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AUGUST 2022 SUMMATIVE

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1.     Defined as rate of 120-250 bpm with wide and bizarre  PVC-like QRS complexes

a)

a.     Accessory Mediated SVT

b)

b.     Monomorphic VT

c)

c.     Polymorphic VT

d)

d.     Torsades de Pointes

2.

1.     Defined as rate of 150-250 bpm with irregular rhythm and spindle-node pattern QRS complexes

a)

a.     Accessory Mediated SVT

b)

b.     Monomorphic VT

c)

c.     Polymorphic VT

d)

d.     Torsades de Pointes

3.

1.     Defined as rate of 120-250 bpm with regular rhythm and marked variation and inconsistency seen on QRS complexes

a)

a.     Accessory Mediated SVT

b)

b.     Monomorphic VT

c)

c.     Polymorphic VT

d)

d.     Torsades de Pointes

4.

1.     In the 2020 American Heart Association Adult Tachycardia with a Pulse Algorithm, what is the recommended dosage for Synchronized cardioversion?

a)

a.     Narrow regular: 20-40J

b)

b.     Narrow Irregular: 50-100J

c)

c.     Wide regular: 50 J

d)

d.     Refer to specific device’s recommended energy level

5.

1.     Which of the following drugs is not used in Tachyarrhythmias?

a)

a.     Amiodarone

b)

b.     Magnesium Sulfate

c)

c.     Dopamine

d)

d.     Lidocaine

6.

1.     Which of the following causes bradycardia

a)

a.     Oculocardiac Reflex

b)

b.     Peritoneal Stimulation

c)

c.     Carotid Body Stimulation

d)

d.     All of the above

7.
a)

a.     Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

a.     Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

a.     Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

a.     Torsades de Pointes

8.
a)

a.     Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

a.     Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

a.     Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

a.     Torsades de Pointes

9.
a)

a.     Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

a.     Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

a.     Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

a.     Torsades de Pointes

10.
a)

Second degree AV Block Type 1

b)

a.     Second degree AV Block Type 2

c)

a.     Accessory Mediated SVT

d)

a.     Torsades de Pointes

11.

1.    You can predict easy intubation in a patient who

a)

a.    Has no teeth

b)

b.    Has a short neck

c)

c.    Has a receding mandible

d)

d.    Has prominent upper incisors

12.

1.    You can safely manage the airway in a patient with suspected cervical spine injury by:

a)

a.    Chin lift

b)

b.    Head tilt

c)

c.    Jaw thrust

d)

d.    None of the above

13.

1.    Subjective criteria for awake extubation except:

a)

a.    VC > 10 ml/kg

b)

b.    Breathing spontaneously

c)

c.    Intact gag reflex

d)

d.    5 sec sustained head lift

14.

1.    Use of oropharyngeal devices

a)

a.    Prevents biting the tube, tongue

b)

b.    Suctioning

c)

c.    Better mask fit

d)

d.    All of the above

15.

1.    Contraindications of nasopharyngeal airways except:

a)

a.    Anticoagulants

b)

b.    Basilar skull fracture

c)

c.    Pierre robin syndrome

d)

d.    Nose pathology

16.

1.    Gold standard for verification of tracheal intubation:

a)

a.    Capnography

b)

b.    Visualization of tube placement through vocal cord

c)

c.    Visualization of chest excursion

d)

d.    Flexible scope identification of tracheal anatomy

17.

1.    The following are physical exam features with airway management complications except:

a)

a.    Mouth opening- difficult blade insertion if limited

b)

b.    Jaw protrusion- difficult tongue displacement if limited

c)

c.    Thyromental distance- difficult tongue displacement

d)

d.    Presence of beard- difficult mask seal

18.

1.    Difficulty with cricothyrotomy can be anticipated with all of the following except:

a)

a.    Prior neck surgery

b)

b.    Hematoma, tumors

c)

c.    Scarring from radiation on the neck

d)

d.    Obesity

e)

e.    Class III/IV Mallampati

19.

1.    Predicted difficulties during intubation with fiberoptic bronchoscope include:

a)

a.    Cervical spine injury

b)

b.    Limited mouth opening

c)

c.    Protuberant teeth

d)

d.    Bleeding in the airway

20.

1.    A decision to intubate should be based on which essential criteria?

a)

a.    Failure to maintain or protect the airway.

b)

b.    Failure to ventilate.

c)

c.    Patients anticipated clinical course and likelihood of deterioration.

d)

d.    All of the above.

