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GEN Chem Unit 6-12 Review

Total questions: 154

Worksheet time: 3hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
__NaClO3 --> __NaCl + __O2
a)
2,2,2
b)
2,2,3
c)
3,2,2
d)
1,2,3
2.

How many Oxygen atoms do I have in the following compound?

2(NH4)3PO42\left(NH_4\right)_3PO_4  

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

24

3.
Matter can not be created nor destroyed: it can only be
a)
Destroyed a little bit
b)
Invisible
c)
Transformed, rearrenged
d)
None of the above
4.
Two Reactants and One Product
a)
Decomposition
b)
Synthesis
c)
Combustion
d)
Single Replacement
5.
One reactant into several products.
a)
Decomposition
b)
Synthesis
c)
Combustion
d)
Single Replacement
6.

In a ___________change, a substance changes into a different substance.

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

7.
The reactants are on the left side of the chemical equation.
a)
True
b)
False
8.

What are products?

a)

The chemicals that start the reaction.

b)

The chemicals that the reaction produced.

c)

The chemicals that are on the left side of the arrow.

9.

The products are on the right side of the chemical equation.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Identify the reaction type:

C2H6 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O

a)

Double replacement

b)

Synthesis

c)

Acid base

d)

Combustion

11.

Identify the type of reaction:

ZnCl2 + Mg --> Zn + MgCl2

a)

Precipitate

b)

Single Replacement

c)

Double Replacement

d)

Decomposition

12.

Identify the reaction type:

NaCl + KOH --> KCl + NaOH

a)

Double replacement

b)

Combustion

c)

Synthesis

d)

Decomposition

13.

Identify the reaction type:

H2O2 --> H2O + O2

a)

Decomposition

b)

Synthesis

c)

Combustion

d)

Acid Base

14.
2 Na + Cl₂ →       2 NaCl
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Synthesis
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Decomposition
15.

C7H14 + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O

a)

Decomposition

b)

Single Replacement

c)

Double Replacement

d)

Combustion

e)

Neutralization

16.
2Na +S → Na2S
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Decomposition
c)
Combustion
d)
Synthesis
17.
BaCl2 + Na2SO4 →  BaSO4 + 2NaCl
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Neutralization
c)
Decomposition
d)
Single Replacement
18.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign of a chemical reaction?

a)

Formation of a precipitate

b)

Melting of ice

c)

Production of light

d)

Change in temperature

19.

What does it mean if a substance is described as 'aqueous' in a chemical equation?

a)

It is a solid.

b)

It is dissolved in water.

c)

It is a gas.

d)

It is a liquid other than water.

20.

Which of the following symbols represents an aqueous solution in a chemical equation?

a)

(g)

b)

(s)

c)

(aq)

d)

(l)

21.

What does Boyle's Law state about the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas at constant temperature?

a)

Pressure and volume are directly proportional

b)

Pressure and volume are inversely proportional

c)

Pressure and volume are unrelated

d)

Pressure and volume both increase together

22.

Which temperature scale is used in gas law calculations?

a)

Celsius

b)

Fahrenheit

c)

Kelvin

d)

Rankine

23.

According to Charles's Law, what happens to the volume of a gas when its temperature increases at constant pressure?

a)

Volume decreases

b)

Volume remains the same

c)

Volume increases

d)

Volume becomes zero

24.

Gay-Lussac's Law relates which two properties of a gas?

a)

Pressure and volume

b)

Volume and temperature

c)

Pressure and temperature

d)

Volume and mass

25.

What is the lowest possible temperature on the Kelvin scale called?

a)

Zero Celsius

b)

Absolute zero

c)

Freezing point

d)

Boiling point

26.

Which statement best describes the kinetic molecular theory?

a)

All matter is made of atoms

b)

Gas particles are in constant, random motion

c)

Liquids have a definite shape

d)

Solids expand when heated

27.

If the pressure of a gas is doubled at constant temperature, what happens to its volume according to Boyle's Law?

a)

Volume doubles

b)

Volume halves

c)

Volume stays the same

d)

Volume increases by four times

28.

