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Appendix C: Chapter Exams — Chapters 1–2

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What types of tasks do patient care technicians commonly perform in inpatient care settings?

a)

Diagnostic and screening tasks

b)

Delegated care tasks

c)

Assessment and treatment tasks

d)

Triage and management tasks

2.

Which of the following is a task that may be assigned to PCTs?

a)

Minor laceration repair

b)

Administering medications

c)

Drawing blood for testing

d)

Explaining the patient's diagnosis

3.

If a PCT works for a heart care hospital, which of the following tasks might he perform often?

a)

Conducting EKGs

b)

Interpreting EKGs

c)

Cardiac catheterization

d)

Treating patients who become unresponsive

4.

Which other healthcare workers do many of the same tasks PCTs perform?

a)

Physical therapists and speech therapists

b)

X-ray technicians and respiratory technicians

c)

Nursing assistants and medical assistants

d)

Pharmacy technicians and medication aides

5.

Which of the following is true of PCTs and home health care?

a)

PCTs who work in home care may do housekeeping tasks in addition to caring for clients.

b)

PCTs are never hired to do home care.

c)

PCTs who work in home care often give injections.

d)

PCTs who work in home care must be licensed.

6.

A PCT notices that a patient is having a hard time gripping utensils during meals. Which care team member could help?

a)

Occupational therapist

b)

Physical therapist

c)

Medical social worker

d)

Speech-language pathologist

7.

If a PCT has a concern about another employee, how should she address it?

a)

By posting on social media

b)

By telling other PCTs and asking if they agree

c)

By using the facility's chain of command

d)

By making an anonymous complaint to the director of nursing

8.

What is the term for the responsibilities that are within the knowledge, training, and legal definition of a profession?

a)

Job description

b)

Scope of practice

c)

Chain of command

d)

Delegation limits

9.

PCT Jonah forgets to identify Mrs. Contreras and check the meal card before helping her eat dinner. He realizes after she eats that he gave her the wrong meal. He reports his mistake immediately. Which characteristic of professionalism does this show best?

a)

Organization

b)

Honesty

c)

Compassion

d)

Patience

10.

Which of the following is true of dressing in a clean, wrinkle-free uniform?

a)

It is important and a sign of professionalism.

b)

It is not necessary as long as a PCT performs their job properly.

c)

It is not necessary because most employers do not care about appearance.

d)

It is an outdated standard that can be ignored.

11.

What are 2 common requirements for PCT certification?

a)

Recommendation from a healthcare professional and a job offer at a hospital

b)

A letter stating the person's reasons for becoming a PCT and recommendation from an instructor

c)

Completion of a PCT course and a letter of recommendation from a hospital administrator

d)

Completion of a PCT course and passing a test given by the certification agency

12.

In some cases, __________ is accepted for PCT certification in place of a training course.

a)

Passing an extra test

b)

Recommendation from a provider

c)

On-the-job training

d)

An independent research project

13.

If ethics tell people what they __________ do, laws tell them what they __________ do.

a)

Want to; need to

b)

Should; must

c)

Could; would like to

d)

Cannot; must not

14.

Which of the following is considered unethical?

a)

Asking a patient's son for his phone number when the patient is discharged

b)

Telling a patient you were happy to have met and cared for her

c)

Asking a patient if she would like her family members to stay in the room or go to a waiting area during a care procedure

d)

Telling a patient that you are very happy about the improvements you have seen to her health during her hospital stay

15.

What document replaced the American Hospital Association's Statement on a Patient's Bill of Rights?

a)

The Dying Person's Bill of Rights

b)

The Hippocratic Oath

c)

The Patient Care Partnership

d)

The Affordable Care Act

16.

Before a patient participates in a medical research study, a provider must

a)

Give a detailed explanation of the study and tell the patient about possible risks

b)

Ask if the patient wants to know what the risks may be

c)

Arrange for the patient to talk to the researchers who are running the study

d)

Make sure the patient does not know about any risks involved

17.

The Patient Self-Determination Act requires medical facilities to inform patients about

a)

Organ donation

b)

Genetic testing

c)

Insurance choices

d)

Advance directives

18.

A patient being treated in the emergency department collapses. He is not breathing and has no pulse. The patient has a DNR order in his chart. Which of the following is true?

a)

Any trained healthcare worker must start CPR right away.

b)

CPR should not be performed.

c)

Only a provider can start CPR.

d)

Only an emergency medical technician can start CPR.

19.

