wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

SENIOR SEC 2022 AGO IWOYE DAY CELEBRATION QUIZ COMPETITION

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
2.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
3.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
4.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
5.
Condense
a)
logxyz3
b)
log(xy/z3)
c)
logx+logy+logz3
d)
logx3y3z3
6.
In Diagram 2, K, L and M are three points on the flat ground.  Given that KLM is an equilateral triangle, find the   bearing of L from M.
Dalam Rajah 2, K, L dan M adalah tiga titik pada tanah  mengufuk. Diberi KLM ialah segitiga sisi sama, cari bearing L dari M.
a)
068
b)
128
c)
188
d)
248
7.

What is
the Bearing
 of A
from B?
a)
45
b)
130
c)
045
d)
135
8.
In Diagram 2, K, L and M are three points on the flat ground.  Given that KLM is an equilateral triangle, find the   bearing of L from M.
Dalam Rajah 2, K, L dan M adalah tiga titik pada tanah  mengufuk. Diberi KLM ialah segitiga sisi sama, cari bearing L dari M.
a)
068
b)
128
c)
188
d)
248
9.

The Midpoint Formula is:

a)

The average of the x and y coordinates

b)

The distance between the two coordinate points

c)

The distance on the x and y axis

d)

The average of many points

10.

Find the x-coordinate of the midpoint of the segment with the endpoints x1 = -4 and x2 = 0.

a)

M = -1

b)

M = 0

c)

M = -3

d)

M = -2

11.

Find the coordinate of the midpoint of the segment with the given endpoints J(-6, -12) and K(-18, 22).

a)

M (5, -12)

b)

M (-12, 5)

c)

M (-6, 17)

d)

M (17, -6)

12.
What city is located at about 39 degrees North latitude and 108 degrees West longitude?
a)
Durango
b)
Delta
c)
Boulder
d)
Denver
13.

Location D is located at which coordinates?

a)

30oN, 90oW

b)

90oN, 30oW

c)

10oN, 40oW

d)

30oN, 90oE

14.
Europe, Asia and North America are in what hemisphere?
a)
Northern
b)
Southern
c)
Western
d)
Eastern
15.
Four data sets are shown below.
Set 1: {10, 19, 38, 50, 51}
Set 2: {5, 21, 26, 39, 51}
Set 3: {9, 38, 50, 50, 51}
Set 4: {5, 28, 28, 28, 51}
Which data set has the largest standard deviation?
a)
Set 1
b)
Set 2
c)
Set 3
d)
Set 4
16.

In a population of five university students with GPAs of 2.5, 2.3, 1.7, 1.4, and 1.1, a sample of three students are considered. What would be the standard deviation of the resulting sampling distribution?

a)

0.53

b)

0.41

c)

0.35

d)

0.22

17.
Write an equation.  Chelsea buys 8 packs of markers.  Each pack contains the same number of markers.  Chelsea gave 10 markers to her brother.  Then, she has 54 markers left.  How many markers were in each pack?
a)
8 - 10 = 54
b)
8p - 10 = 54
c)
8p + 10 = 54
d)
54 + 8p = 10
18.

The height of an item falling can be modeled by ht = -16t2 + ho . Where ho is the initial height in feet, and ht is the height in feet at time t in seconds. If I drop a penny at a height of 18.6 feet, how long will it take the item to hit the ground?

a)

1.08 seconds

b)

2.08 seconds

c)

0.08 seconds

d)

1.17 seconds

19.

The number of foam fingers sold at the Kennedy Center from 1900 to 2004 can be modeled by S = 2t2 + 2t - 1, where t is the number of years since 1900. How many foam fingers were sold in 1976?

a)

11,628

b)

11,703

c)

151

d)

5,775

20.
Suppose we wish to construct angle EFG congruent to angle DBC using a compass and straightedge. Which step would be correct to do first?
a)
Place the compass point at B
b)
Place the compass point at C
c)
Place the straightedge along A and C
d)
Place the straightedge along C and D
21.

