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Worksheets

Vol 3

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the standard gallon capacity for an above ground fuel storage tank used at a military service station?

a)

4000

b)

6000

c)

8000

d)

12,000

2.

In inches, what is the diameter of the main way with access ladder used for military service station above and below ground tanks?

a)

18

b)

24

c)

36

d)

48

3.

What is the gallon per minute rating for military automotive service stations submersible turbine pumps

a)

8

b)

10

c)

12

d)

14

4.

What type of dispensing unit has 2 meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?

a)

Single dispensing, single product

b)

Dual dispensing, single product

c)

Single dispensing, dual product

d)

Dual dispensing, dual product

5.

What system is designed to cut all electric current running to all dispensers when activated?

a)

fuel shut off system

b)

Pump shut off system

c)

Electrical power down system

d)

Emergency power down system

6.

How is fuel used at the automotive fuel storage and dispensing system normally received?

a)

Pipeline

b)

Tank car

c)

Tank truck

d)

Tanker/barge

7.

When receiving fuel at the military service station, what information is not required on the department of defense (DD) form 250, material inspection and receiving report?

a)

Delivery schedule

b)

Seal numbers

c)

fuel grade

d)

Quantity

8.

Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

a)

Appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR)

b)

Company who shipped the product

c)

Base fuels laboratory personnel

d)

Area laboratory personnel

9.

What is the maximum time interval permitted by the vehicle identification link (VIL) in which to make a pump selection?

a)

399 seconds

b)

699 seconds

c)

999 seconds

d)

1299 seconds

10.

What company was the first to design and install the type III hydrant system?

a)

Phillips Petroleum company

b)

Panero petroleum systems

c)

Pritchard petroleum company

d)

Palacios petroleum systems

11.

What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainers?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

80

12.

On the type three hydrant system, which filter separator control valve function will prevent the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

a)

Check valve

b)

Flow control

c)

Water slug shutoff

d)

Maximum differential pressure shutoff

13.

What is the minimum number of figures displayed on the non-resettable totalizer on the type III receipt line?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

14.

Which alarm indicator on the type three system, when actuated, shut down all fueling pumps that are operating at the time?

a)

Low level

b)

High level

c)

Low-low level

d)

High-high level

15.

What is the rated capacity in gallons (gpm) and revolutions per minute (rpm) of a deep well turbine fuel transfer pump used for the type III product recovery system?

a)

50 gpm; 2200 rpm

b)

50 gpm; 1800 rpm

c)

100 gpm; 2200 rpm

d)

100 gpm; 1800 rpm

16.

At what liquid percentage level will the type III hydrant system product recovery tank overfill valve close

a)

75

b)

80

c)

85

d)

90

17.

Commonly used pumps on the type three system or balance statically and dynamically for all flow rates from no flow to?

a)

100 percent of the designed rate

b)

110 percent of the designed rate

c)

120 percent of the designed rate

d)

130 percent of the designed rate

18.

How quickly will the emergency shutoff valve close after a power failure, or the emergency stop button is pushed?

a)

4 seconds

b)

6 seconds

c)

8 seconds

d)

10 seconds

19.

What type III system component signals the microprocessor to turn on the lead pump when the system pressure drops below 60 pounds per square inch (psi)?

a)

flow indicating transmitter

b)

Loop indicating transmitter

c)

Pressure indicating transmitter

d)

Differential pressure transmitter

20.

What handheld device is used to shut off your flow if the operator becomes incapacitated?

a)

Hydrant control valve

b)

Fuel flow shut off valve

c)

Deadman control valve

d)

Emergency shut off button

21.

During the type III hydrant system’s shut down process, the pressure control valve reduces the system pressure to

a)

60 pounds per square inch (psi)

b)

65 psi

c)

70 psi

d)

75 psi

22.

Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sounds on the type III hydrant system?

a)

Engine generator fault

b)

Four refueling pumps running at the same time

c)

Manual valve closed on the product recovery tank

d)

Hydrant servicing vehicle flow control valve inoperative

23.

On the type III hydrant system, what would the sequence of the other pumps be if pump # 2 is selected as the lead pump?

a)

1,3,4 and 5

b)

2,3,4 and 5

c)

3,4,5 and 1

d)

4,5,1 and 2

24.

