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Audit process

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a type of audit opinion?

a)

Adverse

b)

Reverse

c)

Disclaimer

d)

Qualified

2.

The objective of the audit plan is

a)

to conduct the audit in accordance with GAAS

b)

reduce the risk of material misstatements to an acceptably low level

c)

prepare an unqualified report

d)

Both A & B

3.

 What is the independent auditor’s principal purpose for obtaining an understanding of internal control and assessing control risk in a financial statement audit?

a)

To comply with generally accepted accounting principles

b)

To obtain a measure of assurance of management’s efficiency

c)

To determine the nature, timing, and extent of subsequent audit work

d)

To maintain a state of independence in mental attitude during the audit

4.

An audit designed to determine the extent to which the desired results of an activity established by the legislative or other authorizing body are being achieved is a (an)...

(a)  

5.

The preliminary audit strategy

a)

is set before the auditor understands the client's reasons for the audit

b)

is the detailed steps to be followed for the substantive audit tests

c)

guides the development of the audit plan

d)

is determined after the engagement staffing is set

6.

When selecting staff for the audit engagement

a)

staff assigned to the audit must be knowledgeable about the client's industry

b)

staff members who are CPAs should be assigned to the audit

c)

continuity of staff members from year to year should not be a factor

d)

managers and above need to have appropriate competence and capabilities to perform the audit

7.

Audit program is prepared by

a)

the auditor and audit assistants

b)

the auditor

c)

the auditing firm

d)

the client

8.

In an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that

a)

Will increase proportionately when the auditor decreases the assessed level of control risk

b)

May be test of transactions, test of balance and analytical procedures

c)

May be eliminated for an account balance under certain conditions

d)

Are designed to discover significant subsequent events

9.

In what order should the following steps occur?

1. Set preliminary judgment of materiality and performance materiality.

2. Understand the clients business and industry.

3. Perform preliminary analytical procedures.

4. Accept the client and perform initial audit planning.

(Write down the answer in this form: 1234; 2314...)

(a)  

10.

Unqualified Audit Report reflects that the auditor is satisfied with the points that must be expressed in his report and that too in a positive sense, without any reservations.

a)

False

b)

True

11.

A firm has obtained information that would have caused it to decline an engagement had the information been available earlier. Actions available to the auditor would include the following, except:

a)

Withdraw from the engagement

b)

Issue a disclaimer of opinion

c)

Reporting the information and its implications to the person/s who appointed the CPA

d)

Withdraw from the client relationship

12.

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programmed preparation?

a)

To comply with GAAP.

b)

To detect errors or fraud.

c)

To assess audit risk.

d)

To gather sufficient appropriate evidence.

13.

The quantity of audit working papers complied on engagement would most be affected by

a)

Auditor’s experience and professional judgement

b)

Management’s integrity

c)

Control risk

d)

Auditor’s qualification

14.

An entity changed the depreciation method for all newly acquired assets. This change has no material effect on the current year's financial statements but is reasonably certain to have a substantial effect in later years. If the change is disclosed in the notes to the financial statements, the auditor should issue a report with a(n)

a)

Unqualified Report

b)

Disclaimer Report

c)

Qualified report

d)

Adverse Report

15.

What is the primary objective of analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of an audit?

a)

To help to corroborate the conclusions drawn from individual components of financial statements.

b)

To reduce specific detection risk.

c)

To direct attention to potential risk areas.

d)

To satisfy doubts when questions arise about a client ability of continue.

16.

As acceptable audit risk is decreased, the likely cost of conducting an audit increases.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What type of opinion is issued when the auditor, having obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence, concludes that misstatements, individually or in the aggregate, are both material and pervasive to the financial statements?

a)

Adverse

b)

Disclaimer

c)

Qualified

d)

Unqualified

18.

Audit is a fact-finding process that compares actual results with

a)

specified standards and plans

b)

expected results

c)

generally accounting standards

d)

preliminary results

19.

When developing the overall strategy for the audit, the auditor will

a)

decide whether to accept a new client.

b)

identify why the auditor needs an audit.

c)

determine if any audit specialists will be required.

d)

obtain an engagement letter.

20.

(a)   is a potential future obligation to an outside party for an unknown amount resulting from activities that have already taken place