A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?

a)

10/21

b)

11/21

c)

2/7

d)

5/7

22.

Question 20 - GAT 2016


The following represents a signal that causes a particular display to show a four-digit

number.

1111111–1011111–1110111–1110101

This number could be

a)

6805

b)

6850

c)

8056

d)

8065

23.

Question 21 - GAT 2016


On any given display, how many different digits could be indicated by a sequence of seven

bits consisting of at least two 0s and at least three 1s?

a)

Two

b)

Four

c)

Six

d)

Eight

24.

Write 2x2+8x4Write\ 2x^2+8x-4  in the form  a(x+b)2+ca\left(x+b\right)^2+c  

a)

a= 2 , b = 4, c = -6

b)

a = 1, b = 2, c = -6

c)

a = 0, b = 2, c = -6

d)

a =1, b = -2, c = 6

25.

The two histogram show the distribution of Mathematics and Science for 165 students in a test. Find the percentage of students who obtained more than 50 marks in both tests.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

26.

Calculate the mean.

a)

14.4

b)

16.4

c)

17

d)

18.4

27.

Evaluate without a calculator. Show all steps on a sheet of paper.

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

e)

B

28.
Evaluate without a calculator. Show all steps on a sheet of paper.
a)
B
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E
29.

If the terminal side of an angle in standard position coincides with one of the axes such as 90°, 180°, 270° or 360°, it is called a _____.

a)

coterminal angles

b)

radian

c)

quadrant angle

d)

angle

30.
If the position function for a particle is s(t) = -t2 - t, what is the instantaneous velocity function for the particle? 
a)
v(t) = -2
b)
v(t) -2t - 1 
c)
v(t) = t3
d)
v(t) = -t
31.
A bug begins to crawl up a vertical wire at time t = 0.  The velocity v of the bug at time t, 0 < t < 8, is given by the function whose graph is shown behind this text. At what value of t does the bug change direction
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6.5
d)
7
32.
The velocity of an object is given as v = 2t + 3t3. What is the acceleration of the object at t = 2 secs?
a)
38 m/s/s
b)
27 m/s/s
c)
16 m/s/s
d)
49 m/s/s
33.

If two solid hemispheres of same base radii r, are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is

a)

4πr2

b)

6πr2

c)

3πr2

d)

8πr2

34.

If a, b and c are positive integers, then (a – b –c)3 – a3 + b3 + c3 is always divisible by

a)

Only (a+b)

b)

Only (b+c)

c)

3(a-b)

d)

3(a+b)(b+c)(a+c)

35.

If n is a natural number, then which of the following is not always divisible by 2?

a)

n2-n

b)

n3-n

c)

n2-1

d)

n3-n2

36.


(a+1a)2(a1a)2=\left(a+\frac{1}{a}\right)^2-\left(a-\frac{1}{a}\right)^2=

a)

11

b)

22

c)

33

d)

44

37.

what is the probability getting face card or Heart from well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards?

a)

25/52

b)

13/52

c)

11/52

d)

52/11

38.

Three sisters, Ann, Beth and Cindy, bought a bag of 30 cookies together.  Each of them received 10 cookies. Ann paid 80 cents, Beth paid 50 cents and Cindy paid 20 cents. If they had divided the cookies proportionally to the price each paid, how many more cookies   would Ann have received? (4 points)

a)

10

b)

9

c)

8

d)

7

e)

6

39.

 Ane bought 3 toys. For the first toy she paid half of her money and EUR1 more. For the second toy she paid half of the remaining money and EUR2 more. Finally, for the third toy she paid half of the remaining money and EUR3 more, thus spending all of her money. How much money did she have initially? (4 points)

    

a)

EUR36

b)

EUR45

c)

EUR34

d)

EUR65

e)

EUR100

40.