A patient assigned male at birth uses the name Ms. Jones and uses she/her pronouns. A PCT must

a)

Use the patient's preferred name/pronouns if it does not conflict with the PCT's personal beliefs

b)

Try to remember to use the patient's preferred name/pronouns

c)

Apologize to the patient if the PCT does not want to use the preferred name/pronouns

d)

Use the patient's preferred name/pronouns

20.

What is one way a PCT can promote patient rights during care?

a)

By performing care quickly so the patient can be left alone

b)

By telling the patient stories about other patients during care so he feels less isolated

c)

By letting the patient make as many choices as possible about how care is performed

d)

By making all decisions for the patient so as not to cause stress

21.

How does HIPAA protect patient rights?

a)

By making sure patients are only treated by qualified providers

b)

By protecting choices about what care to receive

c)

By requiring healthcare workers to report abuse

d)

By keeping health information private and secure

22.

A local news anchor is being treated at the hospital where Juan works as a PCT. He tells his friends that he is caring for the news anchor and even drew her blood. Which of the following is true?

a)

What Juan did was illegal and unethical.

b)

What Juan did was not illegal, but it was unethical.

c)

What Juan did was not illegal or unethical because the news anchor is a public figure.

d)

What Juan did was not illegal or unethical because the news anchor signed a form consenting to treatment.

23.

Which law requires that hospitals provide necessary emergency treatment for patients even if they cannot pay?

a)

EMTALA

b)

HIPAA

c)

CLIA

d)

ADA

24.

Violations of civil law are called

a)

Crimes

b)

Torts

c)

Infractions

d)

Penalties

25.

A PCT who does not wash hands before providing care may be considered guilty of

a)

Abuse

b)

Assault

c)

Negligence

d)

Neglect

26.

A child is brought to the emergency department of a hospital by her aunt. Her parents are on a cruise and cannot be contacted. What legal concept allows the child to be treated?

a)

Advance directives

b)

Express consent

c)

Informed consent

d)

Implied consent

27.

A PCT is drawing blood from a child who is very frightened and keeps pulling his arm away. The PCT says, “Stop it!” and grips the child’s arm very tightly. This behavior

a)

Is sometimes necessary

b)

Should have been left to the parents

c)

Can only be done by a nurse or provider

d)

Is abusive

28.

After using the facility’s chain of command to report physical abuse of patients by a nurse, a PCT sees that nothing has been done to change the situation. The PCT reports the abuse to law enforcement. What type of law protects the PCT from being fired or treated badly as a result of this report?

a)

Good Samaritan laws

b)

Patient protection laws

c)

Whistleblower laws

d)

Chain of command laws

29.

Suspected abuse of a patient must be reported

a)

If a patient is seriously hurt

b)

If the abuse seems to be ongoing

c)

Immediately

d)

Only if the patient consents to the report

30.

What is the purpose of an incident report?

a)

To help prevent future incidents and improve quality of care and patient safety

b)

To find out who is to blame for the incident and punish the person appropriately

c)

To hide the details of the incident from legal authorities

d)

To guarantee the facility will not be considered liable for any injuries

31.

A PCT is injured on the job. What type of report may be made in addition to the facility’s incident report?

a)

A report to the city or county health department

b)

A report to the state board of medical licensing

c)

A report to the PCT’s certifying agency

d)

A federal report

32.

What should not be discussed in an incident report?

a)

A factual account of the event

b)

Details of response to the event

c)

Blame or liability for the event

d)

The person’s reaction to the event

33.

Choose the correct answer. Why are a PCT’s communication skills important to the quality of patient care?

a)

Because patients will tell others positive things about the facility if a PCT is pleasant to talk to

b)

Because PCTs communicate observations and concerns about patients to the nurse

c)

Because nurses and providers do not have the time to talk to patients themselves

d)

Because good communication gives the PCT information they need to make a diagnosis

34.

Choose the correct answer. In the communication process, what step comes after receiving a message?

a)

Sending a message

b)

Providing feedback

c)

Forming an argument

d)

Repeating the message

35.

Choose the correct answer. During a blood draw, a patient winces when the needle is inserted and then bites her lip. The PCT asks if she is in pain and the patient says she is not. What might make the PCT think the patient is not telling the truth?

a)

The patient’s nonverbal communication

b)

The patient’s verbal communication

c)

The PCT’s nonverbal communication

d)

The PCT’s verbal communication

36.

Choose the correct answer. What would be the most professional way for the PCT to clarify the situation described in question #3?

a)

“I think you’re lying to me. It hurts, doesn’t it?”

b)

“That’s kind of sus. It looks like you’re hurting.”

c)

“Do I trust your words or your face?”

d)

“It’s OK to tell me if it hurts. It looks like you might be in pain.”

