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IB Economics Review December 2022

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If demand is ELASTIC,

a)

it reacts a lot to price changes

b)

it doesn't react to price changes

c)

price change leads to an equal change in demand

2.

Select a product with ELASTIC demand

a)

petrol

b)

make up

c)

electricity bill

3.

Unitary Elastic Demand

a)

demand reacts a lot to price changes

b)

change in price leads to an equal change in demand

c)

demand doesn't react to price changes

4.

Select a Unitary Elastic product

a)

bread

b)

electricity bill

c)

make up

5.

INELASTIC demand

a)

demand reacts a lot to price changes

b)

change in price leads to equal change in demand

c)

demand doesn't react a lot to price changes

6.

Which of the following is an example of inelastic demand?

a)

Jason wants the most expensive cellphone. He decides to get a cheaper model.

b)

Priya wants to go to the season-opening game. Tickets to another game cost less, but she still buys tickets for the opener.

c)

Tianna wants to try out a new, expensive restaurant. She goes to another restaurant whose food is excellent and costs less.

d)

Shawn wants to buy a house in one neighborhood. But after searching, he decides to buy a house elsewhere instead.

7.

How does elasticity affect potential revenue for a firm?

a)

If demand for a good is inelastic, lowering the price could raise revenue.

b)

If demand for a good is inelastic, raising the price could reduce revenue.

c)

If demand for a good is elastic, raising the price must increase revenue.

d)

If demand for a good is elastic, raising the price could reduce revenue.

8.

Which of the following is represented by X?

a)

Percentage Change in Quantity Supplied

b)

Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded

c)

Percentage Change in Supply

d)

Percentage Change in Demand

9.

Select the list of words which completes this statement, in the correct order. A price __________ occurs when the government implements a maximum price and a price __________ occurs when the government implements a price minimum. Price floors tend to create a __________ and price ceilings tend to create a __________.

a)

Floor, ceiling, shortage, surplus

b)

Floor, ceiling, surplus, shortage

c)

Ceiling, floor, shortage, surplus

d)

Ceiling, floor, surplus, shortage

10.

Which of the following best defines market equilibrium?

a)

The point at which supply exceeds demand and prices are stable

b)

The point at which supply and demand equal each other and prices are stable

c)

The point at which demand exceeds supply and prices are changing regularly

d)

The point at which supply and demand equal each other and prices are changing regularly

11.

Refer to Table 2. If the price is $8.00

a)

A surplus of 30 units would exist and price would tend to drop

b)

A shortage of 60 units would exist and price would tend to rise

c)

A shortage of 30 units would exist and price would tend to rise

d)

A surplus of 60 units would exist and price would tend to drop

12.

Which of the following describes the relative elasticity in demand for toothpaste?

a)

Demand is inelastic because it is a luxury item

b)

Demand is elastic because there are no substitutes

c)

Demand is inelastic because it makes up a large share of most people’s budget

d)

Demand is inelastic because it is a low-cost necessity

13.
Suppose that elasticity of demand of socks is 0.7.  If the price of socks is reduced by 10%, how will sales be effected?
a)
sales will grow by more than 10%
b)
Sales will grow by 10%
c)
Sales will grow by less than 10%
d)
Sales will decrease by 10%
14.
The formula for calculating elasticity of demand is:
a)
The % change in price over the % change in quantity demanded
b)
The % change in quantity demanded over the % change in price
c)
The change in price over the change in quantity demaned
d)
The change in quantity demanded over the change in price
15.
The elasticity of demand for tissues is 0.66. This means the demand for tissues is
a)
elastic
b)
unit elastic
c)
inelastic
d)
really expensive
16.

Water has seen an increase in demand 8% this summer, while the price has decreased 12%

a)

1.5 inelastic

b)

1.5 elastic

c)

.67 inelastic

d)

.67 elastic

17.

Wheat has seen a decrease in demand of 5%, while the price has increased 7%

a)

1.4 inelastic

b)

1.4 elastic

c)

.71 inelastic

d)

.71 elastic

18.

