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Professional Geology Exam Part 1

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When water contacts pyrite at the earth's surface, the runoff is commonly:

a)

acidic

b)

basic

c)

oxygenated

d)

nitrogen-rich

2.

In an eolian sand aquifer, hydraulic conductivity would be expected to generally:

a)

increase upward

b)

increase downward

c)

be uniform

d)

be lowest in the middle of the unit

3.

Which of the following pairs likely would be composed of sediments with DIFFERENT

grain size and sorting characteristics?

a)

outwash plain-end moraine

b)

esker-kame

c)

tuff-tephra

d)

barchan dune-parabolic dune

4.

It has been determined that a prospective strippable reserve contains 1000 acres (1 acre

= 43,560 sq. ft.) of lignite in beds averaging 20 feet in thickness. Assume specific gravity

of 1.28 (80 lbs/ft3

). What is the reserve in tons?

a)

362,880,000

b)

3,484,800

c)

6,696,600,000

d)

34,848,000

5.

The scale for describing the effects or damage caused by an earthquake at a given

geographic location is called the:

a)

Bernoulli scale

b)

Richter scale

c)

Modified Mercalli scale

d)

Moment Magnitude scale

6.

Which statement best describes the effect of diagenesis on the overall quality of an

oil/gas reservoir?

a)

Diagenesis enhances reservoir quality.

b)

Diagenesis diminishes reservoir quality.

c)

Diagenesis may enhance or diminish reservoir quality.

d)

Diagenesis has little or no effect on reservoir quality.

7.

The rate of production from a subsurface reservoir is most directly related to:

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

compactness

d)

grain size

8.

What is the best radiometric dating technique to determine the age difference between

two Miocene-age volcanic ash deposits separated by 500 feet vertically?

a)

Potassium-Argon

b)

Carbon-Carbon

c)

Uranium-Lead

d)

Uranium Series

9.

What geophysical method would generally be most effective to map deeply buried (1500'

deep) bedrock pediments?

a)

ground penetrating radar

b)

electrical resistivity

c)

seismic refraction

d)

seismic reflection

10.

A groundwater model is considered calibrated when:

a)

the model grid and layers match the constructed conceptual model

b)

the groundwater flux into the model equals the groundwater flux out of the model

c)

hydraulic heads and fluxes reproduce the system modeled within an acceptable

tolerance

d)

the chosen model boundaries express the nature of the physical boundaries

11.

A rock described as argillaceous:

a)

contains flattened pebbles

b)

is clay-rich

c)

displays a satin luster

d)

is composed of coarse mica

12.

The creation of new oceanic crust is balanced by:

a)

the Earth's expansion

b)

the Earth's crust buckling up so the earth remains a constant size

c)

an equal amount of old ocean crust being subducted

d)

an equal amount of continental crust being subducted

13.

When collecting duplicate samples to validate the quality of the laboratory results, the

geologist should always:

a)

identify the duplicate samples

b)

use a sequential numbering system

c)

be sure that the duplicates cannot be identified by the lab

d)

be sure that the duplicates were sampled at different times

14.

A stream crosses a strike-slip fault with no deviation in its course. Which of the

following statements must be true?

a)

The fault is active.

b)

The stream crossed the fault since the last fault movement.

c)

Strike-slip faults do not affect stream course.

d)

Rock units are the same on both sides of the fault.

15.

The horizontal scale of a cross-section is 1:24,000; the vertical scale is 1 inch equals 1000

feet. The vertical exaggeration is:

a)

2x

b)

12x

c)

24x

d)

0.5x

16.

A topographic map shows several circular depressions in a limestone region. What are

these features called?

a)

fensters

b)

kettles

c)

dolines

d)

potholes

17.

A cross-stratified sand lens that contains thin streaks of mud in the ripple troughs is

called:

a)

lenticular bedding

b)

wavy bedding

c)

graded bedding

d)

flaser bedding

18.

In which of the following areas are the largest volumes of andesite lava commonly

extruded?

a)

along continental rift valleys

b)

where oceanic lithosphere is subducting beneath continental crust

c)

within oceanic plates overlying mantle plumes

d)

along zones of lithosphere plate separation (oceanic ridges)

19.

Which of the following safety factor (SF) values for slope stability shows that a slope is

considered stable:

a)

between zero (0) and one (1)

b)

between zero (0) and minus one (-1)

c)

greater than one (1)

d)

less than minus one (-1)

20.

The effects of solution during diagenesis can be seen in:

a)

imbricate structures

b)

flute marks

c)

mud interclasts

d)

stylolites

21.