37.

Choose the correct answer. Keaton works as a PCT at a facility that uses an online medical interpretation service. Mrs. Qian is a new patient who is a native speaker of Mandarin Chinese. Every time Keaton asks her a question, she pauses and then nods and says, “Yes.” Keaton is not sure she understands. What should he do?

a)

Ask her if he should Google common words in Chinese

b)

Try to trick her into giving an incorrect answer so he can prove she does not understand

c)

Tell the nurse he would like to use the interpretation service

d)

Ask the nurse to assign a Chinese-speaking PCT to care for her instead of him

38.

Choose the correct answer. When PCT Johanna is helping patients who are obese with their meals, she suggests they eat their vegetables first and avoid carbohydrates. She removes desserts from their trays. She does not do this with other patients. Which of the following is true?

a)

Johanna’s actions help these patients by improving their habits.

b)

Johanna’s actions are not correct and may be based on bias; they may harm patients.

c)

Johanna’s actions are not correct but they are harmless.

d)

Johanna’s actions make no difference since she is not a provider.

39.

Choose the correct answer. A PCT who works at a children’s hospital will see less diversity in patient __________ than a PCT who works at a community hospital.

a)

Culture

b)

Income

c)

Education

d)

Age

40.

A PCT is caring for an elderly patient who has complained several times that a new medication is making her feel sleepy and confused. The PCT believes these feelings are not related to the medication and are normal for an older person. Which of the following is true?

a)

The PCT should look up the drug and see if these are possible side effects before deciding whether to report them.

b)

The PCT should report the patient’s complaints.

c)

The PCT should suggest that the patient tell the nurse.

d)

The PCT should ask the patient’s family members if they have noticed a difference in the patient.

41.

A patient tells the PCT caring for him that he is scared and sad because the doctor suggested hospice care. Which of the following is a valid aging response from the PCT?

a)

“Well, surely there are more cheerful things we could talk about!”

b)

“I wouldn’t worry yet. You should definitely get a second opinion.”

c)

“I’m sorry to hear that. It must be so hard.”

d)

“You’ll be fine. I promise.”

42.

A patient has been diagnosed with cancer. The PCT tells the patient and her family that her aunt beat cancer by cutting all sugar and other inflammation-causing foods from her diet. What can be said about the PCT’s comment?

a)

It is an example of effective therapeutic communication.

b)

It is an example of assertive communication.

c)

It is an example of giving advice, which is beyond scope for a PCT.

d)

It is an example of validation.

43.

June corrects another PCT in front of a patient and the nurse. Later on, that PCT tells June, “Don’t ever embarrass me like that again. If you do, you’d better watch out.” This is an example of

a)

Aggressive communication

b)

Assertive communication

c)

Passive communication

d)

Slander

44.

A patient is having intense pain. The nurse just gave her medication that should soon help. A PCT is giving the patient a bed bath and can tell the patient is hurting. Which of the following is an example of effective therapeutic communication by the PCT?

a)

“Maybe saying a little prayer would help.”

b)

“Would it help if I just stop and hold your hand for a minute? Or just sit with you?”

c)

“I know you’re a tough cookie. Hang in there, sweetie!”

d)

“Oh, it can’t be all that bad, can it?”

45.

Which of these is a statement of fact?

a)

“Mr. Oram is grumpy today.”

b)

“Mr. Oram is always mean to people.”

c)

“Mr. Oram hates the food here.”

d)

“Mr. Oram sent his lunch and dinner back.”

46.

Which of these is a statement of opinion?

a)

“Mrs. Reddy’s pulse was above normal last time it was measured.”

b)

“Mrs. Reddy is acting strangely.”

c)

“Mrs. Reddy has used her call light 5 times this afternoon.”

d)

“Mrs. Reddy fell getting out of bed.”

47.

A patient has a fever of 101°F. She is pale and her skin is damp. She reports having a headache. She also says she has been feeling lightheaded and feels pressure in her sinuses. Which of these are signs?

a)

Fever, headache, and sinus pressure

b)

Fever, pallor, and skin condition

c)

Pallor, skin condition, and lightheadedness

d)

Headache, lightheadedness, and sinus pressure

48.

In the situation described in question #15, which are symptoms?

a)

Fever, headache, and sinus pressure

b)

Fever, pallor, and skin condition

c)

Pallor, skin condition, and lightheadedness

d)

Headache, lightheadedness, and sinus pressure

49.

