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WorksheetsNokia Subcontractor-19
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 3600secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
You are in optimizing 1 new site, you see 2G TCH Blocking is not Pass the target KPI. What will you do ?
a)
Adding PDCCH channel to reduce the tch blocking
b)
Disable the Halfrate so the cell can go full rate to accomade full service
c)
add the SDCCH channel to reduce TCH Blocking
d)
Enable the Halfrate so the cell can increase capacity
2.
You are in optimizing 1 new site and 4G Payload suddenly increase and impact to your CSSR KPI, what will you NOT do immediately?
a)
Check if any promo campaign to up the sales
b)
Check your validity of your measurement if any double counting
c)
Payload Increase is good, so make justification for CSSR KPI
d)
Check if any site surrounding site if shutdown
3.
Which statement(s) correctly describe the SBTS site configuration evolution:
1. Cell sets define on sub baseband module level are combined in independent building blocks to build an SBTS configuration
2. LTE and SRAN cell sets can flexibly combined to build target configuration
3. "Cell set" approach is adopted from LTE. requires higher effort on Lte migration from lagecy RAT to SRAN in comparison to the "Profile" approach
4. "Cell set" concept is only applicable to the shared operation SRAN cells
a)
2 and 4
b)
1 and 4
c)
2 and 3
d)
1 and 2
4.
Which statement is INCORRECT about KPI: E-UTRAN E-RAB Drop Ratio, RAN View?
a)
This KPI describes the radio of abnormally released (dropped) E-RABs from RAN point of view
b)
E-RAB releases due to "No Radio Resources Available" initiated by eNB are counted as abnormal releases
c)
RAN point of view means that as abnormal E-RAB drops only those ones Initiated by eNB are counted
d)
In denominator of the formula normal E-RAB releases due to successful HO to eHRPD are not counted
5.
Which statement is FALSE about Smart Admission control?
a)
It support GRB and non GRB traffic
b)
For new GBR-DRB bearers the forecast on needed resources is based on periodical measurements
c)
Data DRB are admitted/rejected comparing cell Internal counters agains configured thresholds
d)
It usually works together with the Allocation and Retention Priority feature
6.
Which scheduler considers the UL interference level and the signal strength of each UE during resource allocation?
a)
Fair scheduler
b)
Channel unaware scheduler
c)
Interference aware scheduler
d)
Channel aware scheduler
7.
Which protocol stack layer within the eNB is responsible for uplink and downlink adaptation?
a)
MAC layer
b)
RLC Layer
c)
Physical layer
d)
PDCP layer
8.
Which of the following mMIMO statements is TRUE for radio pilot overhead?
a)
In TDD, it is independent of the number of spatially multiplexed Ues
b)
In FDD, it depends on number of antennas and the number of spatially multiplexed UEs
c)
In TDD, it depends on number of antenna and the number of spatially multiplexed UEs
d)
In FDD, it is only independent on the number of spatially multiplexed Ues
9.
Which is typical function of an eNodeB
a)
Access Layer Security
b)
Mobility anchoring for inter 3GPP mobility
c)
Mobility anchoring for non-3GPP access systems
d)
Provisioning of IP addresses to UEs
10.
Which is NOT a possible cause for an eNodeB-triggered radio link failure (FDD case)?
a)
CQI RLF
b)
Max RLC Retransmission
c)
PDCCH Order Failure
d)
HARQ RLF
11.
Which Global NPO community contains network planning and optimization guidance material grouped per technology or product?
a)
Services Community
b)
Radio community Wiki
c)
NPO Modular Working Items Wiki
d)
NPO Services Wiki
12.
Which feature is mandatory for VoLTE activation?
a)
TTI Bundling
b)
Support of QCI 2,3,4
c)
Robust header compression
d)
Support of multiple EPS bearers
13.
Which answer can NOT be applied to the following statement: When a UE is in RRC_CONNECTED mode and RRC security is active, the UE can trigger Radio Link Failure (RLF) and initiated RRC Connection Re establishment due to:
a)
T310 Timer Expiry
b)
reaching the maximum number of UR RLC retransmissions
c)
TA Timer Expiry
d)
handover failure (T304 expiry)
14.
