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Lindale FFA LDE senior quiz 2020

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The FFA is structured on how many levels

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

2.

which SAE type is based around being your own boss and your own enterprise?

a)

foundational

b)

placement

c)

enterpreneurship

d)

research

3.

in what year was the FFA code of Ethics adopted

a)

1950

b)

1952

c)

1958

d)

1959

4.

in 1959, the national future farmer magazine changed its name to what?

a)

FFA New Horizons

b)

new horizon magiazine

c)

FFA farmer magazine

d)

FFA new horizons farmer

5.

The FFA emblem consists of all of the following symbols, except which?

a)

cross section ear of corn

b)

rising sun

c)

owl

d)

farmer

6.

the FFA salute is what?

a)

the pledge of allegiance

b)

the Texas pledge

c)

the star spangled banner

d)

the national anthem

7.

to be eligible for the state FFA degree, members must

a)

have received the chapter ffa degree

b)

been an active member for a least two years

c)

have participated in at least 25 hours of community service

d)

all the above

8.

which is not a division of the program of actvities

a)

growing leaders

b)

growing individuals

c)

building communities

d)

strengthening agriculture

9.

how many high school chapters are chosen each year as a model of excellence award winner?

a)

8

b)

9

c)

10

d)

11

10.

SAE grants provide how much to members who need financial assistance to begin or expand their SAE enterprise

a)

$1000

b)

$750

c)

$500

d)

$250

11.

premier leadership is defined as

a)

influence

b)

dedication

c)

persercerance

d)

adaptability

12.

how many students national officers are there?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

13.

the national FFA foundation, Ic. was created in 1944 to provide funds from business and ______ to support new programs

a)

individuals

b)

communities

c)

industry

d)

corporations

14.

in what year was the national FFA center dedicated in Indianapolis, Indiana?

a)

1988

b)

1998

c)

2008

d)

2018

15.

who served as the national ffa presidnet in 1955-1956?

a)

cecil strickland

b)

Brian walsh

c)

james warren jr.

d)

kenny mcmillan

16.

what type of principles give purpose to parliamentary procedure?

a)

republican

b)

democratic

c)

independent

d)

democracy

17.

which of the following is not criteria for selecting members of the chapter conducting team?

a)

willingness to work

b)

team spirit

c)

calmness and self confidence

d)

ability to memorize parts

18.

A _____ is a minumum number of members who must be present at a meeting for the valid transaction of business to occur

a)

majority

b)

quorum

c)

minority

d)

group

19.

Motions must be voted upon in ________ order.

a)

Reverse

b)

Correct

c)

Optimal

d)

precedence

20.

How many steps are there in presenting a motion?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

21.

How many main motions may be before the chapter at any one time?

a)

three

b)

two

c)

one

d)

none

22.

To permit a chapter to do something that cannot be done without violating the standing

rules, they must what?

a)

rescind the motion

b)

reconsider the motion

c)

modify a motion

d)

suspend the standing rules

23.

Which is not a pertinent fact of a Parliamentary Inquiry?

a)

may interrupt a speaker

b)

obtain recognition

c)

voting is not required

d)

cannot be reconsidered

24.

The purpose of this motion is to termite the meeting.

a)

rescind

b)

withdraw

c)

adjourn

d)

reconsider

25.

The fourth step in presenting an item of business is?

a)

seconding the motion

b)

present the motion

c)

statement of the question

d)

recognition by the president

26.

Which is not an acceptable method of voting?

a)

rising

b)

voice

c)

roll call

d)

none of the above

27.

Unanimous votes are also known as what type of vote?

a)

general consent

b)

plurality

c)

majority

d)

two thirds

28.

Members may change their votes until when?

a)

the last vote is take

b)

the results of a vote is announced

c)

the end of the meeting

d)

never

29.

A president should ______ leave the chair and take part in debate.

a)

always

b)

never

c)

rarely

d)

usually

30.

A financial report from the treasurer is _____ acted upon by the chapter.

a)

not

b)

always

c)

never

d)

usually

31.

How many campuses are there across the state that offer instruction in Agriculture, Food

and Natural Resources?

a)

3,050

b)

3,075

c)

4,050

d)

5,050

32.

Every Foundational SAE will provide experiences in _____ components as a graded part

of each of your agricultural education courses.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

33.

In 2015, the ____ anniversary of the FFA/NFA was celebrated.

a)

25th

b)

30th

c)

45th

d)

50th

34.