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the kinetic molecular theory?

a)

Gas particles have negligible volume

b)

Gas particles attract each other strongly

c)

Gas particles move in straight lines until they collide

d)

Collisions between gas particles are elastic

29.

Convert 25°C to Kelvin.

a)

248 K

b)

273 K

c)

298 K

d)

325 K

30.

Which Gas Law has pressure remaining constant?

a)

Charles Law

b)

Boyles Law

c)

Gay-Lussacs Law

31.

Which Gas Law has temperature remaining constant?

a)

Charles Law

b)

Boyles Law

c)

Gay-Lussacs Law

32.

Which Gas Law has volume remaining constant?

a)

Charles Law

b)

Boyles Law

c)

Gay-Lussacs Law

33.

Which of the following is a unit for pressure?

a)

L

b)

cm^3

c)

Pa

d)

mL

34.

Which unit can be used for volume?

a)

atm

b)

psi

c)

Pa

d)

dm^3

35.

How does elevation impact boiling point?

a)

As elevation decreases, the boiling point increase

b)

As elevation increases, the boiling point increase

c)

Elevation does not impact boiling point

36.

What is the mathematical expression for the ideal gas law?

a)

PV = nRT

b)

V = nRT/P

c)

PV = RT/n

d)

P = nRT/V

37.

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the ideal gas law?

a)

Gas particles lose energy during collisions

b)

Gas particles move in random, straight-line motion

c)

There are no intermolecular forces between gas particles

d)

Gas particles have negligible volume

38.

If the temperature of an ideal gas is doubled while keeping pressure constant, what happens to its volume?

a)

It remains the same

b)

It doubles

c)

It becomes zero

d)

It halves

39.

Which of the following is a common unit for the amount of gas in gas law calculations?

a)

L

b)

Pa

c)

mol

d)

kg

40.

What is the SI unit for temperature used in the ideal gas law?

a)

Celsius

b)

Kelvin

c)

Fahrenheit

d)

Rankine

41.

Which of the following units is NOT typically used for pressure in gas law equations?

a)

mmHg

b)

Pa

c)

atm

d)

cm

42.

The data table below shows that as the pressure of a gas sample was changed, the volume of the gas changed. The pressure was measured in atmospheres (atm) and the volume was measured in milliliters (mL).


According to the data table, as the pressure of the gas increases, the volume of the gas:

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remains the same

43.

A sample of gas 2.5 L of a gas at 36°C has a pressure of 2.97 atm. How many moles are in this sample?

a)

0.29 mol

b)

3.42 mol

c)

2.51 mol

44.
Whose law states that as pressure goes up, volume goes down?
a)
Charles 
b)
Boyle
c)
Aglow
d)
Mazias 
45.
A balloon will pop in the atmosphere because..
a)
Pressure goes down volume goes up
b)
Pressure goes up volume goes down
c)
temperature goes down volume goes up
d)
volume goes down temperature goes down
46.
When the temperature is constant (k) inside a balloon, if you add pressure on it, the volume will ..... 
a)
Decrease
b)
Increase
c)
Not Change at all
d)
Particles will solidify 
47.

What is the relationship between temperature and volume?

a)

related: if one goes up, the other goes up

b)

inversely related: if one goes up, the other goes down

48.

What creates pressure?

a)

gas molecules spinning

b)

gas molecules colliding with container walls

c)

potential energy

d)

electrons

49.

According to Boyle's law, when the pressure of a gas increases at a constant temperature, its volume

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

decreases, then increases

50.

If volume increases, the pressure __________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

51.
Oil molecules are nonpolar. What kind of solvent is required to remove an oil stain?
a)
saturated
b)
unsaturated
c)
polar
d)
nonpolar
52.

Which of the following is NOT a solution?

a)

the air you breathe

b)

carbonated soda

c)

nail polish mixed with acetone

d)

milk

53.
An electrolyte is...
a)
The rapid, random movement of particles in colloidal dispersion.
b)
A substance that dissolves in water and conducts electric current.
c)
A substance that dissolves in water and does not conduct electric current.
d)
The solution process when water is the solvent.
54.
The ___ is the thing being dissolved.
a)
solute
b)
solvent
c)
mixture
d)
suspension
55.

