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11. Risk Management

Total questions: 12

Worksheet time: 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
An agile software development project consists of four releases, with features incrementally added with each release. Due to an excessive number of defects found by users after the first release, the risk response plan was implemented, which involved more rigorous testing by the project team. After the second release, the client has reported two bugs. What must first be done to determine the effectiveness of the implemented risk response?
a)
Schedule a release retrospective
b)
Complete a sensitivity analysis
c)
Conduct technical performance analysis
d)
Perform a reserve analysis
2.
Midway into an iteration, an agile team faces a minor technical issue. One of the team members recalls that the agile coach is an expert in the field from her past experience as a senior developer. The team requests that the coach help resolve the issue. What should the agile coach do first?
a)
Let the team resolve the issue
b)
Help the team resolve the issue
c)
Resolve the issue for the team
d)
Consult with the product owner
3.

A project lost 10 productive days due to bad weather. In order to make up for the lost time, the project management team calls for an emergency meeting and decides to apply fast-tracking as a schedule compression technique. This is an example of:

a)

Workaround.

b)

Risk escalation

c)

Risk mitigation

d)

Risk avoidance

4.
You and the project management team have been vigilant about observing different aspects of the project to ensure the project is progressing as planned. Currently, you are using performance data generated during project execution to determine if the status of overal project risk has changed, if the project assumptions are still valid, if contingency reserves for cost or schedule require modification, and if project strategy remains valid. What process are you performing?
a)
Plan Risk Responses
b)
Monitor Risks
c)
Plan Risk Management
d)
Identify Risks
5.

You are a risk manager for a big construction project. You and the project team successfully identified and analyzed risks. As a part of the risk response process, what is the purpose of mitigating negative risks?

a)

To reduce the probability of risk occurrence, and reduce the impact.

b)

To increase the probability of a risk occurrence, and reduce the impact.

c)

To accept the probability of a risk occurrence and reduce the impact.

d)

Transfer the probability of a risk occurrence to a third party, and reduce the impact.

6.

You are completing the qualitative risk analysis process with your project team and are relying on the risk management plan to help you determine the budget, schedule for risk management and risk categories. You discover that the risk categories have not been created. When should the risk categories have been created?

a)

Risk identification process.

b)

Plan risk management process.

c)

Define scope process.

d)

Plan risk response process.

7.
A project has been experiencing many challenges and obstacles that have resulted in schedule delays and cost overruns. During the sprint retrospective, the project team members are looking for ways to improve project perfomance from the next sprint onward. The team wants to be able to absorb negative impacts and recover from them quicker. What might the project leader suggest to the team?
a)
Wait until the team completes the development of all user stories specified in the SOW
b)
Request the product owner to approve or reject user stories during a sprint review
c)
Validate the user stories as soon as they are completed at any point during a sprint
d)
Conduct a procurement audit with the vendor each time a sprint retrospective is held
8.

Your team is designing a packaging robot for a pharmaceutical production line. The product owner is an engineer, and he tells you it's a waste of the team's time to create a risk-adjusted backlog. You reply that this tool will allow the team to:

a)

Maximize the expected monetary value of the key product features

b)

Deliver the highest value features while mitigating the most serious threats

c)

Calculate the contingency reserve needed for all the opportunities and threats

d)


Balance continuous improvement with progressive elaboration

9.
During an iteration planning meeting, an agile team is having difficulty estimating the work required to develop the product increment because the approach selected to develop the increment involves new technology, with which the team is unfamiliar. The use of this technology also represents a potential risk to the entire project if the approach fails. What should the team do to determine the impact of using the new technology?
a)
Review the risks during the project retrospective
b)
Analyze the consequences of non-compliance
c)
Submit a change request to update the risk management plan
d)
Develop a cumulative flow diagram
10.

John is the project manager of the ABC Project. He and the project team have identified a risk event in the project with a high probability of occurrence, and the risk event has a high-cost impact on the project. John discusses the risk event with Sara, the primary project customer, and she decides that the requirement surrounding the risk event should be removed from the project. The removal of the requirements does affect the project scope, but it can release the project from the high-risk exposure. What risk response has been enacted in this project?

a)

Mitigate

b)

Avoid

c)

Transfer

d)

Accept

11.

The project manager asks the risk manager to determine the initial risk assessment for a six-month initiative that is about to kick-off. Which two artifacts will help the risk manager conduct the related analysis? (Choose two).

a)

Monte Carlo analysis.

b)

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

c)

Project organization chart.

d)

Configuration management plan

e)

Brainstorming.

12.

If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project is expected to last five months, what is the probability that this risk event will occur during the fourth month of the project?

a)

Less than one percent

b)

20 percent

c)

40 percent

d)

80 percent