The Texas FFA Foundation Capital Campaign kicked off at which Texas FFA

Convention?

a)

72nd

b)

73rd

c)

74th

d)

75th

35.

Which state officer for the 2020-2021 year is from Area II?

a)

Blake Mills

b)

Caitlyn Muckensturm

c)

Emilee Sanderson

d)

Isabella Yoder

36.

There are currently how many areas represented in the state of Texas?

a)

10

b)

11

c)

9

d)

12

37.

In what year was Texas represented by an American Star Finalist in the Star Awards?

a)

2010

b)

2015

c)

2018

d)

2020

38.

In what grades are Greenhand Creed Speakers eligible to compete?

a)

7-9

b)

8-9

c)

9-12

d)

10-12

39.

In what region will the 2021 Wildlife CDE contest be hosted?

a)

Region IV

b)

Region V

c)

Region VI

d)

Region VII

40.

Who is the State SDE Advisory Committee Superintendent?

a)

Austin Large

b)

Tammy Glasscock

c)

Randy Harp

d)

Maggie Salem

41.

What is the minimum score a FFA member may have on the SAT in order to be eligible

for a Texas FFA Scholarship?

a)

900

b)

1000

c)

1250

d)

1350

42.

How many career clusters are in Career and Technical Education?

a)

11

b)

12

c)

13

d)

14

43.

Who serves as the membership coordinator for the Texas FFA?

a)

Tammy Glasscock

b)

Carolee Frampton

c)

Gwenn Cain

d)

Tricia Sullivan

44.

Each chapter is entitled to send ___ delegate from its active membership plus one

additional delegate for 50 members or any fraction thereof above the first 50 members.

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

45.

Who serves as a co-chair with Dr. Doug Ullrich for the state Leadership Development

Event Committee?

a)

Dr. Randy Harp

b)

Dr. Dwayne Pavlock

c)

Dr. David Frazier

d)

Mr. Aaron Alejandro

46.

In what year was the economic census created?

a)

1830

b)

1834

c)

1840

d)

1844

47.

The millennial generation includes how many farmers?

a)

257,454

b)

257,453

c)

257,452

d)

257,451

48.

What percentage of United States farms market foods locally, through

direct-to-consumer or intermediated sales.

a)

7%

b)

8%

c)

9%

d)

11%

49.

What percentage of disposable income does France spend on food?

a)

10%

b)

13%

c)

23%

d)

42%

50.

The Beef Checkoff Program is a ________-funded marketing and research program

designed to increase domestic and/or international demand for beef.

a)

Consumer

b)

Consumer

c)

Processor

d)

Producer

51.

How many days does it take for chicks to hatch?

a)

18

b)

21

c)

24

d)

30

52.

Which breed of dairy cattle originated in Scotland?

a)

Ayrshire

b)

Brown Swiss

c)

Holstein

d)

Jersey

53.

What is meat called that comes from mature goats?

a)

Mutton

b)

Chevon

c)

Cabrito

d)

None of the above

54.

How many chromosomes do sheep have?

a)

32

b)

36

c)

54

d)

60

55.

You can tell how old a horse is by looking at its what?

a)

Height

b)

Hooves

c)

Tail

d)

Teeth

56.

Rough Stock events include all of the following except:

a)

Bareback Bronc Riding

b)

Saddle Bronc Riding

c)

Bull Riding

d)

None of the above

57.

Texas is the leading hides and skins exporting state, adding how much to the economy?

a)

$341 million

b)

$431 million

c)

$134 million

d)

$413 million

58.

High Fructose Corn Syrup is derived from what?

a)

Corn Starch

b)

Corn

c)

Milo

d)

Wheat

59.

How many hours of labor was needed to produce 100 bushels of wheat in 1930?

a)

250-300

b)

40-50

c)

15-20

d)

3

60.

Which of the following crops provides similar benefits as oats and barley, and is an

option for fodder production?

a)

Alfalfa

b)

Barley

c)

Millet

d)

Red Wheat

61.

Ag Issues Briefs:

“The Farm Bill” is the commonly known name for what?

a)

The Agriculture Improvement Act of 2010

b)

The Agriculture Improvement Act of 2014

c)

The Agriculture Improvement Act of 2017

d)

The Agriculture Improvement Act of 2018

62.

The 2018 Farm Bill has 12 titles. Which is number 7?

a)

Trade

b)

Research

c)

Horticulture

d)

Crop Insurance

63.