What is the purpose of the type III hydrant system lockout key?

a)

Switch the system off for maintenance

b)

Prevent a certain fueling pump from starting

c)

Transfer control from one microprocessor to the other

d)

Keep the backpressure control valve from relieving pressure

25.

On the type III hydrant system, the light-emitting (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

26.

What major command (MAJCOM) developed the type IV hydrant system?

a)

Pacific air forces (PACAF)

b)

Air combat command (ACC)

c)

Air mobility command (AMC)

d)

United States Air Force in Europe (USAFE)

27.

What is the rated capacity in gallons per minute (gpm) of the pumps on the type IV hydrant system?

a)

300 gpm

b)

600 gpm

c)

900 gpm

d)

1200 gpm

28.

How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

a)

2; 10,000

b)

4; 10,000

c)

2; 50,000

d)

4; 50,000

29.

What component on the type IV hydrant system shuts down the fueling pumps when water and sediment are detected in the fuel?

a)

Filter separator

b)

Fuel discharge valve

c)

Nonsurge check valve

d)

Contamination monitor

30.

On the type IV hydrant system, how is the fuel prevented from spilling should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

a)

A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically

b)

A flow switch will sense a sudden surge in fuel flow, shutting down the pumps

c)

The pressure switch will sense a sudden drop in pressure, shutting down the pumps

d)

The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded “butterfly” part of the valve

31.

What is the constant pressure range in pounds per square inch (psi) for the type IV hydrant system?

a)

15 to 120 psi

b)

30 to 135 psi

c)

45 to 150 psi

d)

60 to 165 psi

32.

Since the type V hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is being operated, as a minimum, inspections are performed every

a)

a hour

b)

2 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

4 hours

33.

On the type V hydrant system, what size (in inches) or the stainless steel paragraphs installed inside the heart and shelters?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

34.

How is the deadman control valve operated on the type V hydrant system?

a)

Electrically

b)

Air pressure

c)

Mechanically

d)

Fuel pressure

35.

Who should be contacted if the DD form 250, material inspection and receiving report, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of the fuel tank truck in prior to fuel receipt?

a)

Defense logistics agency (DLA) quality assurance representative (QAR)

b)

Defense energy support center (DESC)

c)

Air Force petroleum (AFPET)

d)

Major command (MAJCOM)

36.

During the receipt operations, how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck should danger signs be placed when off loading in an unsecure area?

a)

50 feet to the front and 100 feet to the rear

b)

25 feet to the front and 50 feet to the rear

c)

50 feet to the front and rear

d)

25 feet to the front and rear

37.

The defense logistics agency (DLA) energy form 702 is prepared to cover a 24- hour duty day that runs from

a)

2400 to 2400

b)

0600 to 0600

c)

0800 to 0800

d)

0900 to 0900

38.

On the type III hydrant system, at what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) will the control system start the lead pump

a)

60 psi

b)

75 psi

c)

130 psi

d)

145 psi

39.

Which type III hydrant system valve will open to relieve thermal expansion

a)

Bypass

b)

Defuel/flush

c)

Hydrant control

d)

Pressure control

40.

During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the “hot pad”

a)

Fuels operator

b)

Operations supervisor

c)

Hot refueling crewman

d)

Hot refueling supervisor

41.

The fueling control valve on the type IV hydrant system is opened to perform hot refueling operations by

a)

A flow switch located before the control pit

b)

Air pressure from the deadman control valve

c)

Fuel pressure from the deadman control valve

d)

A pressure switch located before the control pit

42.

On a fillstand equipped with the scully intellitrol control system, often are electrical pulses sent to the high-level sensor during a filling operation

a)

30 times per second

b)

30 times per minute

c)

45 times per second

d)

45 times per minute

43.

What form serves as a record for all issues and returns to bulk

a)

Defense energy support center (DESC) form 1233

b)

Air Force (AF) form 1235

c)

DESC Form 1235

d)

AF form 1233

44.

Under normal conditions and as a minimum, how many hours must fuel in above ground tanks settle prior to transferring

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

45.

