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Unit 0: Biases and Research Methods

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which scenario best illustrates hindsight bias?

a)

Overestimating personal skill before performing

b)

Claiming a result was obvious after seeing it

c)

Predicting an outcome before any data exists

d)

Ignoring contradictory evidence during research

2.

Confirmation bias most likely leads a researcher to do which of the following?

a)

Seek disconfirming evidence actively

b)

Report only statistically significant null results

c)

Surround themselves with belief-supporting sources

d)

Randomly sample from opposing viewpoints

3.

Overconfidence in judgment typically results in what risk for scientific decision-making?

a)

Confusing correlation with causation more often

b)

Overestimating one’s accuracy and precision

c)

Underestimating one’s accuracy and precision

d)

Avoiding clear operational definitions

4.

A case study is best described as which type of approach?

a)

Broad survey across populations

b)

Focused, in-depth study of one entity

c)

Controlled laboratory experiment

d)

Randomized trial of multiple treatments

5.

Naturalistic observation primarily involves which procedure?

a)

Aggregating results across studies

b)

Watching behavior in real settings

c)

Interviewing participants about beliefs

d)

Manipulating variables in a lab

6.

Meta-analysis is used to accomplish which goal?

a)

Collect qualitative narratives from interviews

b)

Plot two variables to visualize their relation

c)

Combine multiple studies to estimate an overall effect

d)

Identify a single case with unusual characteristics

7.

Positive correlation means what pattern between two variables?

a)

Both increase or decrease together

b)

One increases as the other decreases

c)

They change independently of each other

d)

Both remain constant across time

8.

The directional problem in correlation refers to what uncertainty?

a)

Which variable was randomly assigned

b)

Which variable causes changes in the other

c)

Which variable has a stronger mean

d)

Which variable has measurement error

9.

A third variable problem suggests what possibility in observed correlation?

a)

Random assignment eliminated confounds

b)

A hidden factor explains the association

c)

Measurement scales were reversed accidentally

d)

One variable perfectly predicts the other

10.

Illusory correlation occurs when people believe what?

a)

Causation is proven through randomization

b)

No relation exists when one clearly does

c)

A relation exists when it actually does not

d)

Regression lines always pass through the origin

11.

A scatterplot is primarily used to do what?

a)

Summarize qualitative interview themes

b)

Show the relationship between two variables

c)

Display the distribution’s central tendency

d)

Compare medians across multiple groups

12.

Which data type is quantitative?

a)

Open-ended responses about feelings

b)

Numbers representing measured values

c)

Transcripts from recorded conversations

d)

Narrative descriptions of behavior

13.

Which data type is qualitative?

a)

Numerical scores on a test

b)

Counts of observed events

c)

Language-based descriptions or categories

d)

Percentile ranks within a sample

14.

Which set correctly pairs measures of central tendency with their meanings?

a)

Mean: average value across scores

b)

Median: middle number in ordered data

c)

Mode: most frequently occurring value

d)

Range: difference between highest and lowest

e)

Standard deviation: typical distance from mean

15.

Percentile rank conveys which information about a score?

a)

Its distance from the mean in units

b)

Its position relative to the sample

c)

Its exact value without context

d)

Its causal impact on other scores

16.

Which scenario best illustrates regression toward the mean?

a)

A moderate score diverges further from the average

b)

A random trial yields identical results repeatedly

c)

An extreme performance shifts closer to typical next time

d)

A consistently high scorer keeps improving steadily

17.

Which statement best defines effect size in research?

a)

Probability that results occurred by chance alone

b)

Difference between mean and median across groups

c)

Magnitude of relationship between two variables

d)

Number of participants included in a sample

18.

Random assignment primarily ensures that:

a)

Researchers avoid social desirability bias

b)

Participants are evenly distributed by chance

c)

Only the control group receives the placebo

d)

The sample represents the wider population

19.

Experimental bias occurs when:

a)

Researchers’ expectations influence outcomes

b)

Participants cannot identify the treatment

c)

Data are analyzed with incorrect statistics

d)

The placebo effect changes participant mood

20.

Statistically significant results imply that:

a)

Outcomes likely did not happen by chance

b)

The study is fully generalizable to all

c)

Participants reported their behaviors accurately

d)

The effect size must be very large

21.

Which scenario best describes a double‑blind design?

a)

Everyone knows who received the variable

b)

Only participants know their group membership

c)

Only researchers know who received the placebo

d)

Neither participants nor researchers know assignments

22.

