WorksheetsSPED 699 Exam 1 review
Total questions: 32
Worksheet time: 24mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The levels of understanding science include
a)
prediction, depiction & control.
b)
prediction, description & calculation.
c)
prediction, description, & control.
d)
picture, description, & control.
2.
If a paper that describes the effect of feedback on energy use neglects to mention that points were awarded in some cases for energy use below a certain threshold, the paper could be criticized for failing to be
a)
analytic.
b)
behavioral.
c)
technological.
d)
behavioral.
3.
The overarching purpose of applied behavior analysis a as field of study is to understand and improve socially important or significant behaviors.
a)
True.
b)
False.
4.
The philosophical position that the truth or value of a scientific statement is determined by the extent to which it promotes effective action is known as pragmatism.
a)
True.
b)
False.
5.
When a behavior analyst uses experimental manipulation to show that an intervention is effective for middle schoolers with developmental disabilities, the analyst can’t claim that it also works for high school students with learning disabilities unless they also demonstrate
a)
replication.
b)
prediction.
c)
experimentation.
d)
control.
6.
If certain forms of behavior vary in topography but have a similar effect on the environment, they are considered a
a)
repertoire.
b)
stimulus class.
c)
response class.
d)
skill set.
7.
Mr. Goldstein decides to give his students points, usable for extra free time, when they raise their hands and wait to be called on. He discovers that more students raise their hand and fewer students blurt out answers when he awards points than when he does not. This finding seems to show
a)
a functional relation between points and hand raising.
b)
punishment of blurting out answers
c)
points serving as a motivating operation for hand-raising.
d)
points exerting stimulus control over blurting out answers.
8.
Fernando continues to play with his iPad after his teacher announces that free time is over and asks the students to open their books. The teacher removes a token from Fernando’s board. The next time the teacher asks him to put away his iPad, Fernando follows the direction quickly, because with regard to his playing, losing a token must have functioned as
a)
positive punishment.
b)
negative reinforcement.
c)
negative punishment.
d)
extinction.
9.
One advantage of free operant preference assessments is
a)
there is less potential for individuals to satiate on the stimuli than with the paired-stimulus and other approach-based assessments.
b)
they can be less time consuming than the paired-stimulus and approach-based assessments.
c)
they provide a rank order of preferences, unlike the paired-stimulus assessment.
d)
(all of the above)
10.
Ben becomes severely aggressive whenever another student takes his toys away from him. When Ben hits them, the other children often return the toys they took from him. What can be said about this situation?
a)
Ben’s aggression has likely been positively reinforced by the children returning the toy to him.
b)
Ben’s aggression has likely been negatively reinforced by the children taking the toy away from him.
c)
Ben’s aggression has likely been punished (via presentation) by the children returning the toy to him.
d)
Ben’s aggression has likely been punished (via removal) by the children taking the toy away from him.
11.
What is the advantage of using generalized conditioned reinforcers?
a)
They are less susceptible to satiation.
b)
They are easier to obtain than other forms of reinforcement.
c)
They are more powerful than unconditioned reinforcers.
d)
(all of the above)
12.
Which assessment method is most appropriate when determining the efficacy of a stimulus as a reinforcer as the requirements to earn that reinforcer change over time?
a)
concurrent schedule assessment
b)
multiple schedule assessment
c)
progressive-ratio schedule assessment
d)
paired stimulus assessment
13.
Establishing operations are relatively consistent and do not tend to change over time.
a)
True.
b)
False.
14.
Negative reinforcement involves
a)
presenting an aversive stimulus contingent upon a behavior.
b)
removing an aversive stimulus contingent upon a behavior.
c)
removing a desirable stimulus contingent upon a behavior.
d)
presenting a desirable stimulus contingent upon a behavior.
15.
Positive and negative reinforcement are similar in that they
a)
both produce an increase in responding.
b)
both involve a stimulus change following a target behavior.
c)
can either be conditioned or unconditioned.
d)
(all of the above)
16.