Melissa needs apples to make apple pie for a bake sale. She buys apples from a farmers market. She bakes the apple pies and sells them for $3 at the bake sale. What is true about Melissa in this scenario?

a)

Melissa is a consumer.

b)

Melissa is both a producer and a consumer.

c)

Melissa is a producer.

d)

none of the above

19.

In the former Soviet Union, consumers had to wait in long lines to buy everyday items like bread. They did not have many choices and the government controlled factories. In what type of economy did they live?

a)

Market

b)

Mixed

c)

Traditional

d)

Command

20.

Keith owns a store and a warehouse where metal jewelry is made. Keith buys metals to create the jewelry he sells in the store. Which of Keith’s resources are capital resources?

Check all that are true.

a)

warehouse

b)

metals

c)

store

d)

Keith's workers

21.

Many years ago, the __________ sector was the primary economic sector in the United States. As technology improved, the __________ sector grew becoming the most important economic sector. This resulted in people moving to cities and the primary economic sector changed as well. Now the largest economic sector is the __________ sector.

a)

entertainment; service, mining

b)

mining; entertainment; agricultural

c)

service; manufacturing, agricultural

d)

agricultural; manufacturing; service

22.

There are two different regions in a country. Region 1 contains farmlands and rich soil for growing crops. Region 2 has a large population of workers including lawyers, doctors, and office workers. Which are most likely the primary economic sectors in each region?

Check all that are true.

a)

The manufacturing sector is the most important sector in both Region 1 and Region 2.

b)

The mining sector is the most important sector in Region 2.

c)

The service sector is the most important sector in Region 2.

d)

The agricultural sector is the most important sector in Region 1.

23.

It is your second choice-what you give up when you make a decision.

a)

Choice

b)

Opportunity Cost

c)

Scarcity

d)

Shortage

24.

Primary sector production is concerned with

a)

The manufacturing of goods

b)

The provision of services

c)

The construction of buildings

d)

The extraction of natural resources

25.

One shortcoming of GDP as an indicator of society's social wellbeing is that it fails to measure the:

a)

growth in productivity

b)

increase in the quantity of goods

c)

non-market production

d)

change in the price level

26.

Suppose inflation is currently running at 15% and, as a result, sales catalogues have to be reprinted every month. This is an example of:

a)

noise in the price system

b)

an unexpected redistribution in wealth

c)

shoe-leather costs of inflation

d)

menu costs due to inflation

27.

Which of the following would not be included in Australia's GDP in this year’s GDP?

a)

Gross fixed private investment.

b)

The USA government purchases 10 000 Australian made military boots.

c)

A new factory's purchase of used machines from a factory that is closing down.

d)

New South Wales government's purchase of fresh milk for public servants.

28.

One of the following is an example of a worker experiencing structural unemployment:

a)

A worker that changes jobs to move closer to her family

b)

A worker who quits his job because she doesn't like her fellow workers.

c)

An assembly line worker who loses his job because a newly acquired machine requires fewer workers to operate.

d)

A cargo employee who was sacked because of a recession.

29.

The key assumption of the basic Keynesian model is that:

a)

planned aggregate expenditure is autonomous

b)

actual investment equals planned investment

c)

firms meet demand at pre-set prices

d)

planned aggregate expenditure is constant

30.

When the Reserve Bank responds to higher inflation by raising real interest rates, consumption and investment spending:

a)

. fall and, thus, short-run equilibrium output decreases

b)

rise and, thus, short-run equilibrium output increases

c)

fall and, thus, short-run equilibrium output increases

d)

rise and, thus, short-run equilibrium output decreases

31.

Government transfer payments usually

a)

rise during expansions and recessions

b)

rise during expansions and fall during recessions

c)

fall during expansions and rise during recessions

d)

fall during expansions and recessions

32.