In a single‑blind setup, who is unaware of the condition?

a)

Participants in the experimental group

b)

Both participants and researchers

c)

The statistician analyzing the data

d)

The control group supervisor only

23.

The control group is best characterized as the group that:

a)

Contains the most reliable participants

b)

Is selected by convenience sampling

c)

Receives the independent variable

d)

Serves as a baseline for comparison

24.

Placebo refers to an intervention that is:

a)

Inactive and used with the control group

b)

A Likert scale anchor for responses

c)

A strong variable applied to treatment

d)

A blinding procedure for researchers

25.

Reliability in testing means that the measure:

a)

Produces consistent results over time

b)

Avoids all forms of response bias

c)

Accurately measures the intended construct

d)

Is reviewed by peers before publication

26.

Validity is demonstrated when a test:

a)

Contains items with symmetrical wording

b)

Is repeated with consistent outcomes

c)

Measures what it is supposed to measure

d)

Is approved by an ethics committee

27.

Peer review is the process where:

a)

Subjects discuss debriefing with researchers

b)

Other scholars evaluate the study before publication

c)

Participants review consent forms after finishing

d)

Funding agencies audit project budgets

28.

Which practice supports generalizability of findings?

a)

Choosing volunteers by convenience

b)

Keeping hypotheses unfalsifiable

c)

Increasing the placebo dose for controls

d)

Using a representative random sample

29.

Ethical research requires adherence to principles such as:

a)

Avoiding harm to participants

b)

Ensuring confidentiality of data

c)

Obtaining consent from participants

d)

Maximizing placebo effectiveness

30.

Self‑report bias most directly involves:

a)

Inaccurate reporting of thoughts or behaviors

b)

Researchers concealing assignment procedures

c)

Sampling only the easiest volunteers

d)

Using too few items on questionnaires

31.

A Likert scale typically ranges from:

a)

Values like 1 through 10 for agreement

b)

Binary choices such as yes or no

c)

Open‑ended narrative responses only

d)

Nominal categories without order

32.

Operational definition in a study serves to:

a)

Ensure ethics like consent and debriefing

b)

Increase the placebo strength for controls

c)

Define IV and DV so experiments can be repeated

d)

Determine if results are statistically significant

33.

In experimental design, the experimental group is the group that:

a)

Undergoes debriefing exclusively

b)

Is held constant for comparison

c)

Receives the variable being tested

d)

Provides peer review feedback

34.

Which statements about distribution shapes are accurate based on the diagram?

a)

Negatively skewed: mean less than median

b)

Symmetric: mean equals median and mode

c)

Positively skewed: mean greater than median

d)

Negatively skewed: median exceeds mode greatly

35.

During debriefing in ethical research, researchers should:

a)

Avoid discussing any potential risks

b)

Explain study purpose and procedures

c)

Reveal each participant’s private data

d)

Ask subjects to change their answers

36.

Which situation best indicates statistical significance?

a)

Observed differences unlikely due to chance

b)

Participants guess the expected answers

c)

Large convenience sample with quick responses

d)

Perfect reliability across all items

37.

Which perspective explains behavior through rewards and punishments?

a)

Behaviorist perspective

b)

Cognitive perspective

c)

Humanist perspective

d)

Evolutionary perspective

38.

Which perspective emphasizes free will and self-actualization?

a)

Humanist perspective

b)

Sociocultural perspective

c)

Behaviorist perspective

d)

Biological perspective

39.

Which perspective focuses on memory, language, and mental processes?

a)

Evolutionary perspective

b)

Behaviorist perspective

c)

Cognitive perspective

d)

Biological perspective

40.

Which perspective studies the brain, neurotransmitters, and nervous system?

a)

Biological perspective

b)

Sociocultural perspective

c)

Behaviorist perspective

d)

Humanist perspective

41.

Which perspective examines how culture and environment shape behavior?

a)

Humanist perspective

b)

Sociocultural perspective

c)

Cognitive perspective

d)

Evolutionary perspective

42.

Which perspective proposes that behaviors aiding survival are passed on?

a)

Cognitive perspective

b)

Evolutionary perspective

c)

Humanist perspective

d)

Behaviorist perspective

43.