21.

1.     TRUE regarding ophthalmic drugs:

a)

a.     Occluding the nasolacrimal duct by pressing on the outer canthus of the eye for a few minutes after each instillation greatly decreases systemic absorption

b)

b.     Systemic absorption of topical ophthalmic drugs may occur from either the conjunctiva or nasal mucosa

c)

c.     Percutaneous absorption through the mature epidermis of term infants

d)

d.     Echothiophate delays metabolism of amide local anesthetics

22.

1.     Components of pseudococaine:

a)

a.     Lidocaine 4%

b)

b.     Oxymetazoline 0.05%

c)

c.     Peppermint oil

d)

d.     All the choices are correct

23.

1.     A 30 year old male beautician presented to the emergency room with a false nail embedded in his right eye. Apparently he had a fight with a coworker in salon that he works in. He had eaten a full meal before the catfight. He will undergo an emergency operation. Which of the following is the correct management?

a)

a.     Insert NGT

b)

b.     Metoclopramide IV maybe administered to reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonitis

c)

c.     Nonparticulate antacids maybe administered to facilitate gastric emptying

d)

d.     Droperidol or ondansetron maybe administered for antiemesis

24.

1.     A 30 year old male beautician presented to the emergency room with a false nail embedded in his right eye. Apparently he had a fight with a coworker in salon that he works in. He had eaten a full meal before the catfight. He will undergo an emergency operation. Which of the following is the correct management?

a)

a.     GETA RSI

b)

b.     Measures must be taken to guarantee adequate anesthetic depth

c)

c.     Anesthesia can then be induced using carefully applied cricoid pressure with IV propofol and a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant

d)

All the choices are correct

25.

1.     A 30 year old male beautician presented to the emergency room with a false nail embedded in his right eye. Apparently he had a fight with a coworker in salon that he works in. He had eaten a full meal before the catfight. He will undergo an emergency operation. Which of the following is the correct management?

a)

a.     Measures must be taken to blunt the oculocardiac reflex caused by laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation

b)

b.     Pretreatment measures such as narcotics, midazolam, lidocaine

c)

c.     Rocuronium in small dose (0.6mg/kg) has been shown to create adequate intubating condition in 60 seconds

d)

d.     All the choices are correct

26.

1.     TRUE regarding systemic ophthalmic drugs:

a)

a.     Oral glycerol is relatively safe and does not cause nausea, vomiting, risk of aspiration, hyperglycemia, glycosuria, disorientation, and seizure activity

b)

b.     Rapid infusion of large doses of mannitol may cause renal failure, congestive heart failure, pulmonary congestion, electrolyte imbalance, hypotension/hypertension, myocardial ischemia, allergic reactions

c)

c.     Acetazolamide is contraindicated for patients with marked hepatic or renal dysfunction as it is a carbonic anhydrase activator with renal tubular effects

d)

d.     All of the choices are correct

27.

1.     Several anesthetic options are available for many types of ocular procedures which includes which of the following:

a)

a.     Peribulbar (intraconal) block

b)

b.     Retrobulbar(extraconal) block

c)

c.     Sub-tenon block

d)

d.     All of the choices are correct

28.

1.     Several anesthetic options are available for many types of ocular procedures which includes which of the following:

a)

a.     Peribulbar (extraconal) block

b)

b.     Topical anesthesia

c)

c.     General anesthesia

d)

d.     All of the choices are correct

29.

1.     Epinephrine is useful in open-angle glaucoma but has serious side effects. Because of this, what is considered as a good alternative for epinephrine?

a)

a.     Intraocular perfluorocarbons

b)

b.     Cyclopentolate

c)

c.     Dipivefrin hydrochloride

d)

d.     Timolol

30.

1.     A 45 year old male with an incidental finding of an intact cerebral aneurysm, will undergo an emergency ocular procedure. Which of the following drugs should not be used due to a notoriously predilection for inducing cerebral hemorrhage?

a)

a.     Cocaine

b)

a.     Epinephrine

c)

a.     Phenylephrine

d)

a.     Pseudococaine

 

31.

