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2022 Business Quiz

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the P in PESTEC stand for?

a)

Political

b)

Party

c)

Profit

d)

Partial

2.

What does the first E in PESTEC stand for?

a)

Economic

b)

Environment

c)

Education

d)

Exchange

3.

What does the S in PESTEC stand for?

a)

Social

b)

Sales

c)

Support

d)

Supplier

4.

What does the T in PESTEC stand for?

a)

Technological

b)

Time

c)

Training

d)

Teaching

5.

What does the last E in PESTEC stand for?

a)

Economic

b)

Employees

c)

Environment

d)

Ethos

6.

What does the C in PESTEC stand for?

a)

Company

b)

Competitive

c)

CEO

d)

Capital

7.

Who has the power over political factors?

a)

Businesses

b)

The Government

c)

Boris Johnson

d)

The Tax Payer

8.

External factors can have both a positive and negative affect on a business.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

External influences on a business refer to

a)

Factors that are good for the business

b)

Factors that are bad for a business

c)

Factors that are outside the control of the business

d)

Illegal actions by a business

10.

The introduction of legislation for the minimum alcohol pricing in Scotland is an example of a ......

a)

social factor

b)

political factor

c)

social factor

d)

technological factor

11.

Which of the following is a political factor?

a)

Unemployment

b)

Laws

c)

Interest Rates

12.

Which of the following is a political factor

a)

Tax

b)

Exchange rates

c)

Demographics

13.

Who is the Prime Minister of the UK?

a)

Boris Johnston

b)

Nicola Sturgeon

c)

Keir Starmer

d)

Liz Truss

14.

Governments can raise or lower corporation tax, which will impact on profits.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The current rate of VAT is....

a)

17.5%

b)

22%

c)

20%

d)

16%

16.
A sole trader has responsibility for
a)
preparing the accounts of the business
b)
all aspects of their business
c)
selling the products
d)
completing spreadsheets
17.

The main objective of the public sector is

a)

to make a profit.

b)

to provide a service.

c)

to provide advice.

d)

to pay dividends.

18.

Public Sector organisations are owned by ?

a)

Government

b)

Citizens

c)

Businesses

d)

None of these

19.

Glasgow City Council is an example of.....

a)

a local authority

b)

a national government

c)

a panel

20.

Public sector organisation are owned by.....

a)

the people

b)

the government

c)

private sector organisations

d)

no one

21.

Public sector organisations are funded by taxes such as (more than 1 answer)......

a)

Road Tax

b)

Income Tax

c)

Welfare Tax

d)

Council Tax

22.

Public sector organisations in Scotland get funding from.....

a)

The Private sector

b)

The Scottish Government

c)

Charities

23.

Some examples of activities of local government organisations are (more than 1 answer).....

a)

Emptying Bins

b)

Providing Leisure Activities

c)

Running Schools

d)

Providing Flights

24.

A percentage of money taken from individuals or businesses is referred to as

a)

property tax

b)

excise tax

c)

income tax

d)

sales tax

25.
How many people own a sole trader business?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
1
d)
20
26.
What is unlimited liability?
a)
If the business fails you will not lose personal possessions
b)
If the business fails you will lose personal possessions
27.

Select TWO true statements that relate to a sole trader.

a)

Sole traders have limited liability

b)

Sole traders get to make all their own decisions about the business

c)

Sole traders may find it harder to raise funds for the business

d)

Sole traders usually get more holidays than partners or directors

28.
Which type of business has the most trouble getting financing?
a)
Sole Trader
b)
Partnership
c)
Both
d)
Neither
29.

Unlimited Liability is

a)

The owner has to pay off all the debts of the business. To the extent that their private assets may be sold to cover the businesses debts.

b)

When a company's shareholders have to pay only their share value to meet debts incurred by the company.

30.

Sole traders have unlimited liability. True or False?

a)

False

b)

True

31.

What are 3 of the benefits of being a sole trader?

a)

Easy to establish

b)

Keep all the profit

c)

Get to make all the decisions

d)

Unlimited liability

32.

How many factors of production do we have?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

33.

Which of the following industries is an example of a primary industry?

a)

Coal Mining

b)

House Building

c)

Hotels

d)

School

34.

Identify the correct factor of production.