When the Reserve Bank responds to declining inflation rate by decreasing the cash rate, consumption and investment spending would:

a)

rise and, thus, short-run equilibrium output increases

b)

fall and, thus, short-run equilibrium output decreases

c)

fall and, thus, short-run equilibrium output increases

d)

rise and, thus, short-run equilibrium output decreases

33.

An open-market sale of Commonwealth Government’s securities by the Reserve Bank will:

a)

decrease bank reserves, and the money supply will increase

b)

decrease bank reserves, and the money supply will decrease

c)

increase bank reserves, and the money supply will decrease

d)

increase bank reserves, and the money supply will increase

34.

. Suppose a new computer model is introduced to replace a model included in the CPI basket. The price of the new model is 5% higher than the discontinued model, but the new model also includes additional features. In this situation, the CPI will tend to _____ inflation as a result of _____ bias.

a)

overstate; substitution

b)

understate; substitution

c)

overstate; quality adjustment

d)

accurately measure; substitution

35.

James quits her job in order to spend time looking for a better paying job. This is an example of:

a)

cyclical unemployment

b)

seasonal unemployment

c)

frictional unemployment

d)

structural unemployment

36.

If the economy is experiencing a recessionary gap, an increase in government purchases, ___________ can be used to stimulate spending and the contractionary gap;

a)

a cut in taxes or an increase in transfer payments

b)

the budget deficit

c)

the aggregate demand

d)

the aggregate supply

37.

Suppose the government reduces its budget deficit at the same time as the price of oil rises sharply. Which of the following must happen?

a)

Inflation will rise, since high oil price increases the cost of production.

b)

Equilibrium output will rise; with less government spending there are more opportunities for the private sector to invest.

c)

Equilibrium output will fall, since both events will tend to cause economic contraction.

d)

Inflation will fall and AD curve will shift to the right.

38.

Starting from long-run equilibrium, a large increase in government purchases will result in a(n) _____ gap in the short run and ____ inflation and ____ output in the long run.

a)

expansionary; lower; potential

b)

expansionary; higher; potential

c)

expansionary; higher; higher

d)

recessionary; higher; potential

39.

An increase in aggregate supply will:

a)

reduce the price level but increase real domestic output

b)

. increase both the price level and real domestic output

c)

C. reduce both the price level and real domestic output

d)

increase the price level but reduce real domestic output

40.

. If economic analysts found that real output was below potential output and that planned spending was too low, they might conclude that:

a)

this economy faces an income inequality gap

b)

this economy faces a contractionary narrowing

c)

this economy faces a poverty gap

d)

this economy faces a recessionary gap

41.

If the government wants the economy (depicted in Figure 1) to return to full employment (Y*), it could:

a)

increase government purchases

b)

. increase taxes and decrease government purchases at the same time

c)

decrease taxes

d)

do none of the above

42.

Suppose wages and inflation have been rising at the rate of 3% per annum over a period of time. As a result, workers negotiate a 3% per annum increase in wages. If expected inflation falls to 2% but the rate of wage increase remains at 3%, then

a)

workers are worse off

b)

firms are better off

c)

workers are better off

d)

both firms and workers are worse off

43.

It is building up the capital stock for more future production and consumption.

a)

interest rate

b)

investments

c)

income

d)

capital

44.

Point A inside this Production Possibilities Curve represents:

a)

Resources are being inefficiently used

b)

Production is not attainable

c)

Production is possible if there is an increase in resources

d)

Production possibilities are going to decrease

45.

Market failure results in a misallocation of resources. In some cases, this can be corrected by the government

a)

restricting the manufacture of goods that generate positive externalities

b)