Nature vs. nurture refers to the influence of which factors on behavior?

a)

Genes and environment

b)

Rewards and punishments

c)

Brain lesions and hormones

d)

Language and memory

44.

Genetic predispositions are best described as:

a)

Inherited tendencies

b)

Therapy outcomes

c)

Cultural norms

d)

Learned habits

45.

A counselor urging a student to set personal growth goals illustrates which perspective?

a)

Humanist perspective

b)

Behaviorist perspective

c)

Sociocultural perspective

d)

Evolutionary perspective

46.

A student making flashcards to actively recall information best fits which perspective?

a)

Biological perspective

b)

Evolutionary perspective

c)

Cognitive perspective

d)

Humanist perspective

47.

Fear of heights potentially rooted in ancestral survival reflects which perspective?

a)

Evolutionary perspective

b)

Humanist perspective

c)

Sociocultural perspective

d)

Behaviorist perspective

48.

Using multiple approaches together to explain behavior is called:

a)

Reductionist approach

b)

Eclectic approach

c)

Monolithic approach

d)

Operant approach

49.

Lack of sleep affecting concentration aligns most directly with which perspective?

a)

Biological perspective

b)

Cognitive perspective

c)

Humanist perspective

d)

Behaviorist perspective

50.

Which neuron type carries sensory information from the body toward the brain?

a)

Motor neuron from cortex to muscles

b)

Interneuron linking neural circuits

c)

Sensory neuron from periphery to CNS

d)

Mirror neuron firing during observation

51.

Which neuron primarily processes information within the central nervous system to decide motor outputs?

a)

Interneuron integrating CNS signals

b)

Sensory neuron detecting heat

c)

Motor neuron moving skeletal muscles

d)

Glial cell repairing myelin

52.

Which cells provide structural support and help form myelin around axons?

a)

Axon terminals releasing chemicals

b)

Dendrites receiving neurotransmitters

c)

Interneurons directing motor plans

d)

Glial cells supporting and myelinating

53.

Which neuron part primarily receives chemical messages from other neurons?

a)

Axon terminal storing vesicles

b)

Myelin sheath insulating axon

c)

Axon conducting action potential

d)

Dendrites receiving synaptic input

54.

Which structure sends the electrical impulse down the neuron?

a)

Synapse bridging two cells

b)

Dendrites collecting inputs

c)

Myelin sheath protecting soma

d)

Axon conducting the signal

55.

What is the main function of the myelin sheath?

a)

Speed signal by insulation

b)

Digest synaptic leftovers

c)

Generate resting potential

d)

Store neurotransmitter vesicles

56.

Which part releases neurotransmitters into the synaptic gap?

a)

Cell body synthesizing proteins

b)

Axon terminal releasing chemicals

c)

Dendrites integrating inputs

d)

Synapse forming the cleft

57.

What term names the gap across which neurotransmitters cross to the next neuron?

a)

Myelin node area

b)

Synapse or cleft

c)

Axon hillock region

d)

Reuptake channel

58.

During reuptake, what happens to leftover neurotransmitters?

a)

They degrade in the cleft

b)

They bind postsynaptic receptors

c)

They trigger new action potentials

d)

They return to the presynaptic neuron

59.

At resting potential, how are charges arranged across the neuronal membrane?

a)

Negative outside, positive inside

b)

Positive outside, negative inside

c)

Positive both inside and outside

d)

Equal charges on both sides

60.

What is the stimulus threshold?

a)

Energy needed for reuptake

b)

Average synaptic input level

c)

Minimum energy to fire neuron

d)

Maximum energy before block

61.

Which phase describes the neuron firing as gates open and ions move?

a)

Polarized resting phase

b)

Depolarized firing phase

c)

Refractory recovery phase

d)

All-or-nothing block

62.

What is the refractory period?

a)

Time when vesicles fill

b)

Time when synapse forms

c)

Time when neuron fires

d)

Time when neuron recharges

63.

Which statement best describes all-or-nothing response in neurons?

a)

Stronger stimulus makes bigger spike

b)

Ions open gradually with force

c)

Neuron either fires or does not

d)

Firing strength scales with input

64.

Which neurotransmitter is linked to memory and movement, with deficits in Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Acetylcholine affecting memory

b)

GABA inhibitory calming

c)

Glutamate excitatory speed

d)

Serotonin regulating mood

65.

