

112.

Slightly movable joints such as the vertebrae

a)

Diathroses

b)

Synathroses

c)

Amphithroses

113.

Freely movable joints such as the arms, legs, and feet

a)

Diathroses

b)

Synathroses

c)

Amphiarthrosis

114.

Which gland are these hormones produced from; Growth Horomone(GH), Prolactin(PRL), Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH), Adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH), Follicle stimulating hormone(FSH),Luteinizing Horomone(LH)

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Thymus gland

c)

Anterior Pituitary

d)

Posterior Pituitary

115.

Functions of the endocrine

(a)  

116.

Control of hormones: Endocrine glands are activated by other horomones

a)

Humoral

b)

Nueral

c)

Hormonal

117.

Control of hormones: Changing blood levels of certain ions stimulate hormone release

a)

Humoral

b)

Nueral

c)

Hormonal

118.

The female sacrum is shorter/wider and less curved

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Control of hormones: Nerve impulses stimulate hormone release

a)

Humoral

b)

Nueral

c)

Hormonal

120.

Which gland are the following hormones produced from; Antidurietic (ADH), and Oxytocin

a)

Posterior Pituitary

b)

Thyroid

c)

Thymus

d)

Pineal

121.

Which gland produces the following hormones; Insulin and glucagon

a)

pineal gland

b)

Thymus gland

c)

Adrenal cortex

d)

Pancreatic Islets

122.

Which gland produces the following hormones; Thyroid hormone(Thyroxin T4 and Triiodothyrine T3), Calitonin

a)

Thymus

b)

Thyroid

c)

Pineal

d)

Adrenal Cortex

123.

Which gland produces following hormones; Parathyroid Hormone(PTH)

a)

Pineal gland

b)

Parathyroid Gland

c)

Thymus gland

d)

Thyroid gland

124.

The female pubic arch is less rounded because the angle of the pubic arch is smaller

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Which gland produces the following hormone(s); Epinephrine and norepinephrine

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Pancreatic islets

c)

Adrenal medulla

d)

thymus gland

126.

Which gland/organ produces the following hormone; Testosterone

a)

Ovaries

b)

Testes

c)

Thymus gland

d)

Pineal gland

127.

Which gland/organ produces the following hormones; Estrogen and Progesterone

a)

Adrenal Medulla

b)

Testes

c)

Ovaries

d)

Thymus gland

128.

Which gland produces the following hormone; Melatonin

a)

Adrenal Cortex

b)

Pineal gland

c)

thyroid gland

d)

Thymus gland

129.

Responsible for adult male secondary sex characteristics; Promotes growth and maturation of male reproductive system

a)

Progesterone

b)

Thymosin

c)

Thyroxine(T4)

d)

Testosterone

130.

which gland produces the following; Thymosin

a)

Parathyroid gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Thymus Gland

d)

Pineal gland

131.

General metabolic hormone; Major effects are directed to the growth of skeletal muscles and long bones

a)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)

b)

Prolactin(PRL)

c)

Growth hormone(GH)

d)

Thyroxine(T4)

132.

Stimulates and maintains milk production following childbirth

a)

Minerealcorotioids

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Prolactin(PRL)

d)

Thyroxine(T4)

133.

Regulates the endocrine activity of the adrenal cortex

a)

Glucocorticoids

b)

Thymosin

c)

Thyroid-Stimulating(TSH)

d)

Adrenocorticotropic

134.

Major metabolic hormone, active iodine-containing hormone

a)

Prolactin(PRL)

b)

Glucagon

c)

Thymosin

d)

Thyroxine(T4)

135.

Decreases blood calcium levels by causing its deposition on bone

a)

Growth horomone

b)

Thymosin

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Melatonin

136.

Stimulate osteoclasts to remove calcium from bone

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Thymosin

c)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)

d)

Melatonin

137.

Regulate mineral content in blood, water, and electrolyte balance; target organ is the kidney

a)

Thymosin

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Mineralocorticoids

d)

Insulin

138.

Promote normal cell metabolism, help resist long-term stressors; Released in response to increased blood levels of ACTH

a)

Glucocorticoids (cortisol and cortisone)

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Mineralocorticoids

d)

Thyroxine(T4)

139.

These hormones prepare the body to deal with short-term stress; Increasing heart rate, blood pressure, blood glucose levels; Dilating small passageways of lungs

a)

Insulin

b)

Mineralocorticoids

c)

Epinephrine/norepinephrine

d)

Calcitonin

140.

decreases blood sugar levels by allowing glucose to cross plasma membranes into cells from beta cells

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Thymosin

d)

Calcitonin

141.

Increases blood sugar levels by allowing glucose to enter the blood from alpha cells

a)

Insulin

b)

Thymosin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Mineralocorticoids

142.

Inhibits sodium reabsorption and renin release by the kidneys' inhibits the secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex to decrease blood volume and blood pressure

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Atrial natriuretic peptide

c)

Glucagon

d)

Growth hormone

143.

Identify the correct order of events in direct gene activation:

A- Bind sites on Cell DNA

B- Diffuse through membrane

C- Synthesize new proteins

D- Bind to nucleus protien

E- Enter the nucleus

a)

BDECA

b)

BEDAC

c)

CEDAB

d)

BACED

144.

Stimulate the development of secondary female characteristics; Mature female reproductive organs

a)

Progesterone

b)

Testosterone

c)

Estrogens

d)

Thymosin

145.

Acts with estrogen to bring about the menstrual cycle; Helps in the implantation of an embryo in the uterus; helps prepare breasts for lactation

a)

Testosterone

b)

Progesterone

c)

Androgens

d)

Estrogens

146.

Matures some types of white blood cells; important in developing the immune system

a)

Estrogens

b)

Thyroxine(T4)

c)

Melatonin

d)

Thymosin

147.

Identify the correct order of events in the Second-Messenger System:

A- Stimulates second messenger

B- Hormone binds to receptor

C- Oversees intracellular changes

D- Activates Enzyme

E- Does not enter cell

a)

EDACB

b)

BCEDA

c)

DECAB

d)

BEDAC

148.

Which vertebrae section has 7 vertebrae and is the top one

a)

Lumbar

b)

Thoracic

c)

Cervical

d)

Sacral

149.

Which vertebrae section has 12 vertebrae and is second

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

150.

Which vertebrae section has 5 vertebrae and is third

a)

Thoracic

b)

Sacral

c)

Cervical

d)

Lumbar

151.

Which vertebrae section has 5 vertebrae and is last

a)

Cervical

b)

Lumbar

c)

Thoracic

d)

Sacral

152.

which suture connects the parietal and occipital bones of the cranium

a)

Lambdoid

b)

Coronal

c)

Squamous

d)

Saggital

153.

which suture connects the two parietal bones

a)

Squamous

b)

Lamboid

c)

Saggital

d)

Coronal

154.

which suture connects the frontal and parietal cranial bones

a)

Saggital

b)

Coronal

c)

Lambdoid

d)

Squamous

155.

which suture connects the parietal and temporal bones of the cranium

a)

Lambdoid

b)

Coronal

c)

Squamous

d)

Saggital