A journey from Košice to Poprad through Prešov lasts 130 minutes. The part of the journey from Košice to Prešov lasts 35 minutes. How long does the part of the journey from Prešov to Poprad last? (4 points)

a)

95 minutes

b)

105 minutes

c)

115 minutes

d)

165 minutes

e)

175 minutes

41.

Some diluted juice is to be made out of concentrate and water in the ratio  by volume.   Juice concentrate is in a 1-litre flask, and the flask is half full.  What fraction of this concentrate should be used to produce 2 litres of diluted juice? (4 points)

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

2/7

d)

4/7

e)

All of the concentrate.

42.

60 apples and 60 pears are packed into boxes so that each box contains the same number of apples, and no two boxes contain the same number of pears. What is the largest possible number of boxes that can be packed in this way? (4 points)

a)

20

b)

15

c)

12

d)

10

e)

6

43.

 Liam spent all his money buying 50 soda bottles at the store for 1 Euro each. He sells each bottle at the same higher price. After selling 40 bottles, he has 10 Euros more than he started with. He then sells all the remaining bottles. How much money does Liam now have?

 (4 points)

a)

70 Euro

b)

75 Euro

c)

80 Euro

d)

90 Euro

e)

100 Euro

44.

When Ria and Flora compared their savings, they found that the ratio of their savings was 5 : 3. Then Ria bought a tablet for 160 Euro and the ratio of their savings changed to 3 : 5. How many Euro did Ria have before buying the tablet? (4 points)

 

a)

192

b)

200

c)

250

d)

400

e)

420

45.

Elisabeta had a large bag of 60 chocolates. She started by eating one 10th of them on Monday, then one 9th of the remainder on Tuesday, then one 8th of the rest on Wednesday, then one 7th on Thursday and so on until she eats half of the remaining chocolates from the previous day. How many chocolates does she have left? (4 points)  

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

6

46.

Country A uses sterling and has a GDP per head of £30,000. Country B uses another currency. If this is converted to sterling at the current exchange rate, its GDP per head is £5,000. Which of the following statements is false? (4 points)

a)

To get a better comparison of output per head, it would be better to convert country B's currency into sterling using purchasing power parities (PPPs).

ountry are similar.

b)

If PPPs were used, it is most likely that B's output per head would seem closer than it does using exchange rates.

c)

Exchange rates generally settle so that the prices of tradable products in each country are similar.

d)

PPPs are the rates which ensure that the prices of all products in each country are similar

e)

None

47.

 Suppose that, over time, the share of manufacturing industry in a country's GDP falls. Which of the following statements is true?

1. The quantity of the goods and services produced by manufacturing industry must be falling. 2.The value of the goods and services produced by manufacturing industry must be falling.

 (4 points)

a)

Both 1 and 2

b)

1 only  

c)

2 only   

d)

Neither 1 nor 2.

e)

None

48.

Which of the following statements is true? (5 points)

1. Total welfare is affected by many factors including economic welfare. 2. Economic welfare refers to living standards.

a)

Both 1 and 2  

b)

1 only  

c)

2 only  

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

e)

None

49.

 Suppose that over the course of a decade an economy had a stable population and real GNDI increased by 20%. However, an economist estimates that economic welfare increased by less than 20%. Which of the following would not be a factor that could help to explain this? (5 points)

a)

Household production (excluding owner-occupied property) increased by less than 20%.

b)

Output by the underground economy increased by less than 20%.

c)

Leisure time increased by less than 20%.  

d)

Prices increased by more than 20%.

e)

None.

50.

Which of the following statements is false? (5 points)

a)

Even in the worst recorded cases of hyperinflation, the price level always took at last a week to double.

b)

Some people lose out if actual inflation turns out to be below the rate they expected.

c)

Some people lose out if actual inflation turns out to be above the rate they expected.

d)

Some people lose out if actual inflation turns out to be equal the rate they expected.  

e)

None.

51.