Which neurotransmitter primarily inhibits neural activity and is associated with anxiety when low?

a)

Glutamate excitatory transmitter

b)

GABA inhibitory transmitter

c)

Serotonin mood stabilizer

d)

Acetylcholine motor control

66.

Which neurotransmitter speeds transmission and is implicated in migraines and seizures when excessive?

a)

Endorphins reducing pain

b)

Norepinephrine stress arousal

c)

Glutamate excitatory action

d)

Serotonin regulating sleep

67.

Which terms correctly match drug actions at receptors?

a)

Agonists mimic neurotransmitters

b)

Antagonists block receptor sites

c)

Antagonists enhance reuptake

d)

Agonists degrade synaptic enzymes

68.

Which gland is considered the master endocrine gland and releases oxytocin for bonding?

a)

Adrenal gland secreting adrenaline

b)

Pancreas secreting insulin

c)

Pituitary gland releasing oxytocin

d)

Pineal gland producing melatonin

69.

Which hormone is primarily produced by the pineal gland and regulates sleep?

a)

Oxytocin promoting bonding

b)

Adrenaline boosting energy

c)

Melatonin regulating sleep

d)

Insulin controlling glucose

70.

Which hormone from the pancreas regulates blood sugar?

a)

Adrenaline raising alertness

b)

Oxytocin bonding hormone

c)

Melatonin promoting sleep

d)

Insulin lowering blood glucose

71.

Which endocrine glands are responsible for reproductive functions?

a)

Thyroid in the neck

b)

Pineal in the brain

c)

Testes and ovaries

d)

Adrenal above kidneys

72.

Which statement about norepinephrine is accurate?

a)

Key for alertness and arousal

b)

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter

c)

Chief pain-relief endorphin

d)

Memory via acetylcholine

73.

Which pair correctly links a neurotransmitter to a clinical association in the notes?

a)

Serotonin and depression

b)

GABA and anxiety

c)

Acetylcholine and epilepsy

d)

Dopamine and schizophrenia

74.

Which event most directly triggers neurotransmitter release from axon terminals?

a)

Myelin sheath thickens

b)

Reuptake transporter blocked

c)

Action potential reaches terminal

d)

Resting potential restored

75.

In the provided neuron diagram, which labeled structure would most increase conduction speed if enhanced?

a)

Synaptic gaps between cells

b)

Dendrites receiving inputs

c)

Myelin sheath around axon

d)

Axon terminals with vesicles

76.

Which class of psychoactive drugs slows down central nervous system activity?

a)

Tolerance increases drug metabolism

b)

Hallucinogens distort sensory input

c)

Depressants reduce CNS activity

d)

Stimulants speed up neural signaling

77.

Which term describes the brain adapting so that more of a drug is needed to achieve the same effect?

a)

Withdrawal causes strong cravings

b)

Tolerance reduces drug responsiveness

c)

Sympathetic activation prevents overdose

d)

Addiction eliminates physical dependence

78.

Which statement best characterizes stimulants?

a)

They slow reflex arcs in the spinal cord

b)

They trigger parasympathetic responses

c)

They speed up CNS activity like caffeine

d)

They alter perception using marijuana

79.

What is a common effect of hallucinogens?

a)

Suppress brain waves on EEG

b)

Alter perception such as visuals

c)

Increase heart rate via sympathetic

d)

Restore peace via parasympathetic

80.

Which structures compose the central nervous system?

a)

Cranial and spinal nerves

b)

Brain and spinal cord

c)

Temporal and parietal lobes

d)

Autonomic and somatic divisions

81.

Which is part of the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Brain and spinal cord

b)

Reflex arcs within brain

c)

Cranial and spinal nerves

d)

EEG electrodes on scalp

82.

Which division controls voluntary body movements like raising a hand?

a)

Sympathetic branch

b)

Parasympathetic branch

c)

Somatic nervous system

d)

Autonomic nervous system

83.

Which branch restores peace by slowing the heart and releasing pupils?

a)

Parasympathetic branch

b)

Central nervous system

c)

Somatic motor system

d)

Sympathetic branch

84.

Which statement best describes a reflex arc?

a)

Automatic action using spinal cord

b)

Voluntary motion needing cortex

c)

Language pathway in temporal lobe

d)

Imaging sequence on fMRI

85.

What does an EEG primarily measure?

a)

Glucose uptake with radioactive tracers

b)

Amplified brain waves via scalp electrodes

c)

Soft tissue structure using magnets

d)

Combined activity and structure mapping

86.

