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SIMULATION EXAM ANDREWS/KESHVARA

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 6hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following should NOT be used as a monotherapy to treat asthma?

a)

LAMA

b)

LABA

c)

SABA

2.

Which of the following causes B cell isotype switching that results in IgE production?

a)

IL-4

b)

IL-5

c)

IL-9

d)

IL-13

3.

Which of the following is responsible for eosinophilia in asthma?

a)

IL-4

b)

IL-5

c)

IL-9

4.

Which of the following is classified as LABA?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Terbutaline

c)

Levalbuterol

d)

Olodaterol

5.

Which of the following has the longest duration of action?

a)

Advair

b)

Symbicort

c)

Dulera

d)

Breo Ellipta

6.

Which of the following has the longest duration of action?

a)

Ipratropium bromide

b)

Aclidinium

c)

Tiotropium

d)

Glycopyrrolate

7.

Which of the following inhibits the production of leukotrienes?

a)

Roflumilast

b)

Zyleuton

c)

Montelukast

8.

Which of the following is/are a leukotriene receptor antagonist(s)? [select all that apply]

a)

Zyleuton

b)

Montelukast

c)

Zafirlukast

d)

Roflumilast

9.

Unlike in asthma, the inflammation in COPD mainly involves [select all that apply]

a)

Mast cells

b)

Helper T2 cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Cytotoxic T cells

10.

Which of the following is an antibody that binds to IL-5 receptor?

a)

Omalizumab

b)

Benralizumab

c)

Reslizumab

d)

Mepolizumab

11.

Which of the following blocks the functions of both IL-4 and IL-13 receptors?

a)

Dupilumab

b)

Mepolizumab

c)

Omalizumab

d)

Benralizumab

12.

Which of the following is/are the findings in atopy? Select all that apply

a)

Increased IgE titer

b)

Increased cyctotoxic T-cell count

c)

Increased Th2 count

d)

Eosinophilia

e)

Increased Th1 count

13.

Which of the following is/are characteristics of COPD that differentiate it from Asthma? Select all that apply

a)

Hyperresponsive airways

b)

IgE mediated inflammation

c)

Presence of neutrophils and cytotoxic T cells

d)

Inflammation damage to alveolar walls and lung parenchyma

e)

Inflammation resistant to corticosteroid treatment

14.

What are the beneficial effects of Beta 2 Agonists? Select all that apply

a)

Increase in ciliary activity

b)

Decreased plasma exudation

c)

Mast cell stabilization

d)

Reduced adhesion of bacteria to epithelium

e)

Bronchodilation

15.

What shows the yellow spot?

a)

Increases GCC and decreases MCC, decreasing resistance to metabolism.

b)

Increases GCC and decreases MCC, increasing resistance to metabolism.

16.
a)

It is required for glucocorticoid activity

b)

It is converted to a hydroxy group during activation

c)

It is converted to an ester during activation.

17.

Which represents the most potent GCC?

a)
b)
c)
18.

What letter show an increase in GCC and MCC

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

19.

What letter shows an increase in GCC activity only?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

20.

What letter represents suppression of MCC activity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.
a)

It increases both GCC and MCC

b)

It increases GCC activity

c)

It is removed during activation of this prodrug

22.

Which of the following are effects of Glucocorticoids? Select all that apply

a)

Loss of muscle mass

b)

Gluconeogenesis

c)

Decreased fibroblasts and collagen

d)

Decreased osteoblasts

e)

Redistribution of fat from limbs to trunk and face

23.

Which of the following are the effects caused by Beta 2 Agonist Inhalers? Select all that apply

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Somnolence

d)

Nervousness

e)

Muscle Tremors

24.

LABA is often used alone in?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Both ASTHMA and COPD patients

25.

Which of the following is the function of PDE?

a)

conversion of ATP to cAMP

b)

conversion of cAMP to AMP

c)

conversion of adenosine to AMP

26.

Which of the following is the consequence of inhibiting PDE?

a)

Decrease intracellular cAMP levels

b)

Increase in intracellular cAMP levels

27.

Roflumilast has an indicated use in which patients?

a)

Asthma

b)

COPD

c)

Both Asthma and COPD

28.

Arachidonic acid is derived from

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Membrane phospholipids

29.

Which of the following is the most potent LT as far as bronchoconstriction goes?

a)

LTC4

b)

LTD4

c)

LTE4

30.