Which of the following would be the best way for a PCT to describe the situation in the last 2 questions to the nurse?

a)

“The patient has developed a nasty sinus infection.”

b)

“The patient has a fever of 101°F. Her skin is pale and damp. She reports headache, sinus pressure, and lightheadedness.”

c)

“The patient has a fever and is all clammy. She’s also been feeling weird.”

d)

“I think that patient needs antibiotics. She has a fever and a sinus headache.”

50.

Medical terms should be used when communicating with other healthcare workers because they make communication more

a)

Private

b)

Exclusive

c)

Precise

d)

Interesting

51.

The Joint Commission has a list of ______ that should not be used in facilities because they may be misunderstood.

a)

Expressions

b)

Abbreviations

c)

Languages

d)

Drug names

52.

Medical terms are often made up of

a)

Roots, prefixes, and suffixes

b)

Letters from a special alphabet

c)

Nouns and adjectives

d)

Words used only in a specific facility

53.

What should a PCT document after giving an oral report to a supervisor or coworker?

a)

The other person’s response

b)

The estimated time of the next oral report

c)

Whether or not the patient was present when the report was given

d)

When, why, about what, and to whom the report was given

54.

Which of the following is a common type of information shared during a shift change report?

a)

Whether a patient is in a good mood

b)

How much breakfast the patient ate

c)

Whether the patient has strict I&O measurements taken

d)

Who visits the patient most often

55.

Which of the following should be included in patient records?

a)

Incident reports involving the patient

b)

Records of family members who have also been admitted to the facility

c)

Consent forms, both general and for procedures/surgeries

d)

Notes detailing staff members’ honest opinions about the patient

56.

What is one HIPAA requirement for electronic health records?

a)

They must be organized chronologically.

b)

They must be accessible to patients on the internet.

c)

They must be printed and stored in paper form as a backup.

d)

They must have features that protect the confidentiality of patient information.

57.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer. Which of these is a physiological need?

a)

Safety and security

b)

Contact with others

c)

Comfort, especially freedom from pain

d)

Love and affection

58.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer. What types of needs does a PCT’s care usually help a patient to meet?

a)

Spiritual needs

b)

Self-actualization needs

c)

Safety and security needs

d)

Physiological needs

59.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer. While providing care, Lakeisha often talks to patients about things they are looking forward to doing after they are discharged from the hospital. She also asks them about books they are reading or TV shows they enjoy. This is an example of

a)

Holistic care

b)

Psychotherapy

c)

Encouraging independence

d)

Assisting with ADLs

60.

puber ty usually begin?

a)

School-age

b)

Preadolescence

c)

Adolescence

d)

Young adulthood

61.

Which developmental stage involves learning to play in groups?

a)

Infant

b)

Toddler

c)

Preschool

d)

School-age

62.

Developmental disabilities may be present at birth or emerge up to this age:

a)

5

b)

12

c)

18

d)

22

63.

Which of the following is a characteristic of mental health?

a)

Ability to adapt to change

b)

Ability to memorize facts

c)

Ability to sense danger

d)

Ability to speak clearly

64.

Mental health disorders are caused by

a)

Physical, environmental, hereditary, and situational factors (e.g., stress)

b)

Lack of coping skills

c)

Lack of willpower

d)

Inability or unwillingness to deal with life

65.

Anger, irritability, being easily startled, and difficulty sleeping are symptoms of

a)

Bipolar disorder

b)

Social anxiety disorder

c)

Posttraumatic stress disorder

d)

Schizophrenia

66.

Feeling that a routine must be performed repeatedly is a symptom of

a)

Generalized anxiety disorder

b)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Major depressive disorder

67.

How are most mental health disorders treated?

a)

With a combination of medication and psychotherapy

b)

With medication and temporary hospitalization

c)

With psychotherapy and physical exercise

d)

With training to increase positive thinking

68.

Which of the following is true of chemical dependency and addiction?

a)

They are the same as substance use disorder.

b)

They come from a lack of willpower.

c)

They are cured by telling the patient to stop using the substance.

d)

They may require diagnosis and care by specialists.