During a transfer operation, when is water removal from the tanks not required?

a)

Never

b)

When equipped with a drain valve

c)

When equipped with an Enraf-Vito prob in the sump and no water presence is shown

d)

When equipped with an ITT Barton automated tank gauging (ATG) and no water presence is shown

46.

What is the maximum gallons per minute (gpm) flow rate of the R-12s defuel pump?

a)

250 gpm

b)

300 gpm

c)

450 gpm

d)

600 gpm

47.

At what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is the R-12s defuel pump capable of delivering fuel to the type III hydrant system

a)

125 psi

b)

135 psi

c)

165 psi

d)

185 psi

48.

Which valve(s) on the type III hydrant system will modulate open, allowing the fuel to pass through when returning to the operating tanks a defuel operation

a)

defuel/flush

b)

Backpressure control

c)

Pressure control and defuel/flush

d)

Pressure control and backpressure control

49.

Fuels management and civil engineering (CE)/ water and fuel systems maintenance (WSFM) personnel will develop specific operating instructions for hydrant systems flushing based

a)

Type of system

b)

Rated capacity of the system

c)

Type of system and number of control valves in the system

d)

Rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system

50.

When flushing type III, IV and V hydrant system, a visual sample should be drawn on the return loop at the

a)

Beginning of flushing operations

b)

Midpoint of flushing operations

c)

Completion of flushing operations

d)

Beginning, midpoint, and completion of flushing operations

51.

When performing flushing operations on a type III, IV and V hydrant system, in what position should the pump selector switch be placed

a)

Off

b)

Idle

c)

Auto

d)

Flush

52.

In what section of the defense energy support center (DESC) form 1233 are returns to bulk recorded

a)

Issues

b)

Reconciliation

c)

Net issues from bulk

d)

Fueling unit summary

53.

Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

a)

Local and state environmental guidelines

b)

State and federal environmental guidelines

c)

Local, state and federal environmental laws and regulations

d)

State, federal and international environmental laws and regulations

54.

Weekly inspections on fixed hydrant systems must be accomplished every seven days, and must not exceed

a)

9 days

b)

10 days

c)

11 days

d)

12 days

55.

Who must inform the squadron commander, Air Force petroleum office, and other affected agencies of any deficiency in a fixed hydrant system that compromises mission accomplishment

a)

Fuels service center

b)

Fuels support section

c)

Fuels mobility section

d)

Fuels management team

56.

When performing a daily inspection of fixed hydrant system filter separators, you must inspect the vessel for 3/4 to 1 inch markings that include all of the following information except

a)

type of filter elements installed

b)

Maximum allowable differential pressure

c)

Date of the last filter element change in the MMM/YY format

d)

Date of the next filter change in the MMM/YY format

57.

Strainers equipped with a differential pressure (DP) gauge should be inspected daily and cleaned when the DP reading in pounds per square inch (psi) reaches at least

a)

5 psi

b)

10 psi

c)

15 psi

d)

20 psi

58.

When inspecting automated tank gauging (ATG) systems, what pressure range in psi should the nitrogen cylinder regulator setting indicate

a)

5 to 15 psi

b)

10 to 15 psi

c)

20 to 25 psi

d)

40 to 50 psi

59.

Bonding receptacles will be inspected with a psi spring scale for a pull of

a)

6 to 12 psi

b)

8 to 12 psi

c)

6 to 14 psi

d)

8 to 14 psi

60.

Prior to the first servicing, a system on standby status should be inspected at least

a)

Weekly

b)

Monthly

c)

Quarterly

d)

Semiannually

61.

When should the fuels manager, fuels flight commander, and/or terminal superintendent review the AFTO form 39 and sign page 2 in the management form review sections

a)

daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Quarterly

62.

Who is responsible for completing the “maintenance status” column on page 2 of the AFTO form 39

a)

Utilities personnel

b)

Vehicle maintenance personnel

c)

Preventive maintenance personnel

d)

Water and fuel systems maintenance personnel

63.

When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied on the steel tape

a)

2 inches above and below the estimated product depth

b)

3 inches above and below the estimated product depth

c)

2 inches above and 3 inches below the estimated product depth

d)

3 inches above and 2 inches below the estimated product depth

64.