Which LT blocker has a shorter half life and a greater propensity to cause drug drug interactions?

a)

Montelukast

b)

Zafirlukast

31.

Steroidal hormones are synthesized in?

a)

adrenal medulla

b)

adrenal cortex

32.

Which of the following are the physiological effects of Cortisol? Select all that apply

a)

Lipid redistribution

b)

Increased gluconeogenesis

c)

Thinning of skin

d)

Insomnia

e)

Increased glucose utilization by cells.

33.

Which of the following are immune effects of Cortisol? Select all that apply

a)

Increase in the number of circulating leukocytes

b)

Decrease in the number of circulating leukocytes

c)

Inhibition of leukotriene and prostaglandin production

d)

Increases in IgE specific immune responses

34.

Which of the following are a concern when using systemic glucocorticoids on a long term basis to treat Asthma? Select all that apply

a)

Hyperglicemia

b)

Weight gain

c)

Hypotension due to mineralcorticoid activity

d)

HPA supression

e)

Diminished response in lungs due to tolerance

35.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Prednisone?

a)

Prednisolone is a prodrug of prednisone

b)

Prednisone is a prodrug of prednisolone

c)

Prednisone is more potent than prednisolone

36.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Glucocorticoids? Select all that apply

a)

Inhaled GCC reduce the number of eosinophils

b)

Inhaled GCC reduce airway hyperresponsiveness over time

c)

Inhales GCC increase the number of Beta 2 receptors within airways

d)

Inhaled GCC becomes less effective over time due to desensitization

37.

Which of the following GCC inhaler features are desirable? Select all that apply

a)

greater first pass metabolism

b)

limited tissue distribution

c)

rapid systemic inactivation

d)

rapid systemic absorption

e)

high affinity for mineralcorticoid receptor

38.

In this give structure of Fluticasone Furoate, what is the significance of the circled furoate ester?

a)

It is removed as part of the activation of this prodrug.

b)

It enhances the GCC activity of the drug.

c)

It increases the first pass metabolism of the drug.

39.

Which of the following binds to circulating IgE antibodies?

a)

Omalizumab

b)

Mepolizumab

c)

Reslizumab

40.

Mepolizumab decreases the effects of

a)

IL-4

b)

IL-5

c)

IL-9

d)

IL-13

41.

Persistent inflammation or uncontrolled asthma will lead to? Select all that apply

a)

Epithelial damage & loss of ciliated cells

b)

Subepithelial fibrosis (collagen)

c)

Myocyte hypertrophy

d)

Angiogenesis (more edema)

e)

Thickening of airways (decreased elasticity)

42.

COPD is ? (Select all that apply)

a)

Inflammation predominantly in small airways

b)

Inflammation is chronic & minimally responsive to corticosteroids

c)

Small airway narrowing & fibrosis (obstructive bronchiolitis)

d)

Destruction of alveolar walls & lung parenchyma (emphysema)

e)

Excessive mucus production (obstructive)

43.

COPD Systemic manifestations? (Select all that apply)

a)

Skeletal muscle wasting

b)

Weight loss

c)

Depression

d)

Osteoporosis

e)

Ischemic heart disease

44.

COPD cellular components? Select all that apply

a)

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (Tc1)

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Macrophages

d)

Mast cells

e)

TH2

45.

Which one activates B2 to lead to to Bronchodilation?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

46.

Which one activates M3 to lead to to Bronchoconstriction mucus production ?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

47.

Which of the following counseling points should discussed with a patient who is starting roflumilast therapy?

a)

Do not use this medication with inhaled corticosteroids

b)

This therapy should only be taken during periods of increased symptoms of exacerbation

c)

A common side effect of this medication is gastrointestinal, including nausea

d)

Take in divided doses at least twice daily

48.

Which of the following best describes the impact of smoking cessation on the natural course of COPD?

a)

Cessation allows recovery of the majority of excess loss of lung function.

b)

Following cessation, the rate of loss of lung function decreases to that of a nonsmoker.

c)

Significant increases in spirometry are evident within one year.

d)

The risk for lung cancer is similar to life-long nonsmokers following cessation.

49.

Conventional pharmacologic therapy for pulmonary arterial hypertension includes all of the following except:

a)

Digoxin

b)

Oxygen therapy

c)

Sublingual nitroglycerin

d)

Warfarin

50.