You and your friend have a contest to see who can make sweet iced tea the fastest. Which of the following would NOT help you win?

a)

Cooling the water

b)

Using smaller sugar crystals

c)

Heating the water

d)

Stirring quickly

56.
amount of solute that can dissolve in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature
a)
saturated solution
b)
solubility
c)
pure substance
d)
colloid
57.
A dissolved solute that does not form ions is:
a)
a nonelectrolyte
b)
a weak electrolyte
c)
a strong electrolyte
d)
insoluble
58.
What is the most common solvent in everyday life?
a)
Ethanol
b)
Tuluene
c)
Water
d)
Oils
59.

How does temperature affect solubility for solids?

a)
Solubility is not affected by temperature.
b)
Solubility decreases with an increase in temperature.
c)
Solubility increases with an increase in temperature.
60.

Define a saturated solution

a)

A solution that can still dissolve additional solute under the same conditions

b)

A solution in which no more solute dissolves at the given conditions

c)

A solution that is unstable and forms crystals when disturbed

d)

A solution that contains no solute particles at all

61.

Which BEST defines a supersaturated solution?

a)

A solution contains less dissolved solute than a saturated solution because crystals form.

b)

A solution contains more dissolved solute than a saturated solution and is unstable to crystallization.

c)

A solution has the same amount of dissolved solute as a saturated solution but appears darker in color.

d)

A solution has no dissolved solute because all of it precipitates immediately.

62.

Which example represents a homogeneous mixture?

a)

Granite

b)

Blood

c)

Air

d)

Gold

63.

A student has a sample with uniform composition throughout that can be separated by physical means. How should it be categorized?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Heterogeneous mixture

d)

Homogeneous mixture

64.

Which statement best defines a solute in a solution?

a)

The dissolved substance in a solution

b)

The liquid that does the dissolving

c)

A mixture of two liquids that do not mix

d)

The solid that cannot dissolve in any solvent

65.

In salt water, which component is the solvent?

a)

Salt

b)

Water

c)

Sugar

d)

Carbon dioxide

66.

Which pair correctly matches a common solute with the solution it is found in, based on the examples?

a)

Sugar in salt water

b)

Carbon dioxide in soda drinks

c)

Water in table sugar

d)

Salt in pure water with no additives

67.

According to the like-dissolves-like rule, which solute would most likely dissolve best in a nonpolar solvent such as hexane?

a)

Inorganic salts

b)

Sugars

c)

Fats

d)

Acetic acid

68.

Which combination shows a polar or ionic solute with a polar solvent where high solubility is expected?

a)

Waxes in toluene

b)

Inorganic salts in water

c)

Steroids in benzene

d)

Fats in hexane

69.

A student wants to dissolve a sample of wax. Which solvent from the list would be the most suitable choice using the like-dissolves-like principle?

a)

Water

b)

Small alcohols

c)

Benzene

d)

Acetic acid

70.

Which statement best describes how temperature affects the solubility of most solid solutes in water?

a)

Solubility of most solids increases as temperature increases.

b)

Solubility of most solids decreases as temperature increases.

c)

Solubility of most solids is unaffected by temperature.

d)

Solubility of most solids increases only when pressure increases.

71.

According to solubility trends for gases, which condition increases the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid?

a)

Higher temperature and lower pressure

b)

Higher temperature and higher pressure

c)

Lower temperature and higher pressure

d)

Lower temperature and lower pressure

72.

A student wants to dissolve a solid solute more quickly. Which combination would most effectively increase the rate of dissolving based on the trends?

a)

Heat the solution, stir it, and grind the solid into smaller particles.

b)

Cool the solution, avoid stirring, and use large chunks of solid.

c)

Increase pressure above the solution while keeping the solid pieces large.

d)

Only increase the pressure above the solution without changing temperature.

73.

