wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Ch 11 pathology

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Testicular torsion demonstrates with increased uptake of the radionuclide on an NM scan.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The characteristic US presentation of a hydatidiform mole is a:

a)

large, soft tissue mass resembling a “bunch of grapes.”

b)

purely anechoic lesion with hyperechoic shadowing

c)

moderately echogenic lesion punctuated with tiny hyperechoic areas

d)

large complex mass of central hemorrhage with necrosis

3.

The corpus luteum secretes:

a)

luteinizing hormone (LH)

b)

estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

4.

The cyclic changes in the ovaries are controlled by a variety of substances secreted by the:

a)

breasts

b)

corpus luteum

c)

anterior pituitary gland

d)

ovaries

5.

The final maturation of sperm occurs in the _____.

a)

vas deferens

b)

epididymis

c)

prostate

d)

seminal vesicles

6.

The most common site of hematogenous metastasis of prostate cancer is:

a)

bone

b)

brain

c)

lung

d)

Kidneys

7.

The preferred imaging modality for demonstration of testicular torsion depends upon:

a)

age of patient

b)

degree of swelling

c)

time of symptom onset and age of the patient.

d)

time of symptom onset.

8.

The proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle occurs:

a)

at the onset of LH secretion and end of progesterone production

b)

at the onset of ovulation until fertilization.

c)

between the end of menses and ovulation

d)

between ovulation and the onset of menses.

9.

The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle occurs:

a)

between ovulation and the onset of menses.

b)

at the onset of FSH until ovulation

c)

at the onset of estrogen production until the end of progesterone production.

d)

between the end of menses and ovulation

10.

The tertiary stage of syphilis is incurable.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

The twisting of the gonad on its pedicle is known as:

a)

testicular torsion

b)

gonadal distension

c)

vesiculation

d)

cryptorchidism

12.

The two primary categories of testicular tumors are seminomas and teratomas.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Transrectal ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality for detection of:

a)

testicular torsion

b)

carcinoma of the prostate

c)

undescended testis.

d)

epididymitis

14.

Uterine fibroids are also known as leiomyomas.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

What condition is associated with cryptorchidism?

a)

Epididymitis

b)

Testicular torsion

c)

Malignancy

d)

Hypogonadism

16.

What hormone is secreted by the testes?

a)

Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH)

b)

Testosterone

c)

Progesterone

d)

Spermatogone

17.

What is (are) the function(s) of the prostate gland?

a)

Secrete a thin, alkaline fluid essential to sperm motility

b)

Secrete nutrients essential to sperm maturation and store immature sperm during maturation.

c)

Secrete a thick, fructose-rich liquid, which serves as an energy source for sperm.

d)

Store sperm until ejaculation.

18.

What is a choriocarcinoma?

a)

A malignant tumor of the ovary

b)

A malignant form of trophoblastic disease

c)

A malignancy that occurs in a normally developing fetus, usually during the second trimester

d)

A malignant tumor of the fallopian tube

19.

What is a common cause of an inability to empty the urinary bladder in males?

a)

Epididymitis

b)

Bladder carcinoma

c)

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

d)

Carcinoma of the prostate

20.

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Fertilization that does not produce a viable fetus.

b)

A pregnancy that implants somewhere other than the uterus.

c)

A pregnancy that spontaneously terminates in the first trimester.

d)

Another term for an embryo.

21.

What is cryptorchidism?

a)

Agenesis of the prostate

b)

The condition of an ectopic or undescended testis

c)

Inflammation of the seminal vesicles

d)

Malposition of the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles

22.

What is gynecomastia?

a)

Abnormal breast enlargement in males

b)

Inflammatory breast disease that occurs in both sexes

c)

Absence of normal breast tissue in females

d)

The growth and development of breast tissue in an abnormal location

23.

What is the function of the seminal vesicles?

a)

Store sperm until ejaculation

b)

Produce sperm

c)

Secrete a thick, fructose-rich liquid, which is a sperm energy source

d)

Secrete a thin, alkaline liquid essential to sperm motility

24.

What is the most common germ cell tumor in women?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Leiomyoma

c)

Uterine fibroid

d)

Dermoid cyst

25.

What is trophoblastic disease?

a)

A disease that affects sterile females, usually secondary to endometriosis.

b)

A disease that affects males and causes decreased sperm count.

c)

A spectrum of disorders that affect males with low fertility or complete infertility.

d)

A spectrum of pregnancy-related disorders causing either benign or malignant neoplasms

26.

Which imaging modality has become the primary modality for imaging of both the male and female reproductive systems?

a)

Positron emission tomography (PET)

b)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

c)

Ultrasound (US)

d)

Computed tomography (CT)

27.