69.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer. Infection prevention is

a)

The way in which infections occur

b)

An infection that is prevented from traveling from one part of the body to another

c)

A set of methods used to prevent the spread of disease

d)

An object that has been prevented from being contaminated with pathogens

70.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer. The following are necessary links in the chain of infection. When a PCT wears gloves, which link is broken, thus preventing the spread of disease?

a)

Reservoir (place where the pathogen lives and grows)

b)

Mode of transmission (a way for the disease to spread)

c)

Susceptible host (person who is likely to get the disease)

d)

Causative agent (pathogenic microorganism that causes disease)

71.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer. The following are necessary links in the chain of infection. When a PCT is vaccinated against hepatitis B, which link will be affected and thus prevent hepatitis B infection?

a)

Reservoir (place where the pathogen lives and grows)

b)

Mode of transmission (a way for the disease to spread)

c)

Susceptible host (person who is likely to get the disease)

d)

Portal of entry (body opening that

72.

A PCT comes into contact with microorganisms

a)

Only in high-traffic areas of the facility

b)

Only during direct contact with patients

c)

Only when taking specimens of body fluids

d)

Every time the PCT touches something

73.

The single most important thing a PCT can do to prevent the spread of disease is to

a)

Carry dirty items close to her body so as not to spread contaminants

b)

Wash and dry her disposable gloves before reusing them

c)

Change gloves multiple times while caring for each patient

d)

Wash her hands

74.

With whom should a PCT use Standard Precautions?

a)

With patients who have infectious diseases

b)

With patients he suspects might have infectious diseases

c)

With every patient

d)

With patients who request that they be used

75.

Hand hygiene is

a)

Washing hands with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand sanitizer

b)

Washing hands with soap and water only

c)

Using alcohol-based hand sanitizer only

d)

Wearing gloves when performing care procedures

76.

When washing hands, a PCT should use friction for

a)

At least 25 seconds

b)

At least 20 seconds

c)

At least 15 seconds

d)

At least 5 seconds

77.

Which of the following is true of wearing gloves?

a)

Disposable gloves can be washed and reused.

b)

Gloves must be changed between patients.

c)

After giving care, gloves are not contaminated.

d)

Gloves can continue to be worn if they are torn as long as the hole is covered.

78.

Which of the following is the proper order to don PPE?

a)

Put on mask and goggles, gown, and gloves.

b)

Put on gloves, gown, and mask and goggles.

c)

Put on mask and goggles, gloves, and gown.

d)

Put on gown, mask and goggles, and gloves.

79.

Which of the following statements is true of disinfection?

a)

Disinfecting an item means that all pathogens on the item are destroyed.

b)

Disinfection is done with an autoclave.

c)

Disinfection kills some pathogens but does not destroy all of them.

d)

Disinfection can be accomplished with regular soap and water.

80.

What does surgical asepsis create?

a)

An area or object free of most harmful microorganisms

b)

An area or object free of pathogens, but not free of all microorganisms

c)

An area or object free of all microorganisms

d)

A surgical site with a clean incision

81.

Which of the following is true of Transmission-Based Precautions?

a)

A PCT does not need to practice Standard Precautions if he practices Transmission-Based Precautions.

b)

They are exactly the same as Standard Precautions.

c)

They are practiced in addition to Standard Precautions.

d)

They will not be mentioned in the facility so as not to alarm anyone.

82.

What is one way that bloodborne pathogens can be transmitted?

a)

By hugging an infected person

b)

By infected blood entering the bloodstream

c)

By standing too close to an infected person when he coughs

d)

By touching something an infected person has touched

83.

Which of the following statements is true of hepatitis B (HBV)?

a)

HBV is a relatively minor disease and poses no real threat to healthcare workers.

b)

The vaccine for HBV helps prevent the disease.

c)

More people in the US have HIV than have HBV.

d)

HBV causes some unpleasant symptoms but cannot cause death.

84.

The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires that

a)

Employers educate a select group of employees who will be in contact with patients with bloodborne diseases

b)

Employers provide hepatitis B vaccinations to employees at a reduced cost

c)

Employers keep one set of personal protective equipment on hand for employees to use

d)

Employers have an exposure control plan

85.

Which of the following is an example of engineering controls?

a)

A sharps container

b)

A facility policy designed to prevent needle sticks and other injuries

c)

An eyewash station

d)

A sliding sheath on a needle

86.

Tuberculosis is

a)

A bloodborne disease

b)

A sexually transmitted disease

c)

An airborne disease

d)

Completely eradicated (no longer exists)

87.

Conjunctivitis is spread

a)

By direct or indirect contact

b)

By droplets

c)

By airborne particles

d)

By spores

88.

Which of the following microorganisms cannot be killed by hand sanitizer and forms a spore that can contaminate surfaces?

a)

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

b)

SARS-CoV-2

c)

Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE)

d)

Clostridioides difficile (C. diff)

89.