According to the definitions provided, which statement best describes an electrolyte?

a)

A substance whose aqueous solution does not conduct an electric current

b)

A substance that conducts electricity only in the solid state

c)

A substance whose aqueous solution conducts an electric current

d)

A substance that conducts electricity only when dry

74.

Which statement best describes a nonelectrolyte?

a)

A substance that ionizes completely in water

b)

A substance whose aqueous solution does not conduct an electric current

c)

A substance that conducts electricity in molten form only

d)

A substance that dissociates into ions in any solvent

75.

Tap water is more likely to be classified as which of the following based on its ability to conduct electricity?

a)

Electrolyte, because dissolved ions in water allow current to flow

b)

Nonelectrolyte, because water molecules cannot form ions

c)

Nonelectrolyte, because it is a pure covalent compound

d)

Electrolyte, because only pure water conducts electricity well

76.

Pure water has very few ions present. Based on the definitions, how should pure water be classified for conductivity?

a)

Electrolyte, because it produces many ions

b)

Nonelectrolyte, because its aqueous solution does not effectively conduct current

c)

Electrolyte, because any liquid is conductive

d)

Nonelectrolyte, because it is always an acid

77.

Which of the following is a colligative property?

a)

Electrolytic conductivity

b)

Boiling point elevation

c)

Heat of fusion

d)

Surface tension increase

78.

According to the explanation of freezing point depression, what role do solute particles play in a solution?

a)

They strengthen the attractive forces among solvent particles, allowing earlier freezing

b)

They provide nucleation sites that speed up crystallization at the normal freezing point

c)

They interfere with attractive forces among solvent particles, preventing freezing at the normal point

d)

They evaporate first, lowering the vapor pressure to zero at the freezing point

79.

The lesson states that when a solution contains a nonvolatile solute, additional kinetic energy is needed to boil. What is the direct consequence described?

a)

The boiling point of the solution is lower than that of the pure solvent

b)

The boiling point of the solution is higher than that of the pure solvent

c)

The solution cannot reach atmospheric pressure

d)

The solvent molecules stop colliding with each other

80.

A student dissolves a nonvolatile solute in water and observes that the solution freezes at a lower temperature and boils at a higher temperature than pure water. Based on the lesson, which reasoning best explains these observations?

a)

Solute particles enhance solvent attractions, raising both freezing and boiling points equally

b)

Solute particles interfere with solvent attractions, lowering the freezing point; more kinetic energy is required to reach atmospheric vapor pressure, raising the boiling point

c)

The identity of the solute determines both freezing and boiling changes, independent of concentration

d)

Water molecules leave the solution more easily, so both freezing and boiling points decrease

81.

What is the definition of energy in chemistry?

a)

The ability to do work or produce heat

b)

The amount of matter in a substance

c)

The temperature of a system

d)

The color of a chemical compound

82.

Which of the following best defines heat?

a)

The transfer of energy due to a temperature difference

b)

The total mass of a substance

c)

The amount of light emitted by a substance

d)

The density of a material

83.

What is the SI unit for energy?

a)

Joule (J)

b)

Calorie (cal)

c)

Watt (W)

d)

Kelvin (K)

84.

Which of the following is the correct unit for specific heat in the formula q=mcΔTq = mc\Delta T ?

a)

J/g∘C\mathrm{J/g^\circ C}

b)

g/J∘C\mathrm{g/J^\circ C}

c)

J/g\mathrm{J/g}

d)

g∘C/J\mathrm{g^\circ C/J}

85.

What does an exothermic reaction do?

a)

Releases heat to the surroundings

b)

Absorbs heat from the surroundings

c)

Does not involve heat

d)

Changes color

86.

Which statement best describes an endothermic process?

a)

A process that absorbs heat from the surroundings

b)

A process that releases light

c)

A process that releases heat to the surroundings

d)

A process that increases pressure

87.

What is the definition of specific heat?

a)

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1∘1^\circ C

b)

The total heat content of a system

c)

The energy needed to break a chemical bond

d)

The heat required to change a solid to a liquid

88.

If a reaction absorbs heat, what type of reaction is it?