Concurrent administration of all of the following anticoagulants and thrombolytic therapy shpuld be avoided when planning for neuraxial blockade except for

a)

A. Fibrinolytic and thrombolytic therapy

b)

B. Thrombin inhibitors (desirudin, bivalirudin, argatroban)

c)

C. Therapeutic dosing of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

d)

D. Subcutaneous heparin daily dose of 10,000 U or less

32.

12. A 76 year old female is to undergo a right femoral neck fracture repair. You perform a spinal anesthetic using 1.5 ml 0.5% bupivacaine mixed  with 100 ug of preservative free morphine. How long should the patient be monitored for postoperative apnea/hypoventilation secondary to the intrathecal morphine administration?

 

a)

A.     3 days

b)

B.     48 hours

c)

C.     12 hours

d)

D.    24 hours

33.

You were involved in a complicated left lower leg procedure (open reduction internal fixation of proximal tibia-fibula fracture repair), where the final total tourniquet tie was 3 hours and 15 minutes. In the PACU. The patient showed no signs of any peripheral nerve injury of the left lower extremity. However, On postoperative day 2, you discovered that the patient required hemodialysis secondary to rhabdomyolysis. Which of the following could be responsible for the rhabdomyolysis?

 

a)

A. Compartment syndrome

b)

B. Prolonged tourniquet inflation time

c)

C. Statin medication use that patient started 2 weeks prior

d)

D. All of the above

34.

A 56 year old female with medical history significant of obesity (BMI 50), hypertension, diabetes (IDDM), tobacco use and asthma is scheduled for bilateral hip replacement surgery. Preoperative laboratory results show a hematocrit of 45%, blood urea nitrogen of 25 mg/dl, and creatinine of 1.0 mg/dl. Immediately following application of cement foe the second hip, the patient became hypotensive with sinus tachycardia. Arterial blood gas results reveal a Hct 23% that responds to a crystalloid fluid bolus and blood transfusion (2L crystalliods, 1 L albumin, and 2 U packed red blood cells). The possible cause(s) for the hypotension is/are

a)

A.     Hypovolemia and/or low Hct

b)

A.     Pulmonary embolism

c)

A.     Vasodilation caused by monomer of the bone cement

d)

A.     All of the above

35.

15. A 68 year old female (5’1” and 250 lbs) with a medical history of chronic lower back pain and radiculopathy in the lumbar 4 to sacral 1 vertebral levels presents for anterior and posterior fusion. Her home medications include methadone 75 mg daily, oxycodone 10 mg every3 hours as needed, a fentanyl patch 50ug/h. the patient stated she has 7/10 pain daily. All of the following should be comsidered in the perioperative pain management regimen for this patient, except

 

a)

A.     Continue with daily methadone

b)

A.     Consider a perioperative ketamine infusion

c)

A.     Consider transversus abdominis plane block for the anterior abdomen

d)

A.     Add ketorolac 30 mg every 6 hours s needed for 14 days

36.

All of the following can be used to assist in reducing the amount of perioperative surgical blood loss in orthopedic procedures except?

 

a)

A.     Hemodilution

b)

B.     Controlled hypotension

c)

C.     Tranexamic acid

d)

D.    Aprotinin

37.

All of the following statements when positioning patients for spine surgery in the prone position are true except?

a)

A.     The neck should be in neutral position (without hyperextension or hyperflexion)

b)

A.     The eyes must be free of pressure and checked periodically

c)

A.     The abdomen must always be supported (never permitted to hang freely)

d)

A.     The arms are kept at less than 90 degrees of extension and flexion

38.

The most incorrect statement regarding postoperative vision loss (POVL) that may occur during prone positioning in spine surgery patients is

a)

A. Ischemic optic neuropathy accounts for the highest incidence of POVL

b)

B. Ischemic optic neuropathy is associated with decreased ocular perfusion pressure

c)

C. Prone positioning, greater than 1L intraoperative blood loss and surgery lasting greater than 6 hours represents the highest risk

d)

D. POVL due to central retinal artery occlusion tends to be bilateral

39.

After 180 minutes of tourniquet time during a difficult right total knee arthroplasty in a patient under sedation and intraoperative anesthesia provided by a combined spinal-epidural, the tourniquet is released and surgical closure is started. The patient may experience all the following subsequent to tourniquet release except

a)

A. Hypotension and tachycardia

b)

 

B. Transient increase of end tidal carbon dioxide

c)

C. Arrythmia secondary to increased serum potassium

d)

D. Arrythmia secondary to increases total serum calcium

 

40.