Which of the following is a multidrug-resistant organism?

a)

MRSA

b)

Scabies

c)

Influenza

d)

COVID-19

90.

Patients with droplet-spread illnesses should

a)

Not enter a healthcare facility

b)

Wear masks

c)

Be seen in a special room that keeps contaminated air inside

d)

Be given a high dose of antibiotics

91.

How should the PCT handle disposable supplies used on a patient in isolation?

a)

The supplies should be sterilized in an autoclave before being used on another patient.

b)

The supplies should be sterilized in an autoclave before being discarded.

c)

The supplies should be destroyed by burning.

d)

The supplies should be discarded in the patient’s room.

92.

Which of the following is a PCT responsibility related to infection prevention?

a)

Deciding which patients need Transmission-Based Precautions

b)

Alerting visitors to nearby rooms if a patient has a communicable illness

c)

Following Standard Precautions in caring for all patients

d)

Capping used needles and other sharps before discarding them

93.

What must a PCT do after completing patient care, before going to the next patient’s room?

a)

Wash hands

b)

Put on a clean pair of gloves

c)

Change into a clean uniform

d)

Sterilize surfaces in the first patient’s room

94.

A PCT just removed bed linen that was soiled with a patient’s urine. Where should it be placed until the PCT is ready to leave

a)

In a labeled, leak-proof biohazard bag

b)

In a waterproof laundry bag placed inside the patient’s room

c)

Folded on a clean chair until transport

d)

In the regular trash receptacle

95.

When should a PCT report exposure to infection, blood, or body fluids?

a)

Immediately after the exposure happens

b)

By the end of the work day

c)

If and when the PCT develops symptoms

d)

If and when the PCT becomes concerned about the exposure

96.

A group of healthcare workers that responds to emergencies within a hospital is called

a)

A code team

b)

An emergency squad

c)

A care crew

d)

A rescue group

97.

The first 2 steps to take when approaching an emergency are

a)

Perform first aid and assess the situation

b)

Call the victim’s family and call 911

c)

Assess the situation and assess the victim

d)

Get assistance and perform CPR

98.

In which of the following situations should abdominal thrusts be given to a person who is choking?

a)

The person is coughing.

b)

The person cannot speak, breathe, or cough.

c)

The person is breathing very quickly.

d)

The person says that she feels short of breath.

99.

If a patient is in shock, a PCT should

a)

Quickly give the patient something to eat that can be easily absorbed

b)

Elevate a body part if a broken bone is suspected

c)

Elevate the legs unless the patient has a head or abdominal injury or breathing difficulties

d)

Give the patient a type of strong liquor, like brandy

100.

To control bleeding, a PCT should

a)

Lower the wound below the heart

b)

Use a topical antibiotic cream on the wound

c)

Hold a thick pad against the wound and press down hard

d)

Apply light pressure with a bandage

101.

Why must severe bleeding be controlled as quickly as possible?

a)

Because it can cause death quickly

b)

Because blood is a biological hazard

c)

Because the sight of blood is frightening to patients and visitors

d)

Because large amounts of blood can ruin hospital equipment

102.

Which of the following is best to use when providing first aid for a minor burn?

a)

Burn ointment

b)

Aloe vera gel

c)

Cool water

d)

Petroleum jelly

103.

What is the medical term for fainting?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Syncope

c)

Hemiplegia

d)

Cyanosis

104.

When a patient is suspected of having a heart attack a PCT should

a)

Loosen clothing around the neck

b)

Give the patient some water

c)

Use an automated electronic defibrillator (AED) right away

d)

Wait and see if the patient improves before doing anything

105.

Insulin reaction can be caused by

a)

Too little food

b)

Physical or emotional stress

c)

Too much food

d)

A cerebrovascular accident

106.

Another name for insulin reaction is

a)

Diabetic coma

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Prediabetic coma

107.

A sign that a stroke is occurring is

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Gasping for air

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

The inability to speak or to speak clearly

108.

What is the main goal during a seizure?

a)

To identify the cause

b)

To measure the patient’s brain waves

c)

To make sure the patient is safe

d)

To get something soft wedged in the patient’s mouth

109.

Facilities must provide training in responding to hazards at least

a)

Once a month

b)

Four times a year

c)

Twice a year

d)

Once a year

110.

OSHA considers exposure to radiation this type of hazard:

a)

Chemical

b)

Biological

c)

Physical

d)

Safety

111.

What information does a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) contain?

a)

Costs of the chemical

b)

Comparisons with other chemicals

c)

Names of other facilities using the chemical

d)

Information about emergency response actions

112.

