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AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is cloud computing?

a)

Backing up files that are stored on desktop and mobile devices to prevent data loss

b)

Deploying applications connected to on-premises infrastructure

c)

Running code without needing to manage or provision servers

d)

On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing

2.

What is another name for on-premises deployment?

a)

Private cloud deployment

b)

Cloud-based application

c)

Hybrid deployment

d)

AWS Cloud

3.

How does the scale of cloud computing help you to save costs?

a)

You do not have to invest in technology resources before using them.

b)

The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices.

c)

Accessing services on-demand helps to prevent excess or limited capacity.

d)

You can quickly deploy applications to customers and provide them with low latency.

4.

Amazon EC2 Meaning ?

a)

Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

b)

Elastic Computing

c)

Amazon Elastic Computing

d)

Amazon Electric Computer Cloud

5.

You want to use an Amazon EC2 instance for a batch processing workload. What would be the best Amazon EC2 instance type to use?

a)

General purpose

b)

Memory optimized

c)

Compute optimized

d)

Storage optimized

6.

What are the contract length options for Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances? (Select TWO.)

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

e)

5 years

7.

Which AWS service is the best choice for publishing messages to subscribers?

a)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

b)

Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

c)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

d)

Elastic Load Balancing

8.

You have a workload that will run for a total of 6 months and can withstand interruptions. What would be the most cost-efficient Amazon EC2 purchasing option?

a)

Reserved Instance

b)

Spot Instance

c)

Dedicated Instance

d)

On-Demand Instance

9.

Which process is an example of Elastic Load Balancing?

a)

Ensuring that no single Amazon EC2 instance has to carry the full workload on its own

b)

Removing unneeded Amazon EC2 instances when demand is low

c)

Adding a second Amazon EC2 instance during an online store’s popular sale

d)

Automatically adjusting the number of Amazon EC2 instances to meet demand

10.

You want to deploy and manage containerized applications. Which service should you use?

a)

AWS Lambda

b)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

c)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

d)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

11.

Which service that lets you run code without provisioning or managing servers?

a)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

d)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

12.

Which service that enables you to send, store, and receive messages between software components through a queue?

a)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

b)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

c)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

d)

AWS Lambda

13.

Which statement best describes an Availability Zone?

a)

A geographical area that contains AWS resources

b)

A single data center or group of data centers within a Region

c)

A data center that an AWS service uses to perform service-specific operations

d)

A service that you can use to run AWS infrastructure within your own on-premises data center in a hybrid approach

14.

Which statement is TRUE for the AWS global infrastructure?

a)

A Region consists of a single Availability Zone.

b)

An Availability Zone consists of two or more Regions.

c)

A Region consists of two or more Availability Zones.

d)

An Availability Zone consists of a single Region.

15.

Which factors should be considered when selecting a Region? (Select TWO.)

a)

Compliance with data governance and legal requirements

b)

Proximity to your customers

c)

Access to 24/7 technical support

d)

Ability to assign custom permissions to different users

e)

Access to the AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)

16.

Which statement best describes Amazon CloudFront?

a)

A service that enables you to run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach

b)

A serverless compute engine for containers

c)

A service that enables you to send and receive messages between software components through a queue

d)

A global content delivery service

17.

Which site does Amazon CloudFront use to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location?

a)

Region

b)

Availability Zone

c)

Edge location

d)

Origin

18.

Which action can you perform with AWS Outposts?

a)

Automate actions for AWS services and applications through scripts.

b)

Access wizards and automated workflows to perform tasks in AWS services.

c)

Develop AWS applications in supported programming languages.

d)

Extend AWS infrastructure and services to your on-premises data center.

19.

Which statement best describes an AWS account’s default network access control list?

a)

It is stateless and denies all inbound and outbound traffic.

b)

It is stateful and allows all inbound and outbound traffic.

c)

It is stateless and allows all inbound and outbound traffic.

d)

It is stateful and denies all inbound and outbound traffic.

20.

Which statement best describes DNS resolution?

a)

Launching resources in a virtual network that you define

b)

Storing local copies of content at edge locations around the world

c)

Connecting a VPC to the internet

d)

Translating a domain name to an IP address

21.

AWS DNS Service name?

a)

Amazon Route 53

b)

Amazon Lambda

c)

Amazon VPC

d)

Amazon EC2

22.