Skilled people working in a lawyers firm will be seen as?

a)

Natural resources

b)

Labour

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship

35.

Identify the correct factor of production.

Individuals with great ideas and willing to take risks.

a)

Natural resources

b)

Labour

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship

36.

Identify the correct factor of production.

Machinery and factories are?

a)

Natural resources

b)

Labour

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship

37.

Identify the correct factor of production.

Water, wood and fish are?

a)

Natural resources

b)

Labour

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship

38.

Identify the correct factor of production.

Any person working will be seen as?

a)

Natural resources

b)

Labour

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship

39.

When we look at tools and money invested in a business, it can be classified as which factor of production?

a)

Natural resources

b)

Labour

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship

40.

Businesses that operate in the tertiary sector provide:

a)

Social services

b)

Natural resources

c)

Manufactured products

d)

Services

41.

Which of these is in the primary sector:

a)

Legal services

b)

Vehicle assembly

c)

Crop production

d)

Pharmaceutical research

42.

Businesses that convert natural resources into products are classified as:

a)

Service providers

b)

Social enterprises

c)

Manufacturers

d)

Primary producers

43.

Which one of these is not in the tertiary sector?

a)

Cement production

b)

Law & accountancy

c)

Online publishing

d)

Banking & insurance

44.

What are the three sectors of industry?

a)

First, Second and Third

b)

Private, Public and Third

c)

Primary, Secondary and Tertiary

d)

Land, Labour and Enterprise

45.

Gold and oil can be seen as:

a)

Natural resources

b)

Labour

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurship

46.

Which of these statements describes the tertiary sector?

a)

The sector that deals with energy companies such as oil and gas.

b)

The sector that deals with private, public and third sector companies.

c)

The sector that involves the provision of services.

d)

The sector that manufactures products for sale.

47.

Agriculture is in which sector?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quarternary

48.

Ahmed's fishing company who takes fish who have been caught and manufactures them into meals is in what sector?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Public

49.

Lisa's fishing company who catches mussels and clams is in which industry?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Third

50.

What sector?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Agriculture

51.

This word means "a picture, short film, song, etc. that tries to persuade people to buy a product or service"

a)

modification

b)

advertisement

c)

liaison

d)

inventory

52.

If a company is _________, it means that it's known to be honest and do good work.

a)

distributor

b)

wholesaler

c)

profitably

d)

reputable

53.
Logos, trademarks and images are examples of which of the following?
a)
Branding
b)
Positioning
c)
Packaging
d)
Market penetration
54.
Which of the following best describes a target market?
a)
Close competitors of a business
b)
The people who buy a business's products
c)
Groups that do not buy a business's products
d)
The individuals at whom a business's marketing strategies are aimed
55.
Which of the following best describes market segmentation?
a)
Dividing a large market into a smaller sub-market
b)
Selling goods for less than their production cost to maximise sales
c)
Maintaining long-term ties with customers to encourage repeat sales
d)
Identifying the consumer groups most likely to buy a business's products
56.

Out of the following which are NOT goods?

a)

Hammers

b)

Autos

c)

Dry cleaning

d)

Financial services

e)

Clothing

57.

Out of the following which are NOT services?

a)

insurance

b)

Dry cleaning

c)

Ironing

d)

Automobiles

e)

Clothing

58.

What is the idea of a marketing concept? (1 answer)

a)

knowing the needs and wants of shareholders and reaching the main sales targets

b)

knowing the needs and wants of the government and compliance with the regulation

c)

knowing the needs and wants of target markets and delivering the desired satisfactions more effectively than competitors.

59.

What do 4 P’s of the marketing mix stand for?

a)

Product

b)

Price

c)

Promotion

d)

Place

e)

Planning

60.

Market segmentation is … (one answer)

a)

division of a market of consumers into people with similar needs and wants

b)

division of a supermarket into main sales areas

c)

division of the marketers into groups according to their experience

61.

Product

a)

The cost to the buyer of goods or services

b)

Informing customers about products and persuading them to buy them

c)

Where goods or services are available

d)

Goods or services that are sold

62.

Price

a)

Informing customers about products and persuading them to buy them

b)

The cost to the buyer of goods or services

c)

Where goods or services are available

d)

Goods or services that are sold

63.