What is the main reason dried blood or other body fluids should not be scraped off of any surface or floor?

a)

Because the scraping may leave scratches that microorganisms can collect in

b)

Because it is impossible to tell for sure when this method has removed all dried residue

c)

Because this cleaning method takes more time than other methods

d)

Because the dried material can become aerosolized and inhaled

113.

A PCT accidentally splashes disinfectant on his bare skin. Where can he find information about how long to wash his skin?

a)

In his copy of the facility policy manual

b)

In the Safety Data Sheet for that disinfectant

c)

On the CDC website

d)

On the OSHA website

114.

Which of the following is a way to use proper body mechanics when lifting or carrying objects?

a)

The PCT should twist at the waist when lifting objects.

b)

The PCT should stand with her legs shoulder-width apart.

c)

The PCT should lift objects, rather than pushing them.

d)

The PCT should carry objects away from her body.

115.

Which of the following statements is true of body mechanics?

a)

Body mechanics help save energy and prevent injury.

b)

The narrower a person’s base of support, the more stable the person is.

c)

Proper alignment of the body means that the 2 sides of the body should not line up.

d)

Twisting at the waist is the best way to maintain body alignment.

116.

One of the Joint Commission’s National Patient Safety Goals is

a)

Prevent infection

b)

Stop facility fires

c)

Identify dangerous medications

d)

Promote food safety

117.

Which of these patients is most likely to have a PCT or other healthcare worker assigned to stay with them at all times (one-to-one monitoring)?

a)

A patient taking a medication that makes them very sleepy

b)

A patient who has said they want to be discharged immediately

c)

A patient who was admitted to the hospital after losing a large amount of blood from self-inflicted wounds

d)

A patient who has behaved in a hostile way

118.

RACE is an acronym for a safety rule, and means

a)

Run to A Close Exit

b)

Remove patients; Activate alarm or call 911; Contain fire; Extinguish

c)

Restore power; Activate alarm or call 911; Call fire department; Exit

d)

Remove window; Access outside; Call for help; Elderly patients first

119.

How should nonsharp waste containing blood or body fluids be discarded?

a)

Along with sharps in the sharps receptacle

b)

In a regular trash can with a no-touch closing lid

c)

Directly in a biohazard dumpster outside the facility

d)

In a special biohazard waste bag

120.

What does a dosimeter measure?

a)

Exposure to infected body fluids

b)

Exposure to radiation

c)

Exposure to toxic chemicals

d)

Exposure to excessive noise

121.

There is a fire in a facility. The door to the room where a PCT is located feels hot. There is no window or other way out of the room. What should the PCT do?

a)

Open the door using a wet towel or cloth to protect her hands

b)

Attempt to kick the door open

c)

Block the space under the door with a wet towel or clothing and wait for help

d)

Pound on the door and shout until help arrives

122.

Which of the following is an important general guideline for responding to disasters in the workplace?

a)

Stay away from windows.

b)

Turn off all cell phone ringers.

c)

Drop to the ground.

d)

Know the location of all exits and stairways.

123.

People are more likely to respond appropriately in emergency situations if

a)

They have prepared and practiced by taking an active role in drills

b)

They have read a lot about how to respond

c)

They watch and follow exactly what their coworkers are doing

d)

They pretend the emergency situation is not actually happening

124.

Patients who are admitted to a hospital for routine inpatient care are usually in this unit:

a)

Subacute care unit

b)

Medical/surgical unit

c)

Intensive care unit

d)

Stepdown unit

125.

What is the process used to determine the level of care a patient needs on arrival at an emergency department?

a)

Sorting

b)

Process of elimination

c)

Classification

d)

Triage

126.

Which department ensures that a facility is kept clean and comfortable for patients?

a)

Environmental services

b)

Dietary department

c)

Administrative services

d)

Radiology department

127.

How can a PCT help control odors in a facility?

a)

He can ask the patient to clean up if he soils his linens.

b)

He can clean up within an hour after episodes of incontinence.

c)

He can ask patients to use the toilets in the reception area instead of in their rooms.

d)

He can empty and clean bedpans promptly.

128.

When leaving a patient’s room, a PCT should

a)

Leave the call light within the patient’s reach

b)

Move the patient’s belongings

c)

Leave spills for the next shift

d)

Remind the patient not to call her again because she’ll be busy with other patients

129.