Your company has an application that uses Amazon EC2 instances to run the customer-facing website and Amazon RDS database instances to store customers’ personal information. How should the developer configure the VPC according to best practices?

a)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a private subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet.

b)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.

c)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet.

d)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.

23.

VPC Meaning?

a)

Virtual Private Cloud

b)

Virtual Personal Cloud

c)

Virtual Private Connection

d)

Vice Precedent Colum

24.

Which component or service can be used to establish a private dedicated connection between your company’s data center and AWS?

a)

Private subnet

b)

DNS

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

Amazon CloudFront

25.

Which statement best describes security groups?

a)

They are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default.

b)

They are stateful and allow all inbound traffic by default.

c)

They are stateless and deny all inbound traffic by default.

d)

They are stateless and allow all inbound traffic by default.

26.

Which component is used to connect a VPC to the internet?

a)

Public subnet

b)

Edge location

c)

Security group

d)

Internet gateway

27.

Which service is used to manage the DNS records for domain names?

a)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud

b)

AWS Direct Connect

c)

Amazon CloudFront

d)

Amazon Route 53

28.

You want to store data that is infrequently accessed but must be immediately available when needed. Which Amazon S3 storage class should you use?

a)

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

b)

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

c)

Amazon S3 Standard-IA

d)

S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

29.

What are the scenarios in which you should use Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)? Select TWO.

a)

Running a serverless database

b)

Using SQL to organize data

c)

Storing data in a key-value database

d)

Scaling up to 10 trillion requests per day

e)

Storing data in an Amazon Aurora database

30.

Which Amazon S3 storage classes are optimized for archival data? Select TWO.

a)

Amazon S3 Standard

b)

Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

c)

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

d)

Amazon S3 Standard-IA

e)

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

31.

Which statement or statements are TRUE about Amazon EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems?

a)

EBS volumes store data across multiple Availability Zones. Amazon EFS file systems store data within a single Availability Zone.

b)

EBS volumes store data within a single Availability Zone. Amazon EFS file systems store data across multiple Availability Zones.

c)

EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data within a single Availability Zone.

d)

EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data across multiple Availability Zones.

32.

You want to store data in an object storage service. Which AWS service is best for this type of storage?

a)

Amazon Managed Blockchain

b)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

c)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

d)

Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

33.

Which statement best describes Amazon DynamoDB?

a)

A service that enables you to run relational databases in the AWS Cloud

b)

A serverless key-value database service

c)

A service that you can use to migrate relational databases, nonrelational databases, and other types of data stores

d)

An enterprise-class relational database

34.

Which service is used to query and analyze data across a data warehouse?

a)

Amazon Redshift

b)

Amazon Neptune

c)

Amazon DocumentDB

d)

Amazon ElastiCache

35.

Why is AWS more economical than traditional data centers for applications with varying compute workloads?

a)

Amazon EC2 costs are billed on a monthly basis.

b)

Users retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.

c)

Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on demand when needed.

d)

Users can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.

36.

Which AWS service would simplify the migration of a database to AWS?

a)

WS Storage Gateway

b)

AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

c)

Amazon EC2

d)

Amazon AppStream 2.0

37.

Which AWS offering enables users to find, buy, and immediately start using software solutions in their AWS environment?

a)

AWS Config

b)

AWS OpsWorks

c)

AWS SDK

d)

AWS Marketplace

38.

Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS?

a)

Amazon Route 53

b)

AWS Config

c)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

d)

AWS Direct Connect

39.

Which of the following is an AWS responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model?

a)

Configuring third-party applications

b)

Maintaining physical hardware

c)

Securing application access and data

d)

Managing guest operating systems

40.

Which component of the AWS global infrastructure does Amazon CloudFront use to ensure low-latency delivery?

a)

AWS Regions

b)

Edge locations

c)

Availability Zones

d)

Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

41.

How would a system administrator add an additional layer of login security to a user's AWS Management Console?

a)

Use Amazon Cloud Directory

b)

Audit AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles

c)

Enable multi-factor authentication

d)

Enable AWS CloudTrail

42.

Which service can identify the user that made the API call when an Amazon EC2 instance is terminated?

a)

AWS Trusted Advisor

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

AWS X-Ray

d)

AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM)

43.

Which service would be used to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms?

a)

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

AWS Trusted Advisor

d)

Amazon Route 53

44.

Where can a user find information about prohibited actions on the AWS infrastructure?

a)

AWS Trusted Advisor

b)

AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)

c)

AWS Billing Console

d)

AWS Acceptable Use Policy