Between 2019 and 2023, more than 76% of the farm bill spending is projected to go

toward what program?

a)

Nutrition

b)

Commodities

c)

Trade

d)

Crop insurance

64.

NAFTA is a comprehensive economic and trade agreement that established a free-trade

area between the U.S., Canada and which other country?

a)

Europe

b)

France

c)

Italy

d)

Mexico

65.

The term “pesticides” refers to many types of crop protection products including?

a)

Insecticides

b)

Herbicides

c)

Fungicides

d)

All the above

66.

All of the following share the responsibility for the regulation of pesticides, except:

a)

EPA

b)

DEA

c)

USDA

d)

FDA

67.

What is a key technology utilized in precision agriculture?

a)

GPS

b)

UPS

c)

AWS

d)

USDA

68.

Organic food differs from conventionally produced food only in the way it is...

a)

Grown

b)

Handled

c)

Processed

d)

All of the above

69.

How many wild horses and burros currently roam 27 million acres of western public

land?

a)

73,000

b)

23,000

c)

83,000

d)

53,000

70.

According to the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE), what type of energy is the world’s

fastest-growing energy technology?

a)

Wind

b)

Solar

c)

Water

d)

Electric

71.

71. Every ____ years, the farm bill expires.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

72.

How many phases are there included in the farm bill process?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

73.

Which of the following is not a permanent provision of the Tax Cuts and Job Act?

a)

Indefinite Carry Forward of Deductions Indexed for Inflation

b)

New Flat 21 percent Corporate Tax Rate

c)

Repeal of the Corporate Alternative Minimum Tax (AMT)

d)

Depreciation for Farm Equipment Shortened from 7 to 3 years

74.

Which of the following technologies keep farmers on the cutting edge of agriculture?

a)

Precision agriculture

b)

Remote sensing

c)

Specialized software

d)

All of the above

75.

Which of the following is NOT a highly trained and educated individual that offers crop

production and pest management recommendations to farmers?

a)

Certified Crop Adviser

b)

Licensed Pest Control Adviser

c)

Agriculture Extension Agent

d)

None of the above

76.

Tre/False:

There are three divisions that make up the program of activities?

a)

True

b)

False

77.

The FFA is structured on 5 levels.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

There are 7 types of Supervised Agricultural Experiences.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Middle school FFA members are those in grades 6-9.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The NFA and FFA merged in 1965.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The first state meeting of the NFA was in Virginia in 1928.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Harold Gum resigned his office as National FFA President to join the military.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

President Jimmy Carter spoke at the 51st National FFA Convention.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The Future Farmers of America changed its name to the National FFA Organization in

1988.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

The cross section ear of corn provides the foundation for the FFA jacket.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

California was the 4th state to receive their FFA charter.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

State associations may consider secondary agricultural education programs to be

grades 3-12.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

To be eligible to receive the State FFA Degree from the state association, a member

must have completed the equivalent of 460 hours of systemic school instruction in

agricultural education at or above the ninth grade level.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The procedure for equating hours worked with dollars earned and productively invested

for the American FFA degree is by multiplying the hours worked by a factor of 3.56.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The National Quality FFA Chapter Standards include 14 indicators.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

GRAY’S PARLIAMENTARY GUIDE:

To be an effective leader, a presiding officer should possess 8 characteristics.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

The fourth step in presenting a motion is seconding the motion.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

In basic parliamentary law, the maker or presenter of any debatable motion should be

called on last by the presiding officer to debate the motion.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Debate must be limited to the immediately pending question, which is the last question

stated by the president.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

If a two-thirds vote is required, either a rising or majority vote should be taken.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The purpose of referring to a committee is to temporarily delay action on an item of

business.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

An announcement of a vote and an answer to a parliamentary inquiry are decisions of

the chair, and therefore cannot be appealed from.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

You may interrupt a speaker when calling division of the assembly.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

The proposer of a motion may withdraw or modify his/her motion without consent of

anyone after the chair has stated it.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Take from the table is undebatable and amendable.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

A financial report from the treasurer is not acted upon by the chapter.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Following the approval of the minutes, the president should then sign them.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

To abstain is to publicly refrain from debating.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

The executive board is the body of elected or appointed members who jointly

oversee the activities of a company or organization.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

There are 5 classifications of motions.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Leadership Guide:

There are 31 AFNR courses which provide rigorous and challenging opportunities for

more than 191,833 young Texans.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Agricultural Literacy is not a component of a Foundational SAE.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