Providing public goods

c)

subsidising all loss-making firms

d)

placing a tax on merit goods

46.
A government might tax a good that creates negative externalities in order to try to:
a)
Increase price and consumption of the good to provide firms with extra revenue
b)
 Make the information avaliable more asymmetric
c)
Decrease demand for the good and thus increase the consumer surplus
d)
Decrease consumption of the good and thus reduce the triangle of welfare loss
47.
The role of government in a market system
a)
does not exist
b)
is restricted to establishing property rights
c)
includes improving situations that would otherwise result in a market failure
d)
includes improving on situations that would otherwise result in a government failure?
48.
Government regulation may negatively affect businesses in the following ways by
a)
Increasing input costs
b)
Increasing profits
c)
Lowering consumer prices
d)
All of the above
49.
What does it mean to internalise an externality?
a)
Trade permits between firms until the externailty decreases to zero through an shift upwards of the MSC curve to intersect at the new optimal level of production
b)
The costs that were previously imposed on society are made internal because they are now paid for by the two parties to the transaction; the producers and the consumers
c)
The costs that were previously imposed on society are made internal because they are now paid for by the producers entirely
d)
The costs that were previously imposed on society are made internal because they are now paid for by the consumers entirely
50.

Under what condition is allocative efficiency achieved?

a)

Marginal private benefits = marginal social costs

b)

Marginal social benefits = marginal social costs

c)

Marginal private benefits > marginal social costs

d)

Marginal social benefits > marginal social costs

51.

Most sales taxes are regressive because

a)

taxable purchases are capped at $50,000 a year.

b)

wealthier people pay less tax on a purchase than poorer people would pay on the same item.

c)

most people cannot afford to buy such luxury goods as yachts, furs, and diamonds

d)

poorer taxpayers spend a larger proportion of their income on taxable goods and services than do wealthier taxpayers.

52.

From an economic standpoint, government intervention is justified

a)

When the private sector is larger than public sector.

b)

Because the government will encourage the production of private goods.

c)

Because the government can increase the level of market power of private businesses.

d)

When the market mechanism fails to achieve the optimal mix of output.

53.

Which of the following statements is true about externalities?

a)

When externalities exist, resources are allocated efficiently

b)

When positive externalities exist, efficiency is improved by taxing the product

c)

From society's point of view, the output of goods for which a positive externality exists is too low

d)

The price system overproduces goods with positive externalities

54.

The free market outcome is determined by the intersection of _____ and ____, resulting in quantity ____ and price ____. The social optimum outcome is given by the intersection of ____ with ____, which determines quantity _____ and price ____.

a)

MPB; MSB; Qm; Popt; MPC; MSC; Qopt; Popt

b)

MPC; Popt; Qm; Pm; MSC; MSQ; Oopt, Pm

c)

MPB; MPC; Qm; Pm; MSB; MSC; Qopt; Popt

d)

MSB, MSC; Qm; Pm; MPB; MPC; Qopt; Popt

55.

When there is a _______ production externality, the free market _________ resources to the production of the good and too ______ of it is produced relative to the social optimum. This is shown by _______and _______ at the point of production, Qm, *

a)

negative; misallocate; little; Qm > Qopt; MSC < MSB

b)

positive; underallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSB > MSC

c)

negative; overallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

d)

positive; misallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

56.

__________ goods are goods that are considered __________ for consumers but which are_________ by the market. One important reason for overprovision is that the good may have __________ consumption externalities, thus the market ________ resources in its production.

a)

Excise; desirable; underproduced; positive; overallocates

b)

Demerit; desirable; underproduced; positive; underallocates

c)

Normal; needs; undervalued, elastic; frees

d)

Demerit; undesirable; overproduced; negative; overallocates

57.

Public goods, such as defence, are not supplied by the price system because;

a)

the capital cost is too high

b)

the benefits would - ceteris paribus - not be restricted to buyers but would be available to non-buyers as well

c)

public goods are necessities and therefore cannot be left to the price system

d)

monopolies would make supernormal profits

58.

A tin-mining company is found guilty of polluting a river. Which one of the following government measures would an economist describe as an appropriate market-based solution?

a)

Imposition of regulations and direct control on the company

b)

A reduction of private property rights over the river

c)

Increase tax on the tin produced

d)

Nationalization of the tin-mining company

59.

Which of the following diagrams best represents the market for vaccines?

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

Which of the following diagrams best represents the market for sugary drinks?

a)
b)
c)
d)
61.