Which imaging method shows both brain activity and tissue structure together?

a)

MRI examines soft tissues only

b)

fMRI combines PET and MRI features

c)

EEG records electrical rhythms

d)

PET shows colorful glucose signals

87.

Which technique uses radioactive glucose to light up active brain areas in bright colors?

a)

Reflex arc spinal measurement

b)

MRI soft tissue visualization

c)

PET scan metabolic imaging

d)

EEG electrical wave recording

88.

Which modality is best for viewing soft tissue in the brain and body without radioactive tracers?

a)

Sympathetic pupil dilation

b)

EEG signal amplitudes

c)

PET tracer metabolism

d)

MRI magnetic imaging

89.

Which hormone from fat deposits helps signal that you should stop eating?

a)

Leptin promotes satiety signals

b)

Dopamine enhances reward circuits

c)

Insulin raises blood glucose levels

d)

Ghrelin increases hunger sensation

90.

Which lobe is most associated with Broca’s aphasia in this material?

a)

Parietal lobe dominance

b)

Temporal lobe involvement

c)

Occipital lobe lesions

d)

Cerebellar cortex damage

91.

Aphasia broadly refers to which condition?

a)

Inability to use or understand language

b)

Loss of voluntary motor control

c)

Chronic sympathetic activation

d)

Reduced tolerance to psychoactives

92.

Which set correctly pairs system with primary function?

a)

Somatic—controls involuntary heartbeat

b)

Sympathetic—arousal, pupils dilate

c)

Parasympathetic—restores peace responses

d)

Autonomic—regulates involuntary functions

93.

Which outcomes are typical during sympathetic activation?

a)

Heart racing and alertness

b)

Reflex arcs cease entirely

c)

Pupils dilate for arousal

d)

Speech becomes fluent

94.

Which hindbrain structure primarily controls heartbeat and breathing?

a)

Medulla

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Reticular formation

d)

Pons

95.

What is the main role of the cerebellum?

a)

Memory formation

b)

Balance and coordination

c)

Visual recognition

d)

Language processing

96.

Which brainstem component relays information to the lobes?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Thalamus

97.

What function is associated with the reticular formation?

a)

Speech production

b)

Visual processing

c)

Motor planning

d)

Attention and arousal

98.

Which hemisphere is most associated with language and logic?

a)

Cerebellar hemisphere

b)

Occipital hemisphere

c)

Right hemisphere

d)

Left hemisphere

99.

Creative, analytic thinking with art and music is linked to which hemisphere?

a)

Temporal hemisphere

b)

Left hemisphere

c)

Right hemisphere

d)

Frontal hemisphere

100.

Split-brain surgery most directly affects which structure?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Reticular formation

101.

Structural plasticity refers to:

a)

Hormone release patterns

b)

Nerve crossover at brainstem

c)

Experience sculpting brain structure

d)

Temporary attention changes

102.

Functional plasticity allows:

a)

Sensory inputs to stop crossing

b)

Balance to replace breathing

c)

Functions to move if areas are damaged

d)

New lobes to grow

103.

Which lobe supports high-order thinking and planning?

a)

Temporal lobe

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

104.

Somatosensory cortex is found where?

a)

Lower temporal lobe

b)

Deep in occipital lobe

c)

Front of parietal lobe

d)

Back of frontal lobe

105.

Which lobe primarily handles visual information?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Occipital lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

106.

Contralateral organization means:

a)

Right body processed on right brain

b)

Each eye to each hemisphere only

c)

Right body processed on left brain

d)

Left brain controls left body

107.

Which limbic structure forms new episodic and semantic memories?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Thalamus

108.

Which case illustrated frontal lobe change in personality after injury?

a)

Phineas Gage

b)

Split-brain patient

c)

Broca’s case

d)

H.M. case

109.

Which gland releases melatonin that aids sleep?

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Pineal gland

d)

Adrenal gland

110.

Jet lag most directly involves:

a)

Blocked thalamic routing

b)

Circadian rhythm mismatch

c)

Cortical plasticity loss

d)

Reduced amygdala activity

111.

Damage causing wild but meaningless speech comprehension problems is called:

a)

Conduction aphasia

b)

Broca’s aphasia

c)

Wernicke’s aphasia

d)

Global aphasia

112.