Which of the following statements is false? (5 points)

a)

The GDP deflator is a price index that covers all goods and services included in GDP.

b)

The RPI is a price index that covers a wide range of goods and services bought by households.

c)

The CPI is a price index that covers a wide range of goods and services bought by households.

d)

The CPI generally rises more quickly than the RPI.

e)

None.

52.

In which of the following situations would real GDP increase while the price level stayed the same? (5 points)

a)

The aggregate demand and aggregate supply curves both shifted up by the same amount.

b)

The aggregate demand and aggregate supply curves both shifted right by the same amount.

c)

The aggregate demand curve stayed put but aggregate supply shifted right.

d)

The aggregate demand curve shifted right but the aggregate supply curve stayed put.

e)

None.

53.

 Which of the following must always be equal? (5 points)

a)

Actual saving and actual investment in a two-sector economy

b)

Planned saving and planned investment in a two-sector economy

c)

Actual saving and actual investment in a four-sector economy

d)

dPlanned saving and planned investment in a four-sector economy

e)

None.

54.

 Which of the following statements is correct in the case of a four-sector economy? (5 points)

a)

G equals all planned government spending.

b)

L equals planned spending on new capital goods.

c)

T equals all planned receipts from taxes.

d)

C is less than disposable income minus planned saving.

e)

None.

55.

Suppose that one month, injections in a four-sector economy are greater than withdrawals. Which of the following statements is false? (5 points)

a)

Planned spending will be greater than output.

b)

Actual investment will be less than planned investment.

c)

Planned investment must exceed planned saving.

d)

Output is likely to be increased.

e)

None.

56.

Suppose we draw the consumption function for a two-sector economy, with disposable income, YDIS, on the horizontal axis and planned consumption, C, on the vertical axis. Suppose we also add a 45° line through the origin, and find that the consumption function intersects this at a YDIS equal to £1,000 billion a year. Which of the following statements is false? (5 points)

a)

The slope of the consumption function at any level of YDIS shows the value of MPCDIS at that level of YDIS.

b)

If YDIS in the economy was £1,000 billion a year, planned consumer spending would also equal £1,000 billion a year.

.

c)

If YDIS in the economy was less than £1,000 billion a year, planned saving would be negative.

d)

The consumption function must be a straight line.

e)

None

57.

Which of the following factors might cause a country's consumption function to shift upwards? (5 points)

a)

A fall in share prices.

b)

A fall in interest rates.

c)

Expectations that the economy will soon go into a recession.

d)

Households deciding to be thriftier.

e)

None.

58.

Suppose banks desire a ratio of reserves to deposits, r, of 4%. And suppose the public desire a ratio of cash to deposits, d, of 2%. Which of the following is correct?

1. The bank deposit multiplier is 25. 2. The money multiplier is 17. (6 points)

 

a)

Both 1 and 2.  

b)

1 only.  

c)

2 only.  

d)

1 or 2.

e)

Neither 1 nor 2.

59.

Which of the following statements is false? (6 points)

a)

Financial intermediaries offer risk transformation and maturity transformation.

b)

The Bank of England may act as a lender of last resort.

c)

A bank can increase its capital adequacy ratio by switching some funds from advances to buying more company shares.

d)

A bank can increase its capital adequacy ratio by selling some company shares and lending the proceeds as mortgages.

e)

None

60.

Which of the following would not shift the money demand curve to the right? (6 points)

a)

A move which means that all workers who were in the past paid weekly will in future be paid monthly

b)

A rise in incomes.

c)

A rise in wealth.

d)

A fall in the interest rate

e)

None

61.

Which of the following is a shortcoming of the simple multiplier model that the AS-AD model overcomes?

1. The multiplier model ignores the fact that a rise in planned spending which causes a rise in output will also lead to a rise in incomes and the demand for money, and so in turn lead to a rise in the interest rate. 2. The multiplier model ignores the fact that a rise in injections leads to a rise in prices which will cause people to reduce their spending plans. (6 points)

 

a)

both 1 and 2

b)

1 only

c)

2 only

d)

1 or 2

e)

Neither 1 nor 2

62.