Pulmonary hypertension can be defined as a mean pulmonary artery pressure of ≥____ mm Hg at rest with a pulmonary wedge pressure equal to or less than 15 mm Hg measured by right heart catheterization.

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

25

51.

Which of the following is a risk associated with inhaled corticosteroid use for the treatment of COPD?

a)

Increased mortality

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Pneumonia

52.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning ICS in the treatment of asthma?

a)

Available ICS are equipotent based on a mcg to mcg comparison.

b)

Advantages are high topical potency and low systemic activity.

c)

Response to therapy is prompt, with resolution of symptoms within 3 to 4 days.

d)

Therapeutic index is irrelevant to the delivery device

53.

A patient presenting with no discomfort at rest but increased dyspnea, fatigue, and chest pain on exertion is classified in which World Health Organization functional class?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

54.

Which of the following patients is expected to have a significant drop in oxygen saturation during a 6-minute walk test?

a)

A 21-year-old female with uncontrolled asthma

b)

A 65-year-old male with diffuse alveolar hemorrhage and a DLCO of 110%

c)

A 60-year-old male with severe emphysema and a DLCO of 30%

d)

A 50-year-old female with tracheal stenosis

55.

Which of the following therapies is appropriate to reduce the risk for exacerbations from COPD?

a)

Oral corticosteroids

b)

Long-acting muscarinic antagonists

c)

Antimicrobial agents

d)

Inhaled corticosteroids

56.

Which of the following counseling points is recommended for patient switching inhaled drug therapy from a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to a dry powder inhaler (DPI)?

a)

Continue to use an ancillary holding chamber with the new inhaler

b)

There is no need to exhale prior to use of the new inhaler

c)

Use a rapid forceful inhalation effort to aerosolize the dose of the new inhaler

d)

Rinse the new inhaler in warm water daily to ensure consistent dose delivery

57.

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT concerning biologics in the treatment of asthma?

a)

Omalizumab blocks release of interleukin-5

b)

Reslizumab is administered subcutaneously.

c)

Mepolizumab response is predicted by baseline blood eosinophil levels.

d)

Dupilumab blocks the IL-5 receptor.

58.

A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic with increasing dyspnea with mild exertion for 1 year, chest tightness, and occasional ankle edema, consistent with World Health Organization Class II pulmonary arterial hypertension. The patient denies paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea, wheezing, or palpitations but does report an 8-lb (3.6 kg) weight gain over the last year. The patient has no known drug allergies and is not currently taking any medications. She has previously been found unresponsive to acute vasoreactivity testing.

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

a)

Sildenafil 100 mg orally daily

b)

Epoprostenol 2 ng/kg/min continuous infusion

c)

Ambrisentan 5 mg orally daily

d)

Amlodipine 5 mg orally daily

59.

Which of the following pneumococcal vaccination strategies is recommended for 59-year-old patient with COPD?

a)

PPSV 23 only (pneumococcal polysaccharide)

b)

PCV 13 only (pneumococcal conjugate)

c)

PPSV 23 (pneumococcal polysaccharide) now, and PCV 13 (pneumococcal conjugate) in 8 weeks

d)

PCV 13 (pneumococcal conjugate) now, and PPSV 23 (pneumococcal polysaccharide) in one year

60.

Which of the following estimates of cigarette smoking as a cause of COPD is most accurate?

a)

12%

b)

30%

c)

55%

d)

85%

61.

Which of the following management strategies has been shown to reduce the progressive decline in lung function associated with COPD?

a)

Smoking cessation

b)

Inhaled corticosteroids

c)

Long-acting beta agonists

d)

Supplemental oxygen therapy

62.

If unresponsive to acute vasoreactivity testing, the patient should not receive which class of drug therapy?

a)

Calcium channel blockers

b)

Endothelin antagonistsv

c)

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

d)

Prostacyclin analogs

63.

The diagnosis of “obstructive” pattern in pulmonary function testing requires one of the following:

a)

Positive bronchodilator response

b)

Increased FEV1/FVC ratio

c)

Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

d)

Increased total lung capacity

e)

Decreased residual volume

64.

Epoprostenol is indicated for PAH patients in which of the following WHO functional classifications?

a)

WHO functional class I and II

b)

WHO functional class II and III

c)

WHO functional class II, III, and IV

d)

WHO functional class III and IV

65.