Place the typical sleep stage order starting from wakefulness: Stage 1, Stage 2, Stage 3, then which stage?

a)

Immediate Stage 2 repeat

b)

Direct return to Stage 1

c)

REM sleep follows next

d)

Another Stage 3 period

113.

Which feature is characteristic of REM sleep?

a)

Theta waves cause sleep spindles onset

b)

Motor cortex remains highly active

c)

Brain shows beta-like activity and vivid dreaming

d)

Alpha waves dominate deep sleep

114.

What is REM rebound most accurately described as?

a)

Shorter REM due to sleep walking

b)

Longer Stage 3 after daytime naps

c)

Reduced REM after excessive dreaming

d)

Extra REM after prior deprivation

115.

Which dream theory states the brain makes sense of random activations during sleep?

a)

Activation-synthesis theory

b)

Restorative sleep theory

c)

Information gating theory

d)

Executive attention theory

116.

Which sleep disorder best fits difficulty falling or staying asleep?

a)

Narcolepsy description fits

b)

Insomnia definition fits

c)

Restless leg syndrome fits

d)

REM behavior issues fit

117.

Which condition involves uncomfortable limb sensations that disrupt sleep?

a)

Restless leg syndrome symptoms

b)

Sleep apnea airway collapse

c)

Narcolepsy REM onset

d)

Somnambulism in deep sleep

118.

Which sleep disorder primarily features breathing interruptions during sleep?

a)

Somnambulism condition

b)

Narcolepsy syndrome

c)

Sleep apnea disorder

d)

REM behavior disorder

119.

Acting out dreams due to lack of muscle atonia characterizes which disorder?

a)

Narcolepsy sudden REM

b)

Insomnia persistent wake

c)

REM sleep behavior disorder

d)

Somnambulism deep walk

120.

Sudden transitions into REM sleep are typical of which condition?

a)

Sleep apnea arousal gasps

b)

Narcolepsy sleep attacks

c)

Restless leg syndrome

d)

Insomnia chronic wakefulness

121.

Which statement correctly distinguishes sensation from perception?

a)

Sensation produces motor output; perception controls breathing

b)

Sensation stores memories; perception creates dreams

c)

Sensation receives energy; perception organizes information

d)

Sensation organizes signals; perception receives energy

122.

What is transduction in sensory systems?

a)

Filtering irrelevant stimuli first

b)

Binding meaning to sensory data

c)

Amplifying signals in the cortex

d)

Converting energy into neural signals

123.

Which set includes processes ordered from input to interpretation?

a)

Sensation then perception then transduction

b)

Sensation then transduction then perception

c)

Perception then sensation then transduction

d)

Transduction then sensation then perception

124.

Which statement best defines bottom-up processing in sensation and perception?

a)

Processing guided by prior knowledge and expectations

b)

Processing driven by sensory input building toward integration

c)

Processing that relies on language to decode visual scenes

d)

Processing that ignores sensory receptors and uses heuristics

125.

Top-down processing primarily relies on which source of information?

a)

Learned memories, contexts, and expectations

b)

Reflexes mediated by the spinal cord

c)

Hormonal signals from the endocrine system

d)

Incoming stimulus features from the retina

126.

Transduction in sensory systems refers to which step?

a)

Filtering irrelevant signals from awareness

b)

Delivering neural information to the cortex

c)

Transforming stimulation into neural impulses

d)

Receiving external stimulation by receptors

127.

Which sequence correctly lists the three basic steps common to all senses?

a)

Receive, transform, deliver

b)

Receive, deliver, transform

c)

Deliver, transform, receive

d)

Transform, deliver, receive

128.

What is the absolute threshold?

a)

Maximum stimulus level before pain responses occur

b)

Average stimulus intensity perceived as neutral

c)

Minimum stimulus energy detected fifty percent of trials

d)

Minimum change needed to notice a difference once

129.

Difference threshold (JND) is best described as the ability to

a)

Detect a stimulus in complete darkness

b)

Detect the fastest possible neural firing

c)

Detect a stimulus during adaptation

d)

Detect differences between two stimuli

130.

According to Weber’s Law, perceiving a difference requires that two stimuli

a)

Differ by a constant absolute amount

b)

Differ by a constant minimum percentage

c)

Differ by random fluctuation over time

d)

Differ only when adaptation is complete

131.