What tools are available in the Tool Hosting section of the NPO Mobile Radio Community?
a)
RANDim and Atoll
b)
Atoll and Mentum Plannet
c)
Asset and Connect
d)
3DGL and NPM
15.
What statement about Uplink Power control is NOT true
a)
UL power control changes may impact UL RSSI and SINR for PUSCH
b)
UL power control is responsible for setting the power of the PHICH
c)
UE is transparent to the UL power control algorithm
d)
UL power control is important for the correct MSG3 reception
16.
What is the capacity of one time slot in TRX?
a)
32Kbps
b)
16Kbps
c)
64Kbps
d)
8Kbps
17.
What is FALSE about Tracking Area (TA) in LTE?
a)
A UE registers within a specific Tracking Area when attaching on the network
b)
One cell can belong to several TA
c)
TA does not need to be the same as the area served by one MME gateway
d)
TA does not necessary be exactly the same as the Location Area in a 3G co-located network
18.
What could be the reason for high average ping round-trip time under good radio conditions in an unloaded network?
a)
Uplink periode CQI reporting interval is too long
b)
256 QAM in downlink is disabled causing bandwidth limitation and hence larger ping response scheduling delay
c)
Uplink pro-active schedulling timer value is shorter than the ping transmission interval
d)
Not enough PUCCH Schedulling Request resources to accommodate all RRC connected UEs in the cell
19.
UL CA Stratum Access Category:
a)
Rel8
b)
REl9
c)
Rel10
d)
Rel11
20.
To troubleshoot an ul throughput problem in a live network, a drive test log has been collected with simultaneous TTI trace. In order to find the correct UE in MAC TTI trace, which information is required from the drive test log?
a)
IMSI
b)
M-TMSI
c)
Data Radio Bearer ID
d)
C-RNTI
21.
The usage level of which physical channel defines the admission of CQI1 bearers when Smart admission control is enabled?
a)
PUCCH
b)
PUSCH
c)
PDSCH
d)
PDCCH
22.
The SBTS is connected to Netact via:
a)
SBTS O&M (NE35)
b)
GSM O&M connection
c)
BTS mediation (IMI)
d)
RNC OMS
23.
Select the factor that does NOT improve the Spectral Efficiency In Massive MIMO?
a)
SINR Improvement due to narrower UE beam
b)
Multiuser gain
c)
3D beamforming
d)
UL interference cancellation
24.
Reference Signal occupies how many resource element is 2 transmit antennas?
a)
24
b)
16
c)
8
d)
32
25.
Nokia Single RAN solution is designed to support multiple Radio Access Technologies with common or shared functionalities. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Single FSMF baseband capacity can be shared between GSM+WCDMA or GSM+LTE but not LTE+WCDMA
2. Common BTS OAM to simply site creation commissioning and configuration process, where IOMS is re-used to handle SRAN operability
3. SRAN solution is compatible with FSME, FSMF, and AirScale system module
4. AirScale System Module can be used as two logical SBTSs in full subrack, or one logial SBTS and one logial LNBTS in full subrack
a)
2 and 4
b)
1 and 4
c)
2 and 3
d)
1 and 2
26.
Iu-B is the interface between
a)
NodeB-NodeB
b)
RNC-SGSN
c)
RNC-RNC
d)
NodeB-RNC
27.
If any troubleshoot eNodeB scheduling. What is the best tool for debugging eNodeB?
a)
Emil
b)
TTI trace analyzer
c)
BTS site manager
d)
NetAct trace viewer
28.
How to improved DL Throughput, except
a)
Single Tx – MIMO
b)
MIMO 2x2 -> 2x4
c)
MIMO 2x2 à 4x4
d)
MIMO 2x4 à 4x2
29.
How are overshooting cells detected?
a)
1. Accounting for any cell with high Antenna
b)
2. Using RSRP scanner result of best servers and search from counter data cells with good RSSI but poor SINR (UL only). Poor HO pairs from counter data
c)
3. By looking for poorly performing cells from counter
d)
1,2,3 True
30.
What does the term of 'connected user' mean for baseband dimensioning purposes?
a)
UEs in RRC Connected mode with DRB established
b)
UEs actively time scheduled
c)
UEs actively scheduled during the same TTI
d)
UEs which communicate with the network but without DRB established
31.