There were 22 schools approved to teach vocational agriculture in the 1917-1918 school

year.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Jay Eudy was the first chairman of the Texas FFA Board of Directors.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Richard Wallrath made Texas FFA history by becoming the Texas FFA Foundation’s

all-time leading contributor by giving more than $1.5 million.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Texas High School Foundation endorsements include STEM, Business and Industry,

Public Services, Arts and Humanities, and Multidisciplinary Studies.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

The selection of Immersion SAEs should align to and support your career interest

defined in your career plan.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

President Woodrow Wilson signed the Smith-Hughes Act into law on February 22, 2917.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

In 1972, Fred McClure of San Antonio became the first African-American member to

serve as president of the Texas FFA.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Delegates at the 90th Texas FFA Convention voted to merge Collegiate and Alumni FFA

into one entity.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

The current chairperson of the Texas FFA Association Board of Directors is Tammy

Christian of Penelope.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

The Executive Director of the Texas FFA Board of Directors is Tom Maynard.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Isabella Yoder represents Area VI as a Texas FFA Vice President.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

The number of districts within each area of the state association is four to seven.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

According to state bylaws, re-alignment must be considered every five years.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Farm Facts:

The Texas Commissioner of Agriculture is Bob Hall.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Census of Agriculture data is used to allocate local and national funds for farm

programs.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Farm and ranch families comprise just 2% of the United States population.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

The retail trade industry accounts for 12.4 cents of every dollar spent on food.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

The average age of Texas farmers and ranchers is 68 years old.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

There are currently 29 cuts of beef that meet government guidelines for lean such as

tenderloin, sirloin and 95% lean ground beef.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Broilers are ranked third in Texas in terms of cash receipts.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

A withdrawal period is required of antibiotics, therefore ensuring that no residues are

present in a bird’s system at the time of processing.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

It takes 39 cups of milk to make .5 pound of butter.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

Milk contains 18 essential nutrients.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

The insulin hormone used to treat diabetes in humans is found in pig pancreas glands.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

There are four major categories of wool: long wool, fine wool, medium wool and carpet

wool.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Ruminants have four-compartment stomachs.

a)

True

b)

False

134.

Dairy goats have a life span of approximately 8 to 14 years.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

The majority of Texas corn production goes to exports.

a)

True

b)

False

136.

Ag Issues Briefs:

The Agriculture Improvement Act of 2018 (commonly known as the farm bill)

reauthorizes through Fiscal Year 2023.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Every four years the farm bill expires and is updated: proposed, debated, and passed by

Congress and then signed into law by the President.

a)

True

b)

False

138.

The 2018 Farm Bill has 11 titles to include: Commodities, Conservation, Trade, Nutrition,

Credit, Rural Development, Research, Forestry, Energy, Horticulture and Crop

Insurance.

a)

True

b)

False

139.

Members of Congress who sit on the Senate and House Committees on Agriculture,

Nutrition, and Forestry hold the primary responsibility of drafting farm bills.

a)

True

b)

False

140.

The Farm Bill provides permanent funding for the Beginning Farmer and Rancher

Development Program (BFRDP) and the “2501” program for socially disadvantaged,

veteran and beginning farmers and ranchers through the new Farming Opportunities

Training and Outreach (FOTO) program.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

Pesticides gone through some 120 health, safety and environmental tests to ensure their

safety and effectiveness before being registered by the FDA.

a)

True

b)

False

142.

According to the USDA’s Economic Research Service (ERS), animal products account

for the majority (51 percent) of the value of U.S. agricultural products, exceeding $100

billion per quarter.

a)

True

b)

False

143.

Food and Mouth Disease (FMD) is a severe, and a highly communicable viral disease of

cattle, swine, and other cloven-hoofed animals.

a)

Truef

b)

False

144.

Nanotechnology materials are available to consumers, included in golf clubs, tennis

balls, sunscreens, and cosmetics.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

According to the Bureau of Land Management, the lifetime cost of caring for a single

horse in an off-range facility is approximately $45,000.

a)

True

b)

False

146.

According to the U.S. Department of Energey (DOE), wind energy is the world’s

fastest-growing energy technology.

a)

True

b)

False

147.

Currently, the United States leads the world in wind energy production.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

There are four phases of the farm bill process: reauthorization, appropriation,

rulemakeing, and outreach and evaluation.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Between 2018 and 2023, more than 76 percent of the farm bill pending, or $326 billion,

is projected to go toward nutrition programs.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Title 10 of the Farm Bill is directed towards horticulture.

a)

True

b)

False