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final quizziz pharm

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Corticosteroids cause...

a)

decrease in inflammation

b)

increase in inflammation

c)

bronchodilation

d)

bronchoconstictor

2.

LABA to treat COPD and asthma is..

a)

ventolin

b)

cromolyn

c)

salmeterol

d)

albuterol

3.

Adrenergic drugs cause...

a)

a decrease in inflammation

b)

inflammation

c)

bronchoconstriction

d)

bronchodialtion

4.

Short Acting B12 agonists is to treat

a)

Chronic COPD

b)

Chronic asthma

c)

intermittent COPD

d)

intermittent asthma

5.

Long acting B2 agonists (LABA) is used for..

a)

mild COPD

b)

acute COPD

c)

moderate COPD

d)

chronic COPD

6.

what is the drug of choice for COPD?

a)

ipratopium (Atrovent)

b)

tiotropium bromide (spiriva)

c)

albuterol sulfate (Combivent)

d)

cromolyn (Nasalcrom)

7.

cromolyn (Nasalcram) has these characteristics..

a)

inhibits most cell degranulation

b)

releases histamines

c)

most toxic

d)

least toxic

8.

the suffix of corticosteroids is...

a)

-olol

b)

-zole

c)

-sone

d)

-illin

9.

What are clients not compliant with when having an asthmatic episode ?

a)

bronchodilator

b)

corticosteroid

c)

deep breathing

d)

bronchoconstriction

10.

asthma is irreversible

a)

true

b)

false

11.

COPD is reversible

a)

true

b)

false

12.

A common corticosteroid to trat asthma is..

a)

flucticasone

b)

prednisone

c)

ventolin

d)

atrovent

13.

MDI stands for metered dose inhalers

a)

true

b)

false

14.

aspirin to be avoided with asthma due to sensitivity to NSAIDS erythromycin after metabolism of theophylline

a)

true

b)

false

15.

COPD includes which of the following..

a)

asthma

b)

chronic bronchitis

c)

acute bronchitis

d)

emphysema

16.

This device is great for kids because it increases amount of drug to lungs

a)

MDI

b)

SPACER

c)

abundment

d)

inhaler

17.

what is a DH to do if the bronchodilators and corticosteroids do not work?

a)

Call 911

b)

Call 911 as they may be experiencing status asthmaticus

c)

call 911 and start deep breathing

d)

call 911 and do not provide oxygen

18.

what is a life threatening condition ?

a)

asthma

b)

COPD

c)

bronchitis

d)

Status asthmaticus

19.

with inhaled steroids what is the common adverse reaction?

a)

Oral candidiasis

b)

xerostomia

c)

gingivigtis

d)

periodontitis

20.

Is tingling in extremities during a severe asthma attack due to increase CO2 in the plasma

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Fast division of normal cells are susceptible to cancer as well as top therapy, which are the cells that rapidly divide

a)

Hair follicles

b)

kidney

c)

bone marrrrow

d)

intestinal tract

22.

Alfatoxins are.... and said to be cariogenic

a)

tobacco

b)

moldy peanuts

c)

radiation

d)

asbestos

23.

this storage is prior to mitosis and after DNA replication S phase?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

24.

oral effects that a client experiences during antineoplastic therapy can b painful, and the priority role of DH is the following..

a)

palliative care

b)

preventative care

c)

eliminate antineoplastic therapy

d)

routine recalls

25.

to prevent BRONJ a DH is to consider..

a)

stage M

b)

after chemotherapy

c)

within 3 month of therapy

d)

biophosphonates does not stay in the system

26.

antineoplastic agents are use to treat conditions as in..

a)

psoriasis

b)

rheumatoid arthritis

c)

systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

malignancies

27.

what stage is the cytokinesis stage known as the "resting stage" where cells enter the cycle?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

G0

d)

S

28.

maximize oral hygiene just before or the 1st few days of treatment (bone suppression has not happene)

a)

true

b)

false

29.

how many phases of mitosis are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

BRONJ is due to which drug ?

a)

antihypertensives

b)

anticoagulants

c)

bisophosphonates

d)

biguanides

31.

how many stages are there for reproductive cycle of a cell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

32.

a DH is to consider antineoplastic agents and bone marrow suppression, what is to be considered?

a)

client is prone to infection

b)

while debriding there could be excessive bleeding.

c)

client may feel nausea and fatigue

d)

client is not effected, no consideration are needed

33.