Is it possible to plot throughput with a planning tool capable of only path loss based calculations?
a)
1. No, it is only possible with Monte Carlo simulations
b)
2. Yes, if the tool can calculate path loss and SINR (for static load) and MAPL (from link budget) is available for different throughputs
c)
1 and 3 True
d)
3. No, it is not possible based on only path loss calculations
32.
What is the meaning of the cell capacity results in Nokia Dimensioning tools ?
a)
1. cell capacity recalculated from the system simulation result based on assumptions of many active user
b)
2. it means maximum user data rate
c)
3. it means maximum cell data rate possible
d)
1,2,3 True
33.
Which is the most important and effective method to improve the network performance?
a)
1. Parameter optimization
b)
2. Power and handover optimization
c)
3. Physical RF optimization.
d)
1,2,3 True
34.
Which one of following applications should be used to test Single User Throughput performance?
a)
1. FTP application
b)
2. Video streaming application
c)
3. Web Browsing application
d)
1,2,3 True
35.
which is NOT a concept of DL Carrier aggregation?
a)
FTP data downloading can be sent via both PCell and Scell
b)
VoLTE call is served only via Pcell
c)
Scell activation is done via RRC connection Reconfiguration message
d)
It enhance downlink throughput performance
36.
How are time synchronization problems in the UL Physical Random Access channel (PRACH) solved?
a)
1.By changing PCI on the serving cell
b)
2. By tuning cell individual Offset on the neighboring cell
c)
3. By introducing a guard time
d)
1,2,3 True
37.
Which of the following sentences is TRUE about cyclic prefix?
a)
It provides protection against multi--path delay spreadpath delay
b)
Pilot signals can be inserted into the cyclix prefix
c)
It provides signal equalization in the receiver
d)
Reference signals can be instertedinstertedinto the cyclic prefixinto the cyclic prefix
38.
Which technologies does support the Harmonized Object model, part of Single OAM development? 1. LTE FDD ; 2. LTE TDD ; 3. WCDMA ; 4.GSM
a)
1,2,3 and 4
b)
1,2 and 3
c)
1 and 2
d)
3 and 4
39.
Which scheduler considers the UL interference level and the signal strength of each UE during resource allocation?
a)
Fair scheduler
b)
Channel unaware scheduler
c)
Interference aware scheduler
d)
Channel aware scheduler
40.
What statement related to PDCCH capacity is false?
a)
Feature usage based PDCCH adaption increases the absolute capacity of the PDCCH
b)
PDCCH is always transmitted using QPSK
c)
PDCCH capacity for MIMO 4X2 is lower than for MIMO 2X2
d)
When PDCCH blocking happens the end user's connection is maintained but there is an increased delay in the resource allocation
41.
Which statement is NOT true related to Interference Rejection Combining (IRC)?
a)
IRC maximizes SINR of the wanted user by applying complex weight to the antenna elements
b)
IRC can cancel interferers which are spatially correlated with the wanted signal
c)
IRC is applicable to PUSCH only
d)
IRC is performed per subcarrier
42.
IoT and LTE-M technologies are optimized for improved coverage. Which one of the following techniques enables coverage improvement?
a)
Transmission repetitions
b)
Half-duplex operation
c)
Reduced transport block size
d)
Single antenna transmission
43.
When repetitions are applied to the physical channel transmission what is the most likely impact on IoT performance?
a)
Latency is decreased
b)
User throughput is decreased
c)
Coverage is decreased
d)
Battery consumption is decreased
44.
How can a certain level of LTE service be guaranteed during the planning phase from the RF point of view
a)
Only RSRP must be better than the minimum threshold
b)
Only SINR must be better than the design threshold
c)
RSRP must be better than the design threshold while SINR must be above -3dB
d)
Both RSRP and SINR must be better than the design threshold
45.
Which statement is INCORRECT about KPI: E-UTRAN E-RAB Drop Ratio, RAN View?
a)
This KPI describes the radio of abnormally released (dropped) E-RABs from RAN point of view
b)
E-RAB releases due to "No Radio Resources Available" initiated by eNB are counted as abnormal releases
c)
RAN point of view means that as abnormal E-RAB drops only those ones Initiated by eNB are counted
d)
In denominator of the formula normal E-RAB releases due to successful HO to eHRPD are not counted
46.
