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NSAID

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 2hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements are true about inflammatory process? SATA

a)

Transient local vasodilation and increased capillary permeability

b)

Infiltration of leukocytes and phagocytic cells

c)

Resolution with or without tissue degeneration and fibrosis

2.

Which of the following mediators are involve to inflammatory process? SATA

a)

Chemical:

1.histamine

2.serotonin

3. prostaglandins (PGE2, PGI2, PGD2)

4.bradykinins

5.leukotrienes (LTs)

b)

Chemotactic:

1. platelet-activating factor (PAF)

2. complement factor C5a, LTB4

c)

Immunologic:

1. IL-1

2. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) in concert with other cytokines

3.growth factors (IL-2, IL-6, IL-8)

d)

Others:

1. endothelial intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1),

2. oxygen radicals

Nitric oxide

3.

Which of the following statements are true about fever? SATA

a)

may caused by

1. infection (viral/bacterial)

2. inflammation

3. graft rejection

4. malignancy

b)

Infection, inflammation, etc., can enhance the formation of cytokines such as IL-6, IL-1β, TNFα and interferons (act as endogenous pyrogens)

c)

initial phase of thermoregulatory response: Mediated by ceramide release (triggers IL-1β formation) in neurons of the pre-optic area of the hypothalamus

d)

later phase response:

1. Is mediated by induction of cyclooxygenase (COX-2) and formation of PGE2

2. PGE2  acts on EP receptors on thermosensitive neurons which triggers the hypothalamus to elevate body temperature by increase heat generation and decrease heat loss

4.

Which of the following statements are true about pain? SATA

a)

Peripheral terminals of primary afferent fibers that sense pain (nociceptors)can be activated by stimuli such as heat, acids and pressure

b)

During tissue injury, inflammatory mediators (e.g., bradykinin, H+, serotonin, LTs, ATP, PGs, nerve growth factor) increase the sensitivity of nociceptors and potentiate pain perception

c)

Neuropeptides such as substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) may also be involved in the generation of pain

d)

PGE2 and PGI2 reduce the threshold of the stimulation of nociceptors leading to peripheral sensitization

e)

PGE2, PGD2, PGI2 and PGF2α contribute to central sensitization (an increase in the excitability of spinal dorsal horn neurons that cause hyperalgesia and allodynia

5.

RA is distinguished by joint swelling and tenderness and destruction of synovial joints, leading to disability and premature death. First joint tissue affected is the synovial membrane which lines the joint cavity

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

Which of the following statements are true about rheumatoid arthritis? SATA

autoimmune targeting of normal joint proteins lead to

a)

COX-2 increases PGE2 biosynthesis which stimulates pain pathways

b)

5-LOX-derived leukotrienes activate the surrounding endothelium to recruit inflammatory cells

c)

Release of cytokines such as TNF, growth factors and interleukins which induce COX-2 expression

d)

Macrophages release collagenase and proteases while lymphocyte activity leads to the formation of the immune complex (both processes further damage joint tissue)

7.

Rheumatoid arthritis:

1. Joints commonly affected: fingers, feet, wrists, elbows and ankles

2. Other joints: shoulders, hips and cervical spine

3. Tissues: lungs, heart, kidneys and skin

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which of the following drugs are non-selective NSAID? SATA

a)

Salicylates: acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) and its derivative

b)

Propionic acid derivatives: ibuprofen, naproxen, ketoprofen and flurbiprofen

c)

Acetic acid derivatives: indomethacin, diclofenac, nabumetone, sulindac and etodolac

d)

Oxicam derivatives: piroxicam, meloxicam

e)

Fenamate derivatives: mefenamic acid

9.

Which of the following statements are true? sata

a)

NSAIDs inhibit COX leading to a decrease production of PGs and thromboxanes

b)

COX-1: a constitutive enzyme involved in physiologic activities such as vascular homeostasis, maintenance of renal and GI blood flow

c)

Non-selective NSAIDs inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2

d)

COX-2: an inducible enzyme involved in inflammation,  fever and pain.  It can be induced by cytokines and endotoxins

e)

Aspirin covalently modifies COX-1 and COX-2, irreversibly inhibiting COX activity

10.

Which of the following statements are true about NSAID anti-inflammatory action? SATA

a)

A decrease in the release of vasodilator PGE2 and PGI2 means less vasodilation and indirectly, less edema

b)

Inhibition of the migration of leukocytes and macrophages into inflammationsites

c)

Stabilization of lysosomal membranes

11.