Promotion

a)

The cost to the buyer of goods or services

b)

Where goods or services are available

c)

Informing customers about products and persuading them to buy them

d)

Goods or services that are sold

64.

Place

a)

Informing customers about products and persuading them to buy them

b)

The cost to the buyer of goods or services

c)

Goods or services that are sold

d)

Where goods or services are available

65.

Is this ...

a)

Price?

b)

Place?

c)

Promotion?

d)

Product?

66.

Is this ....

a)

Place?

b)

Product?

c)

Promotion?

d)

Price?

67.

Is this...

a)

Place?

b)

Product?

c)

Promotion?

d)

Price?

68.
This involves the process and methods used to gather information, analyze it, and report findings related to marketing goods and services
a)
Survey Creation
b)
Marketing Research
c)
Advertising Selection
d)
Marketing Discovery
69.

True or False?

Marketing includes advertising, selling, and delivering products to consumers.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

True or False?

Marketing involves encouraging people to buy a product or service.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

True or False?

Sponsoring sports events is an example of marketing.

a)

True

b)

False

72.
Which of the following best describes 'efficiency'?
a)
Producing items customers need
b)
Maximising output
c)
Making the best use of resources
73.

Where manufacturing of products relies mainly on human effort

a)

Labour Intensive Production

b)

Capital Intensive Production

74.

The best techniques and practices used by another organisation which is considered to be “the leader/best” in the market are copied in order to make improvements to current practices and so improve quality.

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Management

d)

Benchmarking

75.

Where groups of workers from all levels meet to discuss problems related to quality in order to identify solutions so that quality can be improved.

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Control

d)

Benchmarking

76.

Inspecting products at the end of the production process against agreed quality standards. Any unacceptable products are either discarded or sent back for correction.

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Control

c)

Quality Circles

d)

Benchmarking

77.

Inspecting products at the end of the production process against agreed quality standards. Any unacceptable products are either discarded or sent back for correction.

a)

Quality Assurance

b)

Quality Control

c)

Quality Circles

d)

Benchmarking

78.

Where manufacturing of products relies mainly on technology

a)

Capital Intensive Production

b)

Labour Intensive Production

79.

Where a single product is made to a customer’s specific requirements

a)

Job Production

b)

Batch Production

c)

Flow Production

80.

Where similar products are produced in groups at the same time before another group is started

a)

Batch Production

b)

Job Production

c)

Flow Production

81.

Large-scale production where items move continuously from one stage of the production line to the next and each stage adds to it

a)

Batch Production

b)

Flow Production

c)

Job Production

82.

Stock should not go above this level as it means overstocking occurs

a)

Maximum Level

b)

Minimum Level

c)

Re-order Level

d)

Re-order Quantity

83.

The level at which stock should be re-ordered taking into account usage and lead time

a)

Maximum Level

b)

Minimum Level

c)

Re-order Level

d)

Re-order Quantity

84.

The level stock should not fall below this as shortages could result and production could be halted. Stock should not go below this level as it means understocking occurs.

a)

Maximum Level

b)

Minimum Level

c)

Re-order Level

d)

Re-order Quantity

85.

Over-stocking can lead to...

a)

High storage costs​

b)

Products left unsold that may be spoiled/stolen

c)

Capital is tied up –opportunity cost of what else you could be using this money for

d)

The business has nothing to sell (or may have to stop production)​

86.
What is recruitment?
a)
The process by which a business hires staff
b)
The process by which a business trains staff
c)
The process by which a business inducts staff
87.
How is a business most likely to encourage applications for a post?
a)
Job adverts
b)
Staff appraisal
c)
Internal recruitment
88.
Which should NOT be on a job description?
a)
Qualifications
b)
Hours
c)
Duties
d)
Location
89.
Where would you usually find a summary of the work history of a prospective employee?
a)
  CV
b)
Person specification
c)
  Job description
90.
Which one does NOT belong on a person specification?
a)
Pay
b)
Skills
c)
Qualifications
d)
Experience
91.
Where are the details of skills and qualities required for a post usually found?
a)
  CV
b)
Person specification
c)
Job description
92.
What is external recruitment?
a)
Recruiting from outside the company
b)
Recruiting from Asia
c)
Recruiting from current employees
d)
Recruiting from universiy
93.
Internal recruitment
a)
Giving a promotion
b)
Using a recruitment agency