Private benefits plus external benefits is

a)

External benefit

b)

Social benefits

c)

Private benefits

62.

The use of taxes to decrease negative externality of production affects

a)

Marginal social cost

b)

Marginal private cost

c)

Marginal social benefit

d)

Marginal private benefit

63.

The welfare loss triangle will be pointing right (to the positive quadrant) when the issue is about…

a)

NEGATIVE externalities

b)

POSITIVE externalities

64.

Focusing on a narrow range of products/services that can be produced most efficiently and cost-effectively.

a)

subsistence

b)

specialization

c)

scarcity

d)

bartering

65.

Privatization refers to ....

a)

Transfer of assets from people to government

b)

Transfer of assets from public to private organizations

c)

Transfer of assets from corporate to public

d)

Transfer of assets from corporate to government

66.

According to the Keynesian framework, which of the following may help a country reduce inflation, but will not help that country to get out of a recession?

a)

increased spending by the government on health care

b)

an increase in taxes on business investments

c)

an increase in military spending

d)

a decrease in the tax rate on consumer income

67.

According to macroeconomic theory, evidence that high unemployment may be accompanied by low inflation, and low unemployment may be accompanied by high inflation is supported by the:

a)

neoclassical expenditure-output model.

b)

Keynesian cross diagram.

c)

Keynesian Phillips curve tradeoff.

d)

Keynesian Inflation trade-off model.

68.

component of Aggregate demand

a)

foreign exchange

b)

interest rate

c)

consumption

d)

none of these

69.

Economics is considered to be a social science because its study includes:

a)

ENVIRONMENT

b)

WOMEN ISSUES

c)

HUMAN BEHAVIOUR

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

70.

Formula to find NDP(Net Domestic Product) is_______

a)

GDP-Income from abroad

b)

GDP+Income from abroad

c)

GNP-Depreciation

d)

GDP-Depreciation

71.
Which of the following goods is included in GDP?
a)
Dresses
b)
Screws used in a cruise missile
c)
Flour for making bread
d)
Cloth for making dresses
72.
Lauren coaches softball and gets paid in cash each week.  Is this included in GDP?
a)
Yes - Consumer Spending
b)
Yes - Investment 
c)
No - Underground Economy
d)
No - Purely financial transaction 
73.
Why is real GDP more accurate than nominal GDP?
a)
It's adjusted for price changes
b)
It's adjusted for depreciation
c)
It includes unpaid and paid work.
d)
It includes unrecorded business.
74.

A economist who introduced the steady increase of the supply of money within growing economies.

a)

David Ricardo

b)

John Maynard Keynes

c)

Milton Friedman

d)

Beatrice Webb

75.

Competition and profit motive are important characteristics of a:

a)

command economy

b)

traditional economy

c)

market economy

d)

socialist economy

76.

Pick the odd one out in case of AD< AS

a)

Undesired stock of goods

b)

Increase the production

c)

Employment decrease

d)

Income decrease

77.
Which of the following is the best example of a microeconomics topic?
a)
The impact that the money supply has on inflation.
b)
The effect that government budget deficits have on the interest rate.
c)
The reasons for increases in the price of mobile phones.
d)
The trade-off between inflation and unemployment.
78.

Who said that Economics is a science of wealth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
79.

When was the book ” an inquiry into the nature and causes of the wealth of nations”?

a)

1770

b)

1776

c)

1870

d)

1876

80.

Match the following:

a)

Mixed Economy

1.

market-based economic system with limited government involvement

b)

Traditional Economy

2.

this system answers economic questions based on customs and values passed down from ancestors

c)

Command Economy

3.

this system answers economic questions through strict government control and economic regulations

d)

Market Economy

4.

this system answers economic questions based on supply and demand w/little or no government control

81.

The way in which a country produces and distributes goods and services is a(n)....

a)

natural resource.

b)

Tariff

c)

Economic System

d)

Exhange Rate

82.