Which imaging modality is best for demonstration of breast tissue surrounding breast implants?

a)

US

b)

MRI

c)

Nuclear medicine

d)

Radiography

28.

Which imaging modality is used as a screening technique when a testis is not palpated in the scrotal sac?

a)

NM

b)

US

c)

Radiography

d)

MRI

29.

Which imaging modality is the most effective screening technique for skeletal metastasis of prostate carcinoma?

a)

CT

b)

US

c)

Nuclear medicine

d)

Radiography

30.

Which is the most accurate US measurement of fetal age in early pregnancy (less than 11 weeks)?

a)

Fetal femoral length

b)

Crown-to-rump length

c)

Biparietal diameter (BPD)

d)

Fetal age cannot be determined via US measurements before 12 weeks of gestation

31.

Which is the most accurate US measurement of fetal age in later pregnancy (second and third trimesters)?

a)

Crown-to-rump length

b)

Fetal age cannot be determined via US measurement in the second or third trimesters

c)

Fetal femoral length

d)

Biparietal diameter (BPD)

32.

Which male gland lies just beneath the bladder and surrounds the urethra?

a)

Vas deferens

b)

Seminal

c)

Prostate

d)

Testicle

33.

Which of the following are US evidence of an ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Enlarged uterus without a gestational sac

b)

Large, soft mass of placental tissue (“bunch of grapes”)

c)

Fluid in the cul-de-sac and Enlarged uterus without a gestational sac

d)

Fluid in the cul-de-sac

34.

Which of the following are causes of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women?

a)

Venereal disease, complication of intrauterine devices, multiple sexual partners

b)

Multiple sexual partners

c)

Venereal disease

d)

Complication of intrauterine devices (IUDs)

35.

Which of the following are image characteristics of a malignancy in the breast?

a)

Breast malignancies do not produce definite image characteristics.

b)

Smooth, well-defined mass

c)

Poorly defined mass with fine, radiating spicules

d)

Large, tubular calcifications

36.

Which of the following are radiographic imaging procedures of the female reproductive system that are commonly performed today?

a)

Pelvimetry

b)

Pelvimetry and mammography

c)

Mammography and Hysterosalpingography

d)

Mammography

37.

Which of the following body systems may be affected by the tertiary stage of syphilis?

a)

CNS

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Skeletal

d)

Skeletal, cardiovascular and CNS

38.

Which of the following develops after ovulation?

a)

Graafian follicles

b)

Fetus

c)

Corpus luteum

d)

Corpus albicans

39.

Which of the following imaging modalities may be used to diagnose testicular tumors?

a)

US

b)

MRI

c)

US and MRi

d)

Radiography

40.

Which of the following is a serious complication of gonorrhea in females?

a)

Urethral stricture

b)

Fibrous scarring of fallopian tubes

c)

Osteomyelitis

d)

Aortic calcification

41.

Which of the following is characteristic of the secondary stage of syphilis?

a)

Neuropathic joint disease

b)

Chronic osteomyelitis

c)

Chancre on the genitals

d)

Nonitching skin rash

42.

Which of the following is the most common malignancy in women ages 44 to 50?

a)

Leiomyoma

b)

Endometrial carcinoma

c)

Seminoma

d)

Breast cancer

43.

Which of the following is the second most common malignancy in men?

a)

Orchioma

b)

Carcinoma of the prostate

c)

Seminoma

d)

Teratoma

44.

Which of the following is used to diagnose cervical cancer?

a)

NM

b)

MRI

c)

US

d)

Pap smear

45.

Which of the following most commonly occurs in postmenopausal women?

a)

Endometrial carcinoma

b)

Leiomyoma

c)

Uterine fibroid

d)

Simple ovarian cyst

46.

Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between ovulation and the onset of menses?

a)

Premenstrual

b)

Secondary

c)

Proliferative

d)

Postovulatory

47.

Which phase of the menstrual cycle occurs between the end of menses and ovulation?

a)

Secretory

b)

Proliferative

c)

Menstrual

d)

Preovulatory

48.

Which stage of syphilis is incurable?

a)

All stages of syphilis are incurable

b)

Secondary

c)

Primary

d)

Tertiary

49.

Which stage of syphilis produces radiographic evidence of this disease?

a)

Tertiary

b)

Radiographic abnormalities of syphilis are evident in all stages

c)

Primary

d)

Secondary

50.

Refer to the image below. This magnified compression spot of a mammogram demonstrates the characteristic appearance of a:

a)

breast malignancy

b)

fibrocystic lesion

c)

calcific adenoma

d)

simple cyst