Which of the following statements are true about NSAID analgesic action? SATA

a)

Effective against pain of low to moderate intensity

b)

Decreased PG generation means less sensitization of nociceptive nerve endings to the action of bradykinin, histamine and other chemical mediators

c)

Effective when inflammation has caused peripheral and/or central sensitization of pain perception

12.

Which of the following statements are true about NSAID antipyretic action? SATA

a)

Due to a decrease in the COX-2 mediated PGE2 generation in response to bacterial or inflammatory pyrogens (which is responsible for elevating the hypothalamic set-point for temperature control)

b)

NSAID do not influence normal body temperature or when it is elevated by such factors such as exercise or increases in ambient temperature

13.

Which of the following statements are true about NSAID side effects on gastric or intestinal ulceration? SATA

a)

Inhibition of COX-1 in gastric epithelial cells depresses mucosal cytoprotective PGI2 and PGE2

b)

Inhibition of PG-induced inhibition of gastric acid secretion

c)

Local irritation from contact of orally administered drug with gastric mucosa

d)

Increased generation of products of the lipoxygenase pathway

14.

Which of the following statements are true about NSAID side effects on cardiovascular system? SATA

a)

COX-2 selective NSAIDs can cause myocardial infarction, stroke and thrombosis

b)

Due to depression of COX-2 dependent PGs (PGI2) formed in the vasculature and kidney without an effect on COX-1 catalyzed formation of platelet thromboxane TXA2

c)

PGI2 inhibits platelet aggregation and constrains the effect of prothrombotic and atherogenic stimuli by TXA2

15.

Which of the following statements are true about side effects of NSAI on renal-vascular? SATA

a)

Promote retention of salt and water by

1. Inhibiting PG-induced inhibition of reabsorption of chloride

2. inhibition of action of ADH

b)

Promote hyperkalemia via

1. Suppression of PG-induced secretion of renin

2.Increased reabsorption of K+

c)

Chronic uses of high doses of NSAIDs can lead to analgesic nephropathy (a condition of slowly progressive renal failure, decreased concentrating capacity of the renal tubule and sterile pyuria)

d)

No effect on renal function or blood pressure in normal human subjects

e)

In patients with congestive heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis, chronic renal disease and hypovolemia, inhibition of vasodilatory PG production leads to a decrease in renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate

16.

NSAID can prolong gestation.

Myometrial COX-2 expression and levels of PGE2 and PGF2α increase significantly in the myometrium during labor

Use of NSAIDs in late pregnancy can increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

NSAID can us to close inappropriately patent ductus arteriosus in neonates

a)

true

b)

false

18.

Salicylates are including aspirin, salicylic acid, methyl salicylate,  sulfasalazine, olsalazine and balsalazide.

a)

true

b)

false

19.

Which of the following statements are true about salicylates? SATA

a)

Acts by acetylating COX-1 and COX-2 leading to inhibition of their activity

b)

Acetylated COX-2 can form 15-epi-lipoxins which have potent anti-inflammatory actions

c)

Antipyretic dose < anti-inflammatory dose

d)

Large doses of salicylates have been used for anti-inflammatory and anti-rheumatic actions

e)

Salicylates are metabolized by the liver into salicyluric acid (glycine conjugate), the ether or phenolic glucuronide, and the ester or acyl glucuronide

20.

Which of the following statements are true about salicylates excretion? SATA

a)

Kidney excretion via carrier facilitated transport mechanism for weak organic acids

b)

Rate of urinary excretion is higher in alkaline than in acid urine

c)

Rate of urinary excretion is also enhanced  by a higher rate of urine flow (polyuria)

d)

Salicylate clearance is reduced, and salicylate exposure is significantly increased in the elderly

e)

Plasma t1/2 for aspirin is about 20 minutes and for salicylate is 2-3 h.  After a large dose, plasma t1/2 of salicylate may rise to 15-30 h

21.

Which of the following statements are direct effects of salicylates to respiration? SATA

a)

Direct stimulation of the respiratory center in the medulla in medium to large doses

b)

Hyperventilation is characterized by an increase in the depth and a pronounced increase in respiratory rate

c)

The plasma CO2 tension (PCO2) falls, and primary respiratory alkalosis ensues

22.

Which of the following statements are INDIRECT effects of salicylates to respiration? SATA

a)

Increase in O2 consumption and CO2 production (especially in skeletal muscle) in anti-inflammatory doses: Mechanism is due to salicylate-induced uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation

b)

Hyperventilation is characterized by an increase in depth of respiration and only a slight increase in rate

c)

Increased alveolar ventilation balances the increased CO2 production and thus plasma PCO2 does not change or decreases slightly

23.