When manually gauging a tank for temperature, at a minimum, how lunch but the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading?

a)

3 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

6 minutes

65.

At a minimum, how many measuring points does the measurement probe on an automated tank gauging system have

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

66.

Physical inventories on active storage tanks are normally taken between

a)

2200 and 0600

b)

2300 and 0700

c)

2400 and 0800

d)

0100 and 0900

67.

How often should active storage tanks be inventoried

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Quarterly

68.

Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by

a)

Conduction, convection, and radiation

b)

Convection, radiation, and vaporization

c)

Conduction, radiation, and vaporization

d)

Conduction, convection, and vaporization

69.

What type of heat transfer is the only one the operator can control in a cryotainer

a)

Radiation

b)

Convection

c)

Conduction

d)

Vaporization

70.

the two most commonly used insulating materials used in the annular space of a cryotainer are

a)

Fiberglass and glass wool

b)

Fiberglass and Mylar film

c)

Crushed glass perlite beads and glass wool

d)

Crushed glass perlite beads and Mylar film

71.

how many gallons will the TMU-20/E cryotainer hold

a)

50

b)

400

c)

2,000

d)

5,000

72.

What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers

a)

Quantity and vacuum

b)

Pressure and quantity

c)

Differential and vacuum

d)

Differential and pressure

73.

The purpose of a portable vacuum gauge is to check the

a)

Pressure on the hoses

b)

Pressure in the inner tank

c)

Vacuum on the buildup coil

d)

vacuum in the annular space

74.

What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a LOX/LIN transfer hose

a)

Perlite

b)

Santocel

c)

Fiberglass

d)

Glass wool

75.

What does a heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a LOX/LIN transfer hose indicate

a)

The inner hose is damaged

b)

The outer hose is damaged

c)

A faulty valve at the tank outlet

d)

The hose connection is not tight enough

76.

As a minimum how often should cryotainer pressure gauges be calibrated

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Semiannually

d)

Annually

77.

What are cryotainer safety relief valves tested with

a)

Compressed air

b)

Helium

c)

Methane

d)

Nitrogen

78.

Which procedure is only accomplished during a LOX/LIN receipt

a)

Test for odor

b)

Monitor the transfer for leaks

c)

Check the DD form 250

d)

Ensure there is sufficient ullage in the receiving tank

79.

Before issuing LOX/LIN to a receiving cryotainer, open the pressure buildup valve until the pressure gauge, in psi indicates

a)

5 to 10 psi

b)

10 to 15 psi

c)

20 to 25 psi

d)

45 to 50 psi

80.

As a minimum, vacuum checks should be performed on cryotainers every

a)

90 days

b)

180 days

c)

270 days

d)

365 days

81.

As a minimum, LOX storage tanks should be purged every

a)

90 days

b)

180 days

c)

270 days

d)

365 days

82.

The air within the air purge unit is heated to

a)

250 F

b)

300 F

c)

350 F

d)

400 F

83.

What air craft is not authorized cryogenic tanks due to the need of an overboard vent system to vent excessive pressure

a)

KC-135

b)

KC-10

c)

C-21

d)

C-17

84.

How many cryotainers can be connected in a series when transporting cryotainers on an aircraft using the overboard vent system

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

85.

Once the last aircraft has been serviced, the AFTO form 134 may be destroyed after two

a)

Days

b)

Weeks

c)

Months

d)

Years

86.

What AF form is used to document LOX in LIN inventories

a)

1231

b)

1233

c)

1235

d)

1237

87.

The AFTO form 245 is

a)

An continuation management record

b)

An inventory management record

c)

A cryotainer inspection workcard

d)

A lifelong historical data record

88.

What symbol on the AFTO form 244 is used to represent an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not sufficiently dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment

a)

Red X

b)

Red dash

c)

Red circle

d)

Red diagonal

89.

What AFTO form acts as a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on equipment

a)

95

b)

134

c)

244

d)

245

90.

Who is required to conduct a monthly cryogenic storage facility inspection with the cryogenic supervisor

a)

Water and fuel systems maintenance

b)

fuels management team

c)

Squadron commander

d)

Storage technician