The most incorrect statement regarding placement of a femoral perineural catheter for pain management during unilateral knee replacement surgery in  a femoral nerve block when compared to neuraxial blockade

a)

A. Provides equipotent analgesia

b)

B. Is associated with reduced incidence of pruritus, nausea and vomiting

c)

C. Is associated with reduced incidence of urinary retention

d)

D. Femoral nerve block when combined with a sciatic nerve block can provide adequate analgesia for knee surgery

41.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of acetaminophen?

a)

A. Central inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) activation

b)

B. Inhibition of lipoxygenase activation

c)

C. Activation of lipoxygenase central a2 receptors

d)

D. Activation of GABA receptors

42.

You are consulted on a patient with a history of chronic back pain who is now on the first postoperative day from a L4-L5 fusion surgery. He tells you that he has a “high tolerance” to opioids and his pain is currently 8/10 when he moves, so you decide to start him on a multimodal regimen for pain control. His medical history is significant for chronic kidney disease and depression. He is currently taking ciprofloxacin per his surgical team. Which of the following medications should not be included as part of a multimodal regimen?

a)

A. Ketamine

b)

B. Hydromorphone

c)

C. TIZANIDINE

d)

D. Tylenol

43.

Which of the following agents or drugs is most likely to have a similar

mechanism of action to ketamine?

a)

A. Sevoflurane

b)

B. Nitrous oxide

c)

C. Midazolam

d)

D. Clonidine

44.

A 60-year-old man with bilateral radicular pain in his legs presents 4 weeks

after implantation of a spinal cord stimulator (SCS) with dual percutaneous

leads. He had reported greater than 50% pain relief with his SCS trial and also

reports feeling well after implantation of his SCS. He has therefore greatly

increased his daily activity. He now complains of paresthesias in his lower

abdominal region and worsening pain in his legs. His neurologic exam is

unremarkable. There is no pain on palpation of his lower back. His incision site is clean, dry, and intact and he is afebrile. Which of the following most likely explains this presentation?

a)

A. Epidural abscess

b)

B. Migration of leads

c)

C. Disc herniation

d)

D. Infection of the SCS leads

45.

. Which of the following areas is targeted by SCSs?

a)

A. Dorsal columns

b)

B. Lateral corticospinal tract

c)

C. Botzinger complex

d)

D. Peripheral nerves

46.

A patient with a history of unresectable pancreatic cancer presents to your

office because his current pain control regimen, Tylenol and hydromorphone (2- 4 mg every 4 h as needed), is no longer sufficient. He reports that when he

began this regimen 6 months ago, his pain was under good control and he could remain active. However, now he reports worsening back pain that limits his ability to walk. He asks whether it would be reasonable to increase his dose of hydromorphone at this time. Which of the following phenomena best describes this situation?

a)

A. Opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH)

b)

B. Pseudotolerance

c)

C. Drug-seeking behavior

d)

D. Addiction

47.

A patient with a history of prostate cancer with metastases to his spine

causing back pain presents to your office. You have been managing his opioid

prescriptions for over a year, and during that time he has required increasing

doses of hydromorphone to treat his back pain. He currently takes 8-10 mg of

dilaudid every 3 hours. When questioned about his pain, he describes a diffuse pain that affects his arms and legs. His back pain is also present. Which of the following receptors or family of receptors is thought to be involved in this phenomenon?

a)

A. GABA-A

b)

B. NMDA

c)

C. GABA-B

d)

C. GABA-B

48.

In the perioperative period, patients maintained on Suboxone will most likely experience which of the following?

a)

A. Increased postoperative opioid requirements

b)

B. Increased sensitivity to opioids

c)

C. Withdrawal symptoms within 24 hours of discontinuing Suboxone

d)

D. Increased risk of postoperative delirium

49.

Which of the following effects would be likely to occur after parenteral

injection of Suboxone in a patient actively taking heroin?

a)

A. Respiratory depression

b)

B. Withdrawal

c)

C. Euphoria

d)

D. Miosis

50.

A 76-year-old man with pancreatic cancer and chronic abdominal pain admits to his pain specialist that he has been giving his son, who has chronic back pain, some of his oxycodone pills. Which of the following terms best characterizes this situation?

a)

Abuse

b)

Misuse

c)

Pseudoaddiction

d)

Addiction