Which of the following symptoms is not suggestive of pulmonary arterial hypertension?

a)

Exertional chest pain

b)

Syncope

c)

Lower extremity edema

d)

Wheezing

66.

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the use of leukotriene modifiers in asthma management?

a)

Evidence to support causality of suicidal thoughts and suicide with use of LTRA's is lacking.

b)

LTRAs are more effective than LABAs as add-on to ICS therapy moderate persistent asthma.

c)

Montelukast has increased efficacy over short-acting inhaled β2-agonists for the treatment of EIB.

d)

Use of leukotriene modifiers is limited due to the potential for renal toxicity.

67.

Which of the following medication classes is utilized in the treatment of an acute exacerbation of COPD?

a)

Short-acting beta agonists

b)

Long-acting beta agonists

c)

Inhaled corticosteroids

d)

Long-acting muscarinic antagonists

68.

Which one of the following is NOT a mediator associated with airway inflammation?

a)

Histamine

b)

Goblet cells

c)

Leukotrienes

d)

Prostaglandins

69.

Which of the following medications is associated with significant elevations in aminotransferases, requiring baseline and monthly monitoring?

a)

Epoprostenol

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Sildenafil

d)

Bosentan

70.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Epoprostenol?

a)

A competitive antagonist of endothelin receptors, causing vasodilation of the pulmonary vasculature

b)

Phosphodiesterase inhibition, causing an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate leading to vasorelaxation

c)

Inhibition of influx of extracellular calcium, leading to vasodilation

d)

Direct vasodilation of pulmonary vascular beds as well as inhibition of platelet aggregation

71.

Which of the following medications does NOT trigger asthma symptoms?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Naproxen

c)

Propranolol

d)

Penicillin

72.

Which of the following is recommended for a patient who continues to experience symptoms of COPD despite treatment with a single long-acting bronchodilator therapy?

a)

Add a scheduled short-acting bronchodilator agent

b)

Add an inhaled corticosteroid

c)

Add another long-acting bronchodilator

d)

Add a chronic anti-inflammatory such as azithromycin

73.

Infection, catheter obstruction, and sepsis are potentially serious complications of which of the following drugs?

a)

Bosentan

b)

Sildenafil

c)

Treprostinil

d)

Diltiazem

74.

Which of the following has been shown to be an achievable outcome of pharmacotherapy for chronic management of COPD?

a)

Reduced mortality

b)

Normalization of spirometry

c)

Reduced exacerbations

d)

Prevention of accelerated loss of lung function

75.

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about the major characteristics of marketed dry powder inhalers (DPIs) used to deliver drugs to the lungs?

a)

Drug delivery is breath-actuated, requiring minimal hand–lung coordination by the patient.

b)

DPI's have been standardized to require the same inspiratory flow rate.

c)

Only inhaled corticosteroids are available as a DPI.

d)

Slow inhalation from the device is needed for optimal lung deposition of the powder.

76.

Which one of the following is NOT a dry powder inhaler?

a)

Diskus

b)

Flexhaler

c)

Respimat

d)

Twisthaler

77.

Which of the following agents is not used for acute vasoreactivity testing in pulmonary arterial hypertension?

a)

Epoprostenol

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Adenosine

d)

Nitric oxide

78.

Women of child-bearing age with pulmonary arterial hypertension should be counseled on the risks of pregnancy. Which of the following medications is teratogenic in pregnancy?

a)

Macitentan

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Epoprostenol

d)

Diltiazem

79.

A positive bronchodilator response is defined as:

a)

Increase in FEV1 >500 mL

b)

Increase in FEV1>200 mL

c)

Increase in FEV1>12%

d)

Increase in FEV1 >200 mL and 12%

80.

For a patient newly diagnosed with Gold stage 1, category A COPD, which of the following pharmacotherapy strategies is recommended?

a)

Start an inhaled corticosteroid

b)

Start an inhaled bronchodilator

c)

Start an oral leukotriene modifier

d)

Start supplemental oxygen

81.

A 37 year old female presents with the following: FEV1 76% predicted, use of albuterol (for rescue) 5-6 days/week, waking with asthma symptoms 4-5 times/month, and increased asthma symptoms during her daily walk to work and workouts. Her asthma severity would be classified as:

a)

Intermittent

b)

Mild

c)

Moderate

d)

Persistent