BRONJ occurs commonly after this procedure?

a)

root canal

b)

restoration

c)

debridement

d)

extraction

34.

hepatoxicity is due to antimetabolite methotrexate?

a)

true

b)

false

35.

this stage of BRONJ causes painful area of exposed bone with soft tissue or bone inflammation or infection

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

36.

azathioprine (imuran), methotrexate (Rhematrex) and cyclosporine (Sandimmune) the DH should consider..

a)

medical consult

b)

immun-surpressed

c)

client has an immune disorder

d)

no considerations

37.

Herpes virus and papillomaviruses have potential for producing cancerous changes

a)

true

b)

false

38.

Ice chips are a great oral hygiene option for clients with painful ulcers due to antineoplastic therapy?

a)

true

b)

false

39.

oral manifestation of a pregnant women include...

a)

Pyogenic Granuloma

b)

acid erosion

c)

gingivitis

d)

xerostomia

40.

What is syndactlyly ?

a)

fusion of digits

b)

more digits

c)

missing digits

d)

fewer digits

41.

the wives of

dental personnel

who are

exposed to trace amounts of nitrous oxide

in the workplace have a higher incidence of spontaneous abortion

a)

true

b)

false

42.

which drug group causes floppy infant syndrome ?

a)

antidiabetic

b)

benzodiazepines

c)

antihypertensives

d)

antilipemic

43.

metronidazole is safe to give to a nursing mother..

a)

true

b)

after 48 hours of the last dose

c)

false

d)

after milk is discarded treatmentt

44.

gestational diabetes typically is resolved after pregnancy

a)

true

b)

false

45.

ketoconazole is teratogenic, rats had abnormal digits

a)

true

b)

false

46.

NSAIDS does not cause harm to fetus

a)

true

b)

false

47.

there is a safe threshold for alcohol i pregnant clients that would not cause FAS

a)

true

b)

false

48.

Nystatin is safe to give to pregnant client

a)

true

b)

false

49.

nursing mother should be educated on breast milk and the oral manifestations to the child

a)

true

b)

false

50.

what are the drugs contraindicated in the pregnant client?

a)

tetracycline

b)

minocycline

c)

doxycline

d)

acetaminophen

51.

position the patient in recumbent position in last trimester with RIGHT HIP elevated

a)

true

b)

false

52.

aspirin is drug of choice in the pregnant client for pain

a)

true

b)

false

53.

a little glass of wine is okay in a pregnant client to let the baby rest

a)

true

b)

false

54.

lidocaine with epinephrine is okay for pregnant client over lidocaine pain

a)

true

b)

false

55.

best time to book a pregnant client..

a)

morning

b)

afternoon

c)

evening

d)

after breastfeeding

56.

give frequent breaks foe urination especially during the first trimester

a)

true

b)

false

57.

TUMS, or ROLAIDS are what type of antacid

a)

Sodium Bicarbonate

b)

Calcium carbonate

c)

Aluminum Salt

d)

Magnesium Salt

58.

with anacids what condition should I consider..

a)

hepatic diseases

b)

diabetes

c)

renal diseases

d)

respiratory diseases

59.

a DH should consider what position in a dental chair with a client that has GERD?

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

supine

c)

prone

d)

upright

60.

what is the safest laxatuve

a)

bulk

b)

lubricants

c)

stimulants

d)

stool softners

61.

What are the histamine 2-blocking agents ?

a)

ranitidine (Zantac)

b)

nystatin

c)

cimetidine (Tagamet)

d)

famotidine (Pepcid AC)

62.

GERD treatment has 3 categories:

a)

dilators of cardiac sphimcter

b)

constrict cardiac sphincter

c)

decrease HCL acid in the stomach

d)

antacids for symptoms

63.

cimetidine (Tagamet) interact with the following other groups of drugs..

a)

antifungals

b)

alcohol

c)

benzodiapines

d)

antihypertensives

64.

which drug is used for diabetic gastroparesis and short term GERD and to control nausea and vomiting in clients with cancer receiving chemotherapy?

a)

simethicone

b)

metoclopramide

c)

misoprostol

d)

sucralfate

65.

The characteristics of PPI are..

a)

inhibit HCL secretion

b)

long lastin

c)

taken without food

d)

taken with food

66.

this 1st line approach to inhibit symptoms of acute gastritis and ulcers is also known to act like "fire extinguisher"

a)

H2 blocking agents

b)

Proton Pump inhibitors

c)

laxatives

d)

antacids

67.