Limestones containing appreciable amounts of clay are represented graphically on a

lithologic log by:

a)

using the standard limestone symbol

b)

modifying the limestone symbol by adding a short dash within each box

c)

modifying the limestone symbol by adding dots within each box

d)

modifying the limestone symbol from a rectangle to a parallelogram

22.

You find that in developing a GIS product with several layers of information, there is an

apparent conflict between the USGS topographic map completed in 1975 data layer and

recently acquired geologic data layer information with GPS locational control, the

problem is likely to be:

a)

the ARC/INFO software program is unable to handle scanned or digitized

topography

b)

mistakes in the 1975 topographic map

c)

failure to make adjustments relative to the 1983 North American Datum (NAD)

d)

conflict between scanned and digitized information

23.

An esker is a:

a)

more or less linear ridge formed at the end of a glacial advance

b)

streamlined glacial landform

c)

conical hill composed predominantly of sand and gravel

d)

sinuous ridge subparallel to glacial flow composed predominantly of sand and gravel

24.

Biostratigraphic zones are employed to establish:

a)

continuity of formations

b)

age equivalence within sedimentary sequences

c)

absolute ages of successive formations

d)

sedimentary provenance active during deposition

25.

What Liquid Limit (LL) and Plasticity Index (PI) values would be associated with a soil

classified CH?

a)

LL = 12 and PI = 38

b)

LL = 63 and PI = 38

c)

LL = 63 and PI = 11

d)

LL = 40 and PI = 11

26.

Lithostratigraphic sequences can be used to interpret:

a)

geologic history

b)

isolated outcrops

c)

earthquake probability

d)

absolute ages of successive formations

27.

Which of the following anions is the least reactive and most persistent tracer of a

geochemical contaminant plume?

a)

CO3 -2

b)

HCO3 -1

c)

Cl-1

d)

PO4 -3

28.

The grain-size distribution curve illustrated in Figure 85 indicates that the sand is:

a)

poorly sorted

b)

poorly graded

c)

uniformly sorted

d)

well sorted

29.

If the beds are vertical, Figure 29 represents what type of fault?

a)

thrust fault

b)

reverse fault

c)

right-lateral fault

d)

left-lateral fault

30.

What is the approximate total volume of limestone which can be quarried from the

property shown in Figure 83, if the mining extends to a depth of 350 feet?

a)

2,500,000 yd3

b)

4,500,000 yd3

c)

6,500,000 yd3

d)

8,500,000 yd3

31.

If the net volume of precipitation entering a drainage basin exceeds the surface water

volume coming out with no change in surface storage, then:

a)

water is recharging the groundwater system

b)

water is discharging from the groundwater system

c)

evapotranspiration rates have decreased

d)

groundwater storage remains constant because of loss of water to evapotranspiration

32.

Which of the following is NOT commonly a natural constituent of groundwater?

a)

iron

b)

carbonate

c)

chloride

d)

nitrate

33.

An uplifted block bounded by normal faults is known as a(n):

a)

atoll

b)

guyot

c)

graben

d)

horst

34.

Your client calls you to sample a series of monitor wells that they installed on their

property. Your review of the geologic setting determines that the wells are located such

that no contamination could be detected. You should:

a)

notify the Board

b)

refuse the job

c)

inform the client about the problem

d)

sample the wells as requested

35.

Deep exploration holes drilled at the quarry in the X-Ray granite (Unit X) intersected

the Running Ridges Limestone (Unit R). Based on this drill hole data, what is the best

interpretation of the Unit R-Unit X contact?

a)

Normal fault

b)

thrust fault

c)

dextral fault

d)

sinistral fault

36.

The contact between the Holiday Formation (Unit H) and the Beeswax Sandstone (Unit

B) is a(n):

a)

fault contact

b)

intrusive contact

c)

normal stratigraphic

d)

angular unconformity

37.

The quarry located in the X-Ray Granite is a dimension stone quarry. This suggests

that the X-Ray Granite

a)

is massive and unfractured

b)

is highly fractured

c)

is deeply weathered

d)

has closely spaced joint sets

38.

What is the correct order of the ages of the units from the oldest to the youngest on the

geologic map in Figure 13?

a)

Aa, Fo, Mo, Di, Pm

b)

Di, Mo, Fo, Aa, Pm

c)

Pm, Di, Mo, Fo, Aa

d)

Pm, Di, Mo, Fo, Aa

39.

Incipient lateral displacement across a narrow zone is often defined by the appearance

of Riedel fractures on the ground. Two typical patterns of Riedel fractures are shown in

Figure 24. With respect to the patterns shown:

a)

A is right-stepping and indicates right lateral movement

b)

B is left-stepping and indicates vertical movement

c)

A is right-stepping and indicates left lateral movement

d)

A and B are both right-stepping

40.

What is your name?

(a)