Therapeutic doses of salicylates produce changes in the acid-base and electrolyte pattern. Compensation for the initial event, respiratory alkalosis is achieved by

a)

Increased renal excretion of bicarbonate which is accompanied by Na+ and K+ excretion

b)

Plasma bicarbonate is lowered, and blood pH returns to normal

c)

This is the stage of compensatory respiratory acidosis often seen in adults given intensive salicylate therapy

24.

At high toxic salicylate levels, there is uncompensated respiratory acidosis plus metabolic acidosis, with the latter seen in children.  This stage is characterized by

a)

The enhanced production of CO2 outstrips its alveolar excretion because of direct salicylate-induced depression of respiration

b)

Plasma PCO2 increases

c)

Blood pH decreases

d)

Metabolic acidosis is caused by the accumulation of strong acids such as sulfuric and phosphoric acids

25.

Changes in acid-base balance during salicylate intoxication also causes alterations of water and electrolyte balance

1. The low plasma PCO2 leads to decreased renal tubular reabsorption of bicarbonate and increased renal excretion of Na+, K+ and water

2. Water is also lost by salicylate-induced sweating and hyperventilation leading to dehydration

a)

true

b)

false

26.

Which of the following statements are true about hepatic and renal effects of salicylates? SATA

a)

In large doses, salicylates can cause hepatic injury after several months of treatment.  The injury is reversible after discontinuation of treatment

b)

Salicylates may play a role in the severe hepatic injury and encephalopathy associated with Reye’s syndrome (consequence of viral infection in children

c)

Large doses of salicylates may cause hyperglycemia and glycosuria and  can deplete liver and muscle glycogen

d)

Retention of salt and water, as well as acute reduction in renal function (↓ RBF and GFR) in patients with congestive heart failure, renal disease and hypovolemia

27.

A single dose of aspirin can prolong bleeding time of normal persons for a period of 4 to 7 days. Due to acetylation of the active site of COX in platelets leading to a reduction in the biosynthesis of TXA2

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Aspirin is used widely for the prophylaxis of thromboembolic disease. Patients with severe hepatic damage, hypoprothrombinemia, vitamin K deficiency and hemophilia should avoid the use of aspirin

a)

True

b)

false

29.

Which of the following dose of salicylate will increase plasma urate concentration?

a)

low dose (1-2 g/day)

b)

intermediate (2-3g/day)

c)

large doses (>5g/day)

30.

Salicylism (mild form of intoxication) is characterized by: headache, dizziness, tinnitus, difficulty in hearing, mental confusion, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, nausea and vomiting

a)

true

b)

false

31.

Which of the following treatments are used for salicylate intoxication? SATA

a)

Absorption of salicylates can be reduced by emesis, gastric aspiration and administration of activated charcoal

b)

Administration of intravenous fluids to correct acid-base imbalance

c)

hemodialysis

32.

acetic acid derivatives is used for rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, acute gouty arthritis and other musculoskeletal disorders.

Indomethacin has specific utility in promoting the closure of a patent ductus arteriosus in newborns (due to inhibition of vasodilatory PGs

a)

true

b)

false

33.

oxicam derivatives includes piroxicam and meloxicam. They have similar efficacy as aspirin, naproxen, indomethacin and ibuprofen. Meloxicam shows some COX-2 selectivity and Piroxicam can inhibit the activation of neutrophils, apparently independent of its action on COX

a)

true

b)

false

34.

fenamate derivatives: In addition to inhibition of COX, fenamates (especially meclofenamate) can also block PG receptors and use for primary dysmenorrhea

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Which of the following statements are true about ketone derivative? SATA

a)

Nabumetone is a ketone prodrug

b)

Compared to other NSAIDs, it has a preferential activity against COX2

c)

Converted in liver to active metabolite, 6-methoxy-2-napthylacetic acid

d)

Low incidence of GI disturbances

e)

Uses: rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis

36.

