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25/26 Midterm Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A researcher defines "happiness" as a score of 80 or higher on a specific psychological scale. This is an example of:

a)

A hypothesis

b)

An operational definition

c)

Hindsight bias

d)

A theory

2.

Researchers want to test the effect of caffeine on attention. What is caffeine in the experiment?

a)

Independent Variable

b)

Dependant variable

c)

Confounding variable

d)

Third variable

3.

A student believes they knew the outcome of a basketball game all along only after the game has ended. This is:

a)

Overconfidence

b)

Hindsight bias

c)

Confirmation bias

d)

Perceiving order in random events

4.

If a researcher repeats a study with different participants to see if the findings hold true, they are engaging in:

a)

Peer review

b)

Meta-analysis

c)

Replication

d)

Random sampling

5.

A potential flaw in survey research where participants answer in ways they believe will be viewed favorably is:

a)

Self-report bias

b)

Sampling bias

c)

Social desirability bias

d)

Hindsight bias

6.

Which research method allows a researcher to study one individual in great depth to reveal universal principles?

a)

Naturalistic observation

b)

Case study

c)

Experiment

d)

Meta-analysis

7.

To ensure a sample fairly represents a population, every member must have an equal chance of inclusion. This is:

a)

Representative sampling

b)

Convenience sampling

c)

Random sampling

d)

Stratified sampling

8.

A correlation coefficient of -0.85 indicates:

a)

A weak positive relationship

b)

A strong negative relationship

c)

No relationship

d)

A cause-and-effect relationship

9.

Which graph is used to plot scores and show the strength of a correlation?

a)

Histogram

b)

Normal curve

c)

Scatter plot

d)

Bar graph

10.

The perception of a relationship between two variables when none actually exists is called:

a)

Hindsight bias

b)

Regression toward the mean

c)

Illusory correlation

d)

The third variable problem

11.

In an experiment studying the effect of caffeine on memory, memory is the:

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Confounding variable

c)

Independent variable

d)

Control variable

12.

Random assignment is used in experiments to:

a)

Ensure the sample is representative of the population

b)

Minimize pre-existing differences between groups

c)

Control the independent variable

d)

Avoid the placebo effect

13.

In a double-blind procedure:

a)

Only the participants are unaware of the treatment

b)

Only the researchers are unaware of the treatment

c)

Both participants and researchers are unaware of the treatment

d)

The control group receives a placebo

14.

Which ethical principle requires participants be told the purpose of the study after it is finished?

a)

Informed consent

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Protection from harm

d)

Debriefing

15.

The most frequently occurring score in a distribution is the:

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Range

16.

A distribution with two distinct peaks is known as:

a)

Normal

b)

Skewed

c)

Bimodal

d)

Bell-shaped

17.

A p-value of .03 in a psychological study indicates:

a)

The results are not significant

b)

There is a 3% chance the results are due to the independent variable

c)

The results are statistically significant

d)

The effect size is very small

18.

Which measure of variation describes how much scores vary around the mean?

a)

Range

b)

Percentile rank

c)

Standard deviation

d)

Median

19.

If a student scores in the 85th percentile, this means:

a)

They got 85% of the questions right

b)

85% of all students scored lower than them

c)

They scored 15 points above the mean

d)

Their IQ is 85

20.

An Institutional Review Board (IRB) is responsible for:

a)

Publishing research in peer-reviewed journals

b)

Calculating statistical significance

c)

Monitoring and approving research involving humans

d)

Training research confederates

21.

Evolutionary psychologists use which concept to explain why humans have a fear of snakes?

a)

Eugenics

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic predisposition

d)

Nurture

22.

Identical twins are more likely to have similar personalities than fraternal twins because they:

a)

Share a more similar environment

b)

Share 100% of their genes

c)

Are always the same sex

d)

Experience identical twin studies

23.

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Central nervous system

24.

The "rest and digest" function is mediated by the:

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Spinal reflex arc

25.

Which neurons take information from the brain to the muscles?

a)

Sensory neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Motor neurons

d)

Glial cells

26.

The brief electrical charge that travels down an axon is the:

a)

Threshold

b)

Resting potential

c)

Action potential

d)

Reuptake

27.

During the refractory period, a neuron:

a)

Fires a second impulse

b)

Pumps sodium ions back outside the cell

c)

Experiences depolarization

d)

Reaches the threshold of excitation

28.

The "all-or-none response" refers to the fact that:

a)

All neurons in a cluster fire at once

b)

A neuron either fires completely or not at all

c)

Neurotransmitters are either excitatory or inhibitory

d)

The brain uses all its power for one task

29.

Which neurotransmitter is most closely linked to muscle action and memory, and its blockage causes Myasthenia Gravis?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Endorphins

30.

Agonists are chemicals that:

a)

Block the effects of neurotransmitters

b)

Mimic or strengthen the effects of neurotransmitters

c)

Prevent the reuptake of dopamine

d)

Cause withdrawal symptoms

31.