The total value of all goods and services produced by a country in one year is called.....

a)

Interdependence

b)

Human Capital

c)

Capital Goods

d)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

83.

Match the following

a)

natural resources

1.

materials found in nature that are used by living things

b)

capital goods

2.

Buildings, machines, technology, and tools needed to produce goods and services.

c)

human capital

3.

the knowledge and skills a worker gains through education and experience

84.

A person who takes the risks necessary to start a new business is considered a(n)....

a)

co-worker

b)

corporation

c)

entrepreneur

d)

government official

85.

Match the following

a)

tariff

1.

a tax placed on imported goods

b)

quota

2.

a limit on the quantity of an item brought into a country

c)

embargo

3.

a ban on trade with a specific nation or group of nations

d)

exchange rate

4.

how much one currency is worth when compared to another

e)

trade

5.

Exchange of goods and services

86.

Match the following

a)

trade barrier

1.

a government policy or restriction that limits international trade

b)

specialization

2.

when people or regions only focus on producing selected goods or services

c)

opportunity cost

3.

the value of what is given up when one choice is made over another

d)

interdependence

4.

depending, or relying, on each other

87.

Which of the following best describes what a cognitive bias is?

a)

A rational decision that is based on research and facts

b)

The belief that we are right until someone provides information that contradicts our belief

c)

An error in the way we think that can influence our decisions

d)

The belief that a person should change their opinions when new facts arise

88.

Unlike traditional economics, behavioral economics believes that…

a)

People do not always behave in a rational way when making economic decisions

b)

People will always update their viewpoints based on new information

c)

There is no way to predict how people will make economic decisions

d)

People behave in a rational way when making economic decisions

89.

The pain of losing a $20 bill is felt more than the joy of finding it.

This is a result of...

a)

Loss aversion

b)

Overconfidence

c)

Sunk cost

d)

Endowment effect

90.

Overconfidence bias may lead the majority of Americans to think that they are…

a)

Below average drivers

b)

Extremely poor drivers 

c)

Average drivers 

d)

Above average drivers

91.

Investments of time, effort, and money that cannot be recovered are... 

a)

Opportunity costs

b)

Avoidable costs

c)

Sunk costs

d)

Relevant costs

92.

Which of the following scenarios BEST demonstrates FOMO (Fear of Missing Out)? 

a)

Megan takes a baking class after seeing a sign for the class at her favorite bakery

b)

José wants to go see a movie that all of his friends have seen and are raving about

c)

David goes on a vacation to Europe and posts about it on social media every day

d)

Angela sees an advertisement for a pair of shoes and decides to buy them

93.

A website tells you, "Only one left!" while shopping online. Which loss aversion strategy is this website using?

a)

Coupons

b)

Buy now, get free shipping

c)

Free trials and samples

d)

Scarcity and urgency

94.

Producing the goods that society wants at the lower possible cost is the concept of ________

a)

Efficiency

b)

Consumer surplus

c)

Producer surplus

d)

PPF

95.

The demand curve is also known as _________

a)

Marginal benefit

b)

Marginal cost

c)

PPF

d)

Consumer surplus

96.

The diagram shows the price and quantity of pizzas. Calculate the total value of the 5 pizzas.

a)

$40

b)

$50

c)

$12

d)

Not enough information

97.

Consumer surplus is ________

a)

The difference between what a producer is prepared to sell at and what they actually sell at

b)

Total benefits - total costs

c)

The difference between what a consumer is prepared to pay and what they actually pay

d)

Total costs - total benefits

98.

The diagram shows the demand for pizza. What is the consumer surplus on the last pizza?

a)

$0

b)

$12

c)

$3

d)

$4

99.

When market price falls, what happens?

a)

Consumer surplus decreases

b)

Consumer surplus increases

c)

Demand shifts right

d)

Demand shifts left

100.

When total surplus is reduced because of either under or overproduction, it is referred to as _______

a)

Marginal cost

b)

Market efficiency

c)

Equilibrium

d)

A deadweight loss