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

c)

Isothermal

d)

Adiabatic

89.

If a chemical reaction causes the surroundings to feel colder, what can you infer about the reaction?

a)

It is endothermic

b)

It is exothermic

c)

It does not involve energy change

d)

It is a physical change

90.

Which scenario is an example of an exothermic process?

a)

Burning wood in a fireplace

b)

Melting ice in a glass

c)

Evaporating alcohol from skin

d)

Photosynthesis in plants

91.

A reaction in a beaker causes the temperature of the solution to drop. Using evidence, what type of reaction is this and why?

a)

Endothermic, because heat is absorbed from the surroundings

b)

Exothermic, because heat is released to the surroundings

c)

Endothermic, because heat is released to the surroundings

d)

Exothermic, because heat is absorbed from the surroundings

92.

A student mixes two chemicals and observes that the container becomes warm. Using reasoning, what can be concluded about the reaction?

a)

The reaction is exothermic, as it releases heat to the surroundings

b)

The reaction is endothermic, as it absorbs heat from the surroundings

c)

The reaction does not involve energy change

d)

The reaction is physical, not chemical

93.

Match the units to the correct variables:

a)

Q/q

1.

J (joules)

b)

m

2.

g (grams)

c)

c

3.

J/g*C

d)

delta T

4.

*C

94.

Match the following variables to their names:

a)

Q/q

1.

heat/energy

b)

m

2.

mass

c)

c

3.

specific heat

d)

delta T

4.

temperature change

95.

Which of the following best describes potential energy?

a)

Energy released as heat

b)

Energy of motion

c)

Energy used to change temperature

d)

Energy stored due to an object's position or arrangement

96.

A ball is held at the top of a hill and then released. What happens to its energy as it rolls down?

a)

Energy is destroyed

b)

Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy

c)

Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy

d)

Both potential and kinetic energy remain constant

97.

Which scenario is an example of kinetic energy?

a)

A moving car on a highway

b)

A stretched rubber band held in place

c)

A book on a shelf

d)

A battery sitting on a table

98.

Which of the following best defines enthalpy?

a)

The total heat content of a system at constant pressure

b)

The amount of work done by a system

c)

The energy required to break a chemical bond

d)

The temperature change during a reaction

99.

What is the symbol commonly used to represent enthalpy in thermochemistry?

a)

G

b)

Q

c)

S

d)

H

100.

During an exothermic reaction at constant pressure, what happens to the enthalpy of the system?

a)

It fluctuates randomly

b)

It remains unchanged

c)

It decreases

d)

It increases

101.

Which of the following best describes the function of a calorimeter?

a)

It measures the amount of heat absorbed or released during a chemical or physical process

b)

It measures the mass of a substance

c)

It determines the color change in a reaction

d)

It calculates the pressure of a gas

102.

What is the main purpose of using a bomb calorimeter in experiments?

a)

To measure the temperature of boiling water

b)

To observe color changes in chemical reactions

c)

To measure the heat of combustion reactions at constant volume

d)

To determine the density of a liquid

103.

When using a coffee cup calorimeter, which variable is typically kept constant?

a)

Concentration

b)

Mass

c)

Volume

d)

Pressure

104.

Which of the following best describes a calorie?

a)

A unit of temperature

b)

A unit of pressure

c)

A unit of mass

d)

A unit of energy

105.

How many joules are equivalent to one calorie?

a)

1.00 J

b)

4.18 J

c)

0.24 J

d)

10.00 J

106.

Which of the following statements correctly describes specific heat in chemistry?

a)

It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance by 1°C

b)

It is the total energy stored in a substance

c)

It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°C

d)

It is the energy needed to change a solid to a liquid

107.

In the formula q=mcΔTq = mc\Delta T , what does the variable 'c' represent?

a)

Amount of heat absorbed or released

b)

Mass of the substance

c)

Change in temperature

d)

Specific heat of the substance

108.

Which of the following best defines heat in chemistry?

a)

The amount of matter in a system

b)

The total energy stored in a substance

c)

The transfer of energy between objects due to a temperature difference

d)

The energy required to break a chemical bond

109.