Which is an example of avoidance?
a)
Pressing the snooze button on the alarm while the alarm is beeping.
b)
Turning the alarm off before it is time for the alarm to beep.
c)
Turning off the alarm while the alarm is beeping.
d)
(all of the above)
17.
Negative reinforcement can be used to teach both appropriate and inappropriate behaviors.
a)
True.
b)
False.
18.
To maximize the efficacy of negative reinforcement the degree of change between the antecedent stimulus’ onset and offset should be as large as possible.
a)
True.
b)
False.
19.
The boundaries for all schedules of reinforcement are
a)
social and automatic reinforcement.
b)
fixed and variable reinforcement.
c)
extinction and continuous reinforcement.
d)
ratio and interval reinforcement.
20.
A child’s designated lunch time is from 12:00 PM - 12:25 PM. The child has access to all the contents in their packed lunch throughout the lunch session, with the exception of the sweet treat. Once the lunch session has taken place for 15 min, the child may have their treat when they ask for it. If the child asks for the treat prior to the 15 min, the child is directed to finish their meal or wait for it. If the child does not ask for the treat between 15 min and 25 min of the lunch session beginning, the child must wait until later in the day for it. This scenario most closely approximates a
a)
fixed time 15 min schedule with a 10 min delay.
b)
variable interval 12.5 min schedule.
c)
multiple fixed interval 15 min and fixed interval 10 min schedule.
d)
fixed interval 15 min schedule with a limited hold of 10 min.
21.
Variable interval schedules of reinforcement tend to produce a constant, stable response rate.
a)
True.
b)
False.
22.
Behavior analysts use lag schedules to promote response repetition.
a)
True.
b)
False.
23.
Ratio strain can result from abrupt decreases in ratio requirements when moving from denser to thinner reinforcement schedules.
a)
True.
b)
False.
24.
With contingent exercise, the individual is
a)
prompted to perform high energy movements in repetition for a pre-specified amount of time.
b)
prevented from completing the problem behavior and is prompted to engage in a high-probability behavior.
c)
required to perform a response that is related to the problem behavior.
d)
required to perform a response that has no topographical relation to the problem behavior.
25.
Negative reinforcement and positive punishment are interchangeable terms.
a)
True.
b)
False.
26.
Positive punishment has occurred when the removal of an aversive stimulus increases the future occurrence of the behavior.
a)
True.
b)
False.
27.
Negative punishment involves a decrease in the future rates of behavior due to the
a)
withholding of an appetitive stimulus contingent on behavior.
b)
removal of an aversive stimulus contingent on behavior.
c)
addition of an aversive stimulus contingent on behavior.
d)
withdrawal of an appetitive stimulus contingent on behavior.
28.
When implementing response cost, the practitioner makes note of the individual’s engagement in problem behavior each time while removing the relevant amount of the reinforcer. This may
a)
reinforce the behavior with attention.
b)
stigmatize the individual in the presence of their peers.
c)
improve the individual’s understanding of the rules for the procedure.
d)
prompt the learner to engage in appropriate behavior.
29.
In order for the withdrawal of a stimulus to successfully suppress an individual’s behavior, the
a)
stimulus must be a reinforcer.
b)
rules regarding withdrawal and access must be explicitly stated.
c)
individual must be able to regain access to the stimulus at a later time.
d)
(all of the above).
30.
The greater the reinforcing value of the time-in setting, the more effective the time-out procedure.
a)
True.
b)
False.
31.
Select the correct definition for “exclusion time-out”.
a)
It involves removing the individual from the reinforcing environment contingent on problem behavior.
b)
It involves turning away from the learner while withholding social reinforcers contingent on problem behavior.
c)
It involves obstructing the view of the individual while they remain in the time-in setting.
d)
It involves terminating an activity for a specific amount of time contingent on problem behavior.
32.
A time-out procedure is still called time-out when it does not result in a decreased level of problem behavior.
a)
True.
b)
False.
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