Which of the following arguments for a sloping AD curve is unconvincing? (6 points)

a)

A rise in the price level in a country will tend to lead to a fall in the real value of exports and a rise in the real value of imports.

b)

A rise in the price level in a country will lead to lower real spending because it will lead to lower real wealth.  

c)

A rise in the price level in a country will reduce the real value of firms' profits, causing them to reduce planned investment.  

d)

A rise in the price level in a country will lead to lower real spending because it will lead to a higher interest rate.

e)

None.

63.

Which of the following statements about the IS curve is false? (6 points)

a)

it shows that the lower is the interest rate, the higher is the equilibrium level of output.

b)

The more responsive planned spending is to changes in the interest rate, the more interest elastic is the IS curve.

c)

A fall in the interest rate will shift IS to the right.

d)

An increase in exports will shift IS to the right.

e)

None

64.

Which of the following statements about the LM curve is false? (6 points)

a)

An increase in the demand for money will shift LM right.

b)

An increase in the supply of money curve will shift LM right.

c)

It shows that the higher is the level of output, the higher is the equilibrium rate of interest.

d)

The more interest elastic is the demand for money, the more interest elastic is the LM curve

e)

None

65.

Suppose that a country is in short-run equilibrium at the point where its aggregate demand curve intersects its aggregate supply curve. Then aggregate demand falls. Which of the following does not help to explain why output may then move to a lower short-run equilibrium level? 

(6 points)

a)

Nominal wages may be sticky downwards.

b)

Prices may be sticky upwards.

c)

Individual producers may mistakenly believe that they alone have faced a fall in demand, and so may demand less labour.

d)

Individual workers may mistakenly believe that while nominal wages have fallen, the price level has not.

e)

None

66.

Which of the following statements about a country's long-run aggregate supply curve, LAS, is true? (6 points)

a)

It is vertical throughout its length at the output which would be produced if there were no unemployment.  

b)

It is vertical throughout its length at the output which would be produced if there were only natural unemployment.  

c)

es forwards at low price levels and is then vertical.

d)

It slop  d) It slopes forwards at all price levels.

e)

None. 

67.

Suppose an economy is in short-run and long-run equilibrium where its AD, SAS and LAS curves intersect. Then there is an improvement in technology which leads to a higher demand for labour, so increasing the level of natural employment and the level of potential output. Which of the following statements about the new long-run equilibrium position is false? (6 points)

a)

The new LAS curve will be to the right of the original LAS.

b)

The price level will be lower than it started.

c)

The real wage will be higher than it started.

d)

The new SAS curve will be to the left of the original SAS.

e)

None

68.

What was COVID 19 initial name?

a)

COVID VIRUS

b)

CORONA VIRUS

c)

NOVEL CORONA VIRUS 2019

d)

NAVEL CORONA VIRUS

69.

What is the word which is associated with COVID 19 which means objects and things can carry the virus or infection?

a)

Formites

b)

Fomites

c)

Famites

d)

Famrites

70.

COVID 19 virus jumped from an animal host to

(a)  

71.

Who is the spokeperson of the World Health Organization?

a)

Tedros Adhanom

b)

Allison Becker

c)

Christian Lindmeier

d)

Gregory Hartl

72.

Who is the IATF spokeperson reporting on COVID-19?

a)

Salvador Panelo

b)

Karlo Nograles

c)

Martin Andanar

d)

Herminio Harry Roque

73.

Who is the new presidential spokeperson of Pres. Duterte?

a)

Salvador Panelo

b)

Karlo Nograles

c)

Martin Andanar

d)

Herminio Harry Roque

74.

What is the title of the song dedicated to the frontliners ?

(a)  

75.

What is the age of the oldest COVID-19 survivor?

a)

106

b)

102

c)

100

d)

98