In case of 4CC DL Carrier Aggregation, the value of RLC PDU Re-transmission Ratio DL KPI of Pcell is influenced by:
a)
the performance of the Pcell only
b)
the performance of the Pcell and the performance of only the last added Scell
c)
the performance of the Component Carriers
d)
the performance of the Scells only
47.
Measurement based Scell selection is done based on which measrument event?
a)
A6
b)
A4
c)
A3
d)
IF
48.
Throughput test shows low throughput value for TCP, but UDP throughput is high. Which statement is INCORRECT between UDP and throughput TCP performance?
a)
When UDP throughput is higher than TCP throughput, it means that there may be a packet loss somewhere between the Core network and eNodeB
b)
TCP throughput is impacted by latency
c)
UDP throughput is not impacted by latency
d)
Shaping is enabled in the transport path between the Core and the eNodeB
49.
Which of the following options does NOT improve the latency as part of the Radio Network Optimization Procedures?
a)
Enabling/Disabling Proactive Scheduling
b)
Tuning the scheduling request period
c)
Tuning DRX cycle duration
d)
Increasing PUCCH capacity
50.
What happens if the orthogonality between OFDM subcarriers is lost due to effects such as Doppler?
a)
Adjacent Channel Interference
b)
Inter - Subcarrier Interference
c)
Intersymbol interference
d)
Inter Cell Interference
51.
What is the benefit of standalone deployment of NB-IoT?
a)
No new hardware needs to be installed.
b)
No capacity reduction in legacy LTE
c)
No new spectrum needed
d)
No PCI planning required
52.
If uplink closed loop power parameter window (PUSCH) for level and quality is very narrow and requirement is high for both, what kind of problem will be faced when the loading is high and the average cell range is the network is high ?
a)
Uplink throughput close to the eNodeB will suffer the most
b)
Uplink interference will be very high and the cell middle/edge users will not have enough power to reach the CL PC targets
c)
Cell average UL throughput remains good because the parameter settings favors the UEs in good radio conditions
d)
Average cell UL throughput remains good but average UE TX Power will increase significantly
53.
Which sentence is NOT true concerning Cell trace and Subscriber trace?
a)
Cell Trace records all the UEs connected to the cell, whereas Subscriber Trace records only specific UE
b)
Both Cell Trace and Subscriber Trace, indentify UE based upon their IMSI
c)
The Cell Trace, trace activation command is sent to the eNB, whereas the Subscriber Trace, trace activation command is sent to the MME
d)
Cell Trace does not capture the subscriber indentity, whereas Subscriber Trace captures the IMSI
54.
You are in optimizing 4G New Site, but you find that the Packet Loss Rate is high. What will you do first?
a)
Check in hourly basis if packet loss is happen frequently or just a spike
b)
Immediately escalate to transport Engineer to seek support
c)
Check hardware alarm if any baseband module broken
d)
Perform drive test to check the field impact
55.
SSS (Secondary Synchronization Signal) is used to :
a)
Achieve subframe synchronization
b)
Identify the center of the channel bandwidth
c)
Achieve slot and symbol synchronization
d)
Achieve radio frame synchronization
56.
System information Blocks (SIB) are mapped onto the :
a)
Physical Downlink Control Channel
b)
Physical Broadcast Channel
c)
Physical Downlink Shared Channel
d)
Physical Multicast Channel
57.
What statement is FALSE about idle mode mobility?
a)
UE receives inter-frequency neighbouring cell information from SIB5
b)
If a UE moves out of coverage without an appropiate target for cell reselection if will trigger a band scan
c)
Measurement trigger for cell reselection is based on priorities where 0 is the highest and 7 is the lowest
d)
It is NOT permitted to allocate equal priorities to different radio access technologies
58.
Which feature can improve the performance of VoLTE retainability after a failed mobility procedure?
a)
TTI Bundling
b)
RLF Triggered Handover
c)
Extended VoLTE talktime
d)
Support of multiple EPS bearers
59.
Which physical channel must be dimensioned when LTE CA feature is activated?
a)
PDCCH
b)
PUCCH
c)
PRACH
d)
PUSCH
60.
Which procedure changes the UE state from ECM-IDLE to ECM-CONNECTED?
a)
Service request
b)
Default bearer creation
c)
S1 release
d)
PGW selection
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