Which of the following statements are true about celecoxib? SATA

a)

Has a greater selectivity (about 100 times) for COX-2 than COX-1 isoenzyme

b)

Has anti-inflammatory, antipyretic and analgesic properties similar to traditional NSAIDs but does not share the anti-platelet actions of COX-1 inhibitors

c)

Relative to traditional (non-selective) NSAIDs, the safety profile of selective COX-2 inhibitors is uncertain due to the uncovering of increased thrombogenicity with clinical use

d)

Celecoxib is the only FDA approved drug in this class

e)

Uses: osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis and primary dysmenorrhea

37.

acetaminophen has analgesic and antipyretic actions similar to those of the salicylates but has a weak anti-inflammatory actions. A weak effect on COX may be due to the fact that acetaminophen can only inhibit the enzyme in an environment that is low in peroxides (during inflammation, high concentrations of peroxides are generated by leukocytes)

a)

true

b)

false

38.

acetaminophen inhibits the generation of nitric oxide because its anti-nociceptive actions can be reversed by L-arginine

a)

true

b)

false

39.

Acetaminophen may be more effective against COX in the brain than in the periphery (could explain its antipyretic efficacy)

a)

true

b)

false

40.

Compared to NSAIDs, acetaminophen

a)

Has no effect on the respiratory system

b)

Has no effect on platelet aggregation

c)

Has no effect on uric acid excretion or on acid-base balance

d)

Does not cause gastric irritation or bleeding

41.

A small proportion of acetaminophen undergoes cytochrome P-450-mediated N-hydroxylation to form N-acetyl-benzoquinone-imine (NAPQI), a highly reactive intermediate that is toxic to both the liver and kidneys in high concentrations

a)

true

b)

false

42.

Which of the following statements are true about acetaminophen toxicity? SATA

a)

Principal toxicity associated with over dosage is potentially fatal hepatic necrosis

b)

Mechanism involves covalent binding of the toxic alkylating metabolite, NAPQI to sulfhydryl groups in glutathione (GSH) to form mercapturic acid

c)

After GSH is depleted, NAPQI combines with sulfhydryl groups on hepatic proteins leading to hepatic necrosis.  Depletion of GSH renders hepatocytes highly susceptible to oxidative stress and apoptosis

d)

Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain

e)

Treatment includes activated charcoal or/and N-acetylcysteine

43.

Which of the following statements are true about rheumatoid arthritis? SATA

a)

The main inflammatory conditions in which NSAIDs are effective include rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis and soft tissue rheumatism

b)

NSAIDs have minimal effects on the progression of joint deformity

c)

Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) reduce the disease activity of rheumatoid arthritis and retard the progression of arthritic tissue destruction

d)

DMARDs include a diverse group of small molecule non-biological and biological (mainly antibodies and binding proteins) agents

44.

Which of the following statements are true about small molecules for rheumatoid arthritis treatment? SATA

a)

methotrexate - A dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor that inhibits cytokine production and purine nucleotide biosynthesis leading to immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory actions

b)

leflunomide - Is an immunomodulatory drug that inhibits the activity of  autoimmune lymphocytes by acting on dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHOD) which important for pyrimidine syn, a requirement for activated proliferating lymphosytes

c)

hydroxychloroquine - a anti-malaria drug with unknown MOA

d)

cyclosporine (calcineurin inhibitor; immunosuppressant) and azathioprine (purine synthase inhibitor; immunosuppressant)

45.

Which of the following statements are true about methotrexate? SATA

a)

A dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor that inhibits cytokine production and purine nucleotide biosynthesis leading to immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory actions

b)

Can slow the appearance of new erosions within joints

c)

Doses of methotrexate needed for RA is much lower than that need for CA chemotherapy (weakly dose)

d)

Common side effects associated with RA therapy are mucosal ulceration and nausea

46.

Which of the following statements are true about prototype adalimumab? SATA

a)

Drugs in this class includes adalimumab, infliximab, certolizumab, etanercept and golimumab

b)

These drugs can decrease signs and symptoms of RA, reduce the progression of structural damage and improve physical conditions of patents

c)

recombinant monoclonal antibody - active SC

d)

Drug Interactions: avoid live vaccines, warfarin, cyclosporine and theophylline

e)

Acts by binding to endogenous TNFα and blocking its activit

47.

Interleukin Inhibitors: Drugs in this class include anakinra (IL-1), canakinumab (IL-1β), sarilumab, tocilizumab (IL-6) and secukinumab (IL-17α)

By inhibiting interleukins, these drugs prevent the inflammatory response in the synovium associated with RA.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following statements are true about Janus Kinase Inhibitors? SATA

a)

Drugs in this class include baricitinib and tofacitinib

b)

modulate immune cell activity in response to binding of inflammatory mediators to cellular membranes

c)

By inhibiting Janus kinase, these drugs block cytokine signaling thus preventing the inflammation and activation of immune system associated with RA

d)

Cytokines, growth factors, interferons can increase Janus kinase activity and activation of the immune system