How should a PCT enter a patient’s room?

a)

Knock and wait for permission to enter if the patient is able to give permission

b)

Walk in if the door is open

c)

Say her name as she walks in

d)

Call the patient first to make sure she is alone

130.

What can an overbed table be used for?

a)

Placement of dirty linens

b)

Placement of bedpans

c)

Placement of meals

d)

Placement of urinals

131.

Which of the following is a type of disposable equipment?

a)

An autoclave

b)

An electric razor

c)

A bedpan

d)

Gloves

132.

Which of the following is a reason that new patients may have trouble adjusting to being in a hospital?

a)

They will have more independence in a hospital than at home.

b)

Their health is improving.

c)

There is a lot of noise and many interruptions.

d)

The other patients and staff are people they already know well.

133.

When a patient is going to be discharged, a PCT should

a)

Give the patient ambulation instructions from the provider

b)

Be positive and reassuring

c)

Give the patient his last medication

d)

Decide which dietary adjustments the patient will need

134.

What is a PCT’s responsibility during an in house transfer of a patient?

a)

The PCT decides that the patient must be transferred.

b)

The PCT must keep the fact that a transfer will occur a secret.

c)

The PCT should pack the patient’s belongings.

d)

The PTC should tell the patient’s roommate about the transfer.

135.

Which of the following is true of sleep?

a)

Sleep does not affect the immune system.

b)

Patients usually sleep better in a hospital than they do at home.

c)

Lack of sleep can cause decreased mental function.

d)

People can live in good health even with out much sleep.

136.

Lack of sleep can cause

a)

Increased mental function

b)

Increased reaction time

c)

Increased immune system function

d)

Increased irritability

137.

Which of the following statements is true of linen?

a)

Linen should be carried close to the PCT’s uniform.

b)

Linen should be shaken to remove wrinkles.

c)

Dirty linen should be removed by rolling it away from the PCT.

d)

Linen can be taken from one patient’s room into another patient’s room.

138.

Which of the following terms describes a bed that is completely made, with the bedspread and blankets in place?

a)

Closed bed

b)

Open bed

c)

Occupied bed

d)

Unoccupied bed

139.

In which type of environment do microorganisms thrive?

a)

Cool, dry environments

b)

Clean, cold environments

c)

Dry, hot environments

d)

Warm, moist environments

140.

Where should the call light be placed when a PCT leaves a patient’s room?

a)

On the bedside table beside the telephone

b)

Next to the television remote

c)

Within the patient’s reach

d)

On a chair next to the patient’s bed

141.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: Which of the following statements is true of positioning?

a)

Patients will not need help getting into comfortable positions or changing positions.

b)

Constant pressure on an area helps prevent skin problems.

c)

PCTs should check patients’ skin each time they are repositioned.

d)

Bedbound patients should be repositioned every 3 hours.

142.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: How often should bedbound patients be repositioned?

a)

At least every 2 hours

b)

Once per shift

c)

Twice a day

d)

At least every 3 hours

143.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: A patient who is lying on either her left or her right side is in the _______ position.

a)

Supine

b)

Lateral

c)

Prone

d)

Fowler’s

144.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: A patient who has her head and shoulders elevated and is in a semisitting position (45 to 60 degrees) is in the _______ position.

a)

Sims’

b)

Fowler’s

c)

Prone

d)

Lateral

145.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: A patient who is lying on her stomach with her arms at her sides is in the _______ position.

a)

Sims’

b)

Fowler’s

c)

Prone

d)

Lateral

146.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: A patient who is lying flat on his back with his head and shoulders supported by a pillow is in the _______ position.

a)

Sims’

b)

Fowler’s

c)

Prone

d)

Supine

147.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: Dangling means

a)

Sitting up with legs over side of bed

b)

Sitting up in a chair with feet on floor

c)

Lying in bed with feet over side of bed

d)

Hanging both arms over chair rests

148.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: When using a transfer belt, the PCT should

a)

Place it underneath the patient’s clothing

b)

Place it around the patient’s shoulders

c)

Place it around a patient’s chest

d)

Place it over the patient’s clothing

149.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: When transferring patients who have a strong side and a weak side, the PCT should plan the move so that

a)

The stronger side moves first

b)

The weaker side moves first

c)

Both feet move at the same time

d)

The wheelchair moves first

150.

Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer: Which of the following is true of mechanical lifts?

a)

Mechanical lifts prevent injury.

b)

It is safer for the PCT to lift patients without the use of a mechanical lift.

c)

There is only one kind of mechanical lift.

d)

When using a mechanical lift, the PCT should pump it approximately 5 feet over the bed before moving the patient.