Histaine 2-blocking agents end in which -suffix

a)

-pam

b)

-olol

c)

-sone

d)

-tidine

68.

GERD places a high risk for...

a)

barret esophagus

b)

butler esophagus

c)

esophageal cancer

d)

chrohn's disease

69.

some lifestyle changes for clients who suffer from GERD are..n

a)

avoid meals 4 hours prior to bedtime

b)

small, frequent meals

c)

lying trendelenburg

d)

sleep sitting up

70.

A very common prescribes PPI is..

a)

pantoprazole

b)

Omeprazole

c)

ticklprazole

d)

cimetidine

71.

Peptic ulcers are related to the presence of this organism and the chronic use of this medication,

a)

H. Pylori and acetaminophen

b)

streptococcus and acetaminophen

c)

H. Pylori and NSAIDS

d)

streptococcus and NSAIDS

72.

Proton pumps inhibitors (PPE) are the final therapy if the antacids and histamine 2-blocking agents do not work.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

These two histamine 2 blocking agents effect the liver P-450 enzyme by inhibiting its function therefore increasing the plasma toxicity of drugs like warfarin, metronidazole, lidocaine, phenytoin and the drugs metabolized by P-450. What are the two?

a)

cimetidine

b)

rantidine

c)

famotidine

d)

nizatidine

74.

would i need a medical clearance/ consult for these drugs, lnfliximab (Remicade), adalimumab (Humira)?

a)

true

b)

false

75.

two oral considerations that may manifest with GI disorders..

a)

pink gingiva

b)

taste changes

c)

wear facets

d)

enamel erosion

76.

Histamine 2 blocking agents have oral side effects? which agent has centered oral side effects ?

a)

crimetidine

b)

famotidine

c)

nizatidine

d)

ranitidine

77.

Infliximab (Remicade), adalimumab (Humira), when taking these drugs there is a high risk for..

a)

infection

b)

tuberculosis

c)

hepatitis

d)

blood effects

78.

Social media and self image influencing the abuse of laxatives . What eating disorder, os contributing to abuse fo laxatives?

a)

Anorexia Nervosa

b)

Bulimia Nervosa

c)

Pica

d)

Rumination Disorder

79.

Ulcerative-colitis differs from Crohn's as crohn's involves al layers of intestinal wall, the whole intestine and ulcerative colitis only effects the mucous layer of intestinal wall.

a)

true

b)

false

80.

Simethicone to relieve flatulence breaks up gas pockets also known as..

a)

Dex 4

b)

Xanax

c)

Gas-x

d)

Narcan

81.

With all H2 blocking agents a DH must consider the function of this organ as they all contribute to the adverse reaction of this organ.

a)

liver

b)

kidney

c)

heart

d)

spleen

82.

which of these antacids are naturally produced by the pancreas..

a)

sodium bicarbonate "baking soda"

b)

Calciym carbonate

c)

Aluminum salts

d)

Magnesium salts

83.

what causes an inflammation response in the GI that releasing histamine that increases gastric acid ?

a)

overproduction of HCl

b)

underproduction of HCl

c)

no HCl

d)

no CLl

84.

we would recommend aspirin for a client at risk for GERD or a peptic ulcer?

a)

true

b)

false

85.

The GI drug increases gastric mucus and decrease gastric acid induced by this non-opioid analgesic ?

a)

sucralfate

b)

metoclopramide

c)

simethicone

d)

misoprostol

86.

The characteristics of celiac disease are..

a)

autoimmune

b)

damages microvilli of small intestine

c)

hereditary

d)

sensitivity to gluten

87.

to treat H. Pylori a combination of 2 antibiotics and H2 blockers r a PPI and bismuth for 2 weeks

a)

true

b)

false

88.

PPI ends in the -suffix

a)

-sone

b)

-pam

c)

-olol

d)

-prazole

89.

What medication used in clients who suffer from Parkinson's would increase its bioavailability due to the alkalization of antacids and slowing down stomach acid emptying.

a)

Naloxone

b)

Serotonin

c)

Levodopa

d)

Levothyroxine

90.

GERD is also know as..

a)

heartburn

b)

gastroesophageal reflux disease

c)

angina

d)

emesis

91.

promethazine (Phenergan) is used in dentistry to treat nausea and vomiting associated with surgery and anesthesia

a)

true

b)

false