What is the main difference between heat and temperature in chemistry?

a)

Temperature is a form of energy transfer, while heat measures the average kinetic energy

b)

Heat is a form of energy transfer, while temperature measures the average kinetic energy of particles

c)

Heat is the same as temperature

d)

Heat is measured in degrees Celsius, while temperature is measured in joules

110.

In chemistry, how does heat flow between two objects at different temperatures?

a)

Heat flows equally in both directions

b)

Heat does not flow between objects

c)

From the object at lower temperature to the object at higher temperature

d)

From the object at higher temperature to the object at lower temperature

111.

Which of the following best defines the heat of fusion?

a)

The amount of heat needed to vaporize a liquid at its boiling point

b)

The amount of heat released when a gas condenses into a liquid

c)

The amount of heat required to change a solid into a liquid at its melting point without changing temperature

d)

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°C

112.

During the process of melting, the heat absorbed by a substance at its melting point is called:

a)

Heat of vaporization

b)

Specific heat

c)

Heat of combustion

d)

Heat of fusion

113.

Which of the following best describes chemical potential energy?

a)

Energy released as heat during a reaction

b)

Energy due to the motion of particles

c)

Energy stored in the bonds of chemical compounds

d)

Energy required to change the temperature of a substance

114.

What happens to the chemical potential energy during an exothermic reaction?

a)

It increases

b)

It is converted to kinetic energy

c)

It is released as heat to the surroundings

d)

It remains unchanged

115.

Which of the following best defines Hess's Law?

a)

The enthalpy change is determined by the temperature of the surroundings

b)

The enthalpy change is always positive

c)

The enthalpy change depends on the rate of reaction

d)

The total enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the pathway taken

116.

According to Hess's Law, how can the enthalpy change of a reaction be determined?

a)

By counting the number of reactant molecules

b)

By measuring the temperature change only

c)

By observing the color change during the reaction

d)

By adding the enthalpy changes of individual steps that lead to the overall reaction

117.

Which statement correctly describes the principle behind Hess's Law?

a)

The enthalpy change increases with the concentration of reactants

b)

The enthalpy change is always zero for any reaction

c)

The enthalpy change depends on the physical state of the reactants only

d)

The enthalpy change for a chemical reaction is the same, no matter how many steps the reaction is carried out in

118.

Which statement best describes the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy only exists in living organisms

b)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another

c)

Energy is always lost as heat in every process

d)

Energy can be created and destroyed in chemical reactions

119.

Which of the following best defines the heat of combustion?

a)

The amount of heat required to melt a solid at its melting point

b)

The amount of heat released when one mole of a substance is burned completely in oxygen

c)

The amount of heat absorbed during evaporation

d)

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°C

120.

What is typically measured when determining the heat of combustion of a substance?

a)

The temperature change of the surroundings

b)

The mass of the reactants

c)

The pressure of the system

d)

The color change during the reaction

121.

Which of the following best defines the heat of vaporization?

a)

The amount of heat released when a gas condenses into a liquid

b)

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°C

c)

The amount of heat required to melt one mole of a solid at its melting point

d)

The amount of heat required to convert one mole of a liquid into vapor at its boiling point

122.

During which phase change is the heat of vaporization absorbed?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Freezing

c)

Condensation

d)

Melting

123.
Explain what happens when a strong acid and a strong base are poured into the same container.
a)
they form separate layers
b)
they mix physically but not chemically
c)
they break apart into separate elements
d)
they react chemically to form a salt
124.
When dissolved in water, bases produce:
a)
acids
b)
salts
c)
hydrogen ions
d)
hydroxide ions
125.
Which of these solutions is an acid?
a)
Dish Soap: pH of 12
b)
Tomato Soup: pH of 4
c)
Baking Soda: pH of 9
d)
Drain Cleaner: pH of 14
126.
The pH of vinegar is 2.5.  Vinegar is a _____________.
a)
strong acid
b)
strong base
c)
weak base
d)
weak acid
127.
What is the pH of water?
a)
0
b)
4
c)
7
d)
14
128.