Which brain structure acts as the "sensory relay center"?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Thalamus

d)

Medulla

32.

Damage to the cerebellum would most likely result in:

a)

Loss of memory

b)

Difficulty with balance and coordination

c)

Inability to speak

d)

Loss of vision

33.

The "master gland" of the endocrine system is the:

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Pineal gland

34.

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for planning, judgment, and muscle movements?

a)

Occipital

b)

Parietal

c)

Frontal

d)

Temporal

35.

Broca’s area is primarily involved in:

a)

Language comprehension

b)

Visual processing

c)

Speech production

d)

Auditory perception

36.

The large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres is the:

a)

Cerebral cortex

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Reticular formation

d)

Hippocampus

37.

A patient who can see a word but cannot name it until they draw it with their left hand likely has:

a)

A brain lesion

b)

Wernicke’s aphasia

c)

A split brain

d)

Prosopagnosia

38.

Which sleep stage is associated with "paradoxical sleep" where the brain is active but the body is immobilized?

a)

NREM 1

b)

NREM 2

c)

NREM 3

d)

REM

39.

The theory that dreams are the brain's attempt to make sense of random neural activity is:

a)

Consolidation theory

b)

Activation-synthesis theory

c)

Psychoanalytic theory

d)

Circadian rhythm theory

40.

A person who stops breathing repeatedly during the night suffers from:

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

Insomnia

c)

Sleep apnea

d)

Somnambulism

41.

The absolute threshold is the minimum stimulation needed to detect a stimulus ____ of the time.

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

42.

Weber’s Law states that for two stimuli to be perceived as different, they must differ by:

a)

A constant minimum amount

b)

A constant minimum percentage

c)

At least 10 units

d)

Random intervals

43.

Sensory adaptation explains why:

a)

You can hear your name in a crowded room

b)

You stop noticing the smell of your own house after a few minutes

c)

You can see color in the dark

d)

Your eyes adjust to a dark room

44.

Transduction in the eye occurs in the:

a)

Lens

b)

Pupil

c)

Retina

d)

Optic nerve

45.

Which theory explains color vision by suggesting we have red, green, and blue receptors?

a)

Opponent-process theory

b)

Frequency theory

c)

Trichromatic theory

d)

Place theory

46.

The inability to recognize familiar faces is called.

a)

Blindsight

b)

Prosopagnosia

c)

Aphasia

d)

Agnosia

47.

Place theory explains how we hear.

a)

Low pitches

b)

High pitches

c)

Loud sounds

d)

Soft sounds

48.

Which sense is the only one NOT processed first in the thalamus?

a)

Gustation

b)

Olfaction

c)

Vision

d)

Kinesthesia

49.

The sense of body movement and position, including balance, is the:

a)

Kinesthetic sense

b)

Vestibular sense

c)

Somatosensory sense

d)

Olfactory sense

50.

Gate-control theory suggests that pain signals can be blocked by:

a)

The brainstem

b)

The spinal cord

c)

The thalamus

d)

The amygdala

51.

Bottom-up processing begins with:

a)

Experience and expectations

b)

Sensory receptors

c)

Higher-level mental processes

d)

Emotional states

52.

A "perceptual set" is a tendency to:

a)

Perceive things as they are

b)

Notice certain aspects of data while ignoring others based on expectations

c)

Use bottom-up processing exclusively

d)

Experience hallucinations

53.

The "Cocktail Party Effect" is an example of:

a)

Change blindness

b)

Inattentional blindness

c)

Selective attention

d)

Perceptual constancy

54.

Which Gestalt principle explains our tendency to fill in gaps to create a whole object?

a)

Proximity

b)

Similarity

c)

Continuity

d)

Closure

55.

Retinal disparity is a _____ cue for perceiving depth.

a)

Monocular

b)

Binocular

c)

Perceptual

d)

Gradient

56.

Parallel lines appearing to converge in the distance is the monocular cue of:

a)

Interposition

b)

Relative size

c)

Linear perspective

d)

Texture gradient

57.

A mental image or "best example" of a category is a:

a)

Concept

b)

Algorithm

c)

Prototype

d)

Schema

58.

Using a "rule of thumb" to solve a problem quickly is a(n):

a)

Algorithm

b)

Heuristic

c)

Mental set

d)

Insight

59.

Searching for information that only confirms your pre-existing beliefs is:

a)

Hindsight bias

b)

Availability heuristic

c)

Confirmation bias

d)

Framing

60.

The inability to see a new use for an object outside its traditional purpose is:

a)

Functional fixedness

b)

Mental set

c)

Belief perseverance

d)

Convergent thinking

61.

Which type of thinking is required for multiple-choice tests to find the single best solution?

a)

Divergent thinking

b)

Creative thinking

c)

Convergent thinking

d)

Emotional intelligence

62.

Implicit memory, such as riding a bike, is processed in the:

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Basal ganglia and cerebellum

c)

Cerebral cortex

d)

Amygdala

63.

Semantic memory refers to:

a)

Personal life stories

b)

Motor skills