Which example correctly illustrates Weber’s Law using weight changes?

a)

Noticing 5 lbs lost always, regardless of body size

b)

Noticing a 10% body weight loss across different frames

c)

Noticing any 1 lb change as equally detectable

d)

Noticing only increases but never decreases

132.

Sensory adaptation results in which outcome during constant stimulation?

a)

Complete receptor fatigue and damage

b)

Diminished sensitivity as receptors adjust

c)

Enhanced sensitivity over prolonged exposure

d)

Improved absolute thresholds permanently

133.

Which everyday scenario best reflects sensory adaptation?

a)

Restaurant smell becomes stronger with time

b)

Fire alarm grows louder through exposure

c)

Perfume stays equally intense all day

d)

Watch on the wrist becomes less noticeable

134.

Which structure is the eye’s transparent outer layer that helps bend light and aids focus?

a)

Cornea

b)

Iris

c)

Pupil

d)

Lens

135.

What is the primary function of the iris?

a)

Control the size of the pupil

b)

Transmit signals to the optic nerve

c)

Protect the eye’s surface

d)

Focus light onto the retina

136.

The pupil can be described as

a)

A colored membrane filtering wavelengths

b)

A muscular ring controlling accommodation

c)

A small opening regulating light entry

d)

A layered tissue converting light to signals

137.

Accommodation in vision refers to the lens

a)

Dilating to admit more light

b)

Blocking ultraviolet radiation

c)

Focusing by changing shape for imaging

d)

Transducing light into neural impulses

138.

Cones are primary for which visual functions?

a)

Motion detection and peripheral fields

b)

Brightness in low light and night vision

c)

Long-distance focusing across the lens

d)

Color vision and fine detail in the fovea

139.

Which cells transmit signals from rods and cones to ganglion cells?

a)

Amacrine cells

b)

Horizontal cells

c)

Photopigment cells

d)

Bipolar cells

140.

The optic nerve is best described as

a)

A membrane that houses photoreceptors

b)

A muscle adjusting the curvature of the lens

c)

A pigment enabling color discrimination

d)

A pathway carrying visual information to the brain

141.

Which brain region receives visual information routed via the thalamus?

a)

Frontal pole

b)

Occipital lobe visual cortex

c)

Temporal hippocampus

d)

Parietal lobe

142.

What occurs at the optic chiasm?

a)

Transduction of light into neural signals

b)

Crossing of optic nerve fibers from each eye

c)

Integration of color and motion features

d)

Release of neurotransmitters to the retina

143.

Parallel processing in vision means the brain

a)

Relies on top-down expectations exclusively

b)

Processes multiple features simultaneously

c)

Ignores color while tracking motion cues

d)

Processes one feature at a time sequentially

144.

Which statements are true about absolute threshold and difference threshold?

a)

Absolute threshold is the minimum stimulus detected half the time

b)

Difference threshold is the smallest detectable change between stimuli

c)

Both thresholds are unaffected by sensory adaptation

d)

Both thresholds depend on a constant percentage as a rule

145.

Select the structures in the correct order along the basic light path into the eye.

a)

Cornea → iris → pupil → lens → retina

b)

Iris → lens → cornea → retina → pupil

c)

Pupil → retina → lens → cornea → iris

d)

Lens → cornea → pupil → iris → retina

146.

Choose all features primarily processed by cones rather than rods.

a)

High-acuity detail at the fovea

b)

Night vision under low illumination

c)

Color discrimination in bright light

d)

Peripheral motion in dim settings

147.

Identify outcomes consistent with Weber’s Law for detecting differences.

a)

Detection depends on adaptation but not intensity

b)

Proportional changes scale with stimulus magnitude

c)

A constant absolute amount works across all intensities

d)

A constant percentage change improves detectability

148.

Which scenarios exemplify top-down processing? Select all that apply.

a)

Noticing perfume less after prolonged exposure

b)

Sensing a bee’s wing only half of the time

c)

Reading a misspelled word correctly due to context

d)

Recognizing a Christmas tree from lines and angles

149.

In the opponent process theory, which statement best captures how color is processed in the brain?

a)

Colors are mixed only in the retina

b)

Colors require auditory cortex input

c)

Colors are processed in thalamus and visual cortex

d)

Colors depend solely on the lens curvature

150.

Which pair represents opponent colors where only one can fire at a time?

a)

Red–blue pairing in afterimages

b)

Green–purple complementary pair

c)

Red–green opponent pair

d)

Black–white luminance pair