Litmus paper can be used to determine the _______ of a substance

a)

relative volume

b)

relative pH

c)

temperature

d)

chemical formula

129.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Blue litmus paper turns red when placed in a base.

b)

Red litmus paper turns blue when placed in a base.

c)

Blue litmus paper stays blue when placed in an acid.

d)

Red litmus paper stays red when placed in a base.

130.

Human blood has a pH between 7.35 and 7.45. Which of the following best describes human blood?

a)

strongly acidic

b)

slightly acidic

c)

strongly basic

d)

slightly basic

131.

Many cleaning solutions are bases. Which of the following is a property of most bases?

a)

feels slippery

b)

white color

c)

can only be liquid

d)

tastes sour

132.

A pH level of 7 indicates

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

neutral

d)

non of the following

133.

The pH scale is a range from:

a)

1-7

b)

1-5

c)

0-14

d)

1-14

134.

Which property is not associated with acids?

a)

Sour taste

b)

strong acids can burn you

c)

turns litmus paper blue

d)

reacts with metals

135.

You test a solution with pH paper, and the paper turns blue. The solution is ______.

a)

neutral

b)

an acid

c)

a base

d)

an acid & a base

136.
Tastes Sour
a)
Acids
b)
Bases
c)
Salts
d)
All
137.

True or false: bases are sometimes called alkaline.

a)

True

b)

False

138.

True or false: a neutral solution has equal amounts of H+ and OH-.

a)

True

b)

False

139.

Is the following compound an acid or a base?


HCl

a)

Acid

b)

Base

140.

Which of the following is the strongest acid?

a)

oven cleaner - 13.5

b)

lemon juice - 2.5

c)

soap - 10

d)

blood - 7.4

141.

Which of the following is the strongest base?

a)

soap - 10

b)

HCL - 0

c)

blood - 7.45

d)

soft drink - 3

142.

What does pH measure?

a)

the amount of hydrogen (H+) ions

b)

the amount of hydroxide (OH-) ions

c)

amount of water

d)

all of the above

143.
The following graph shows two different reaction pathways for the same overall reaction at the same temperature. Which pathway is slower and why?
a)
Red, because the activation energy is larger
b)
Blue, because the activation energy is lower
c)
both reaction progress at the same rate
144.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it increases the frequency of particle collisions

145.

Why does a higher temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

a)

it increases both the frequency and energy of particle collisions

b)

it only increases the frequency of particle collisions

c)

it only increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it reduces the activation energy of the reaction

146.
What makes an effective collision?
a)
When molecules collide.
b)
When molecules collide with the proper orientation.
c)
When molecules collide with proper orientation and enough kinetic energy.
d)
High Temperature.
147.

The minimum amount of energy needed for colliding particles to react is called

a)

Chemical Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Activation Energy

d)

Potential Energy

148.
What type of reaction is this?
a)
Endothermic
b)
Exothermic
149.
What letter represents the activation energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
150.
This symbol indicates that a reaction is ____________
a)
reversible
b)
irreversible
151.

What are the two factors to look for when determining if the reaction is at equilibrium?

a)

Forward reaction rate is faster than the reverse and concentrations are equal

b)

Forward and reverse reaction rates are equal and concentration is constant

c)

Forward and revers reaction rates are equal and concentration is equal

d)

Forward reaction rate is faster than the reverse and concentration is equal

152.

Identify the incorrect statement about achieving equilibrium.

a)

achieved when product and reactant concentrations are equal

b)

achieved when forward and reverse reaction rates are same

c)

achieved when concentration of reactants is stable/constant

d)

achieved when concentration ratio of reactants to products becomes stable, thus fixing the equilibrium constant (equilibrium position)

153.
How do catalysts increase the rate of reaction?
a)
The frequency of collisions is the increased
b)
the activation energy is lowered
c)
the energy of collisions is increased
d)
Both the frequency and energy of collisions is increased
154.
At what time the reaction reached equilibrium?
a)
t1
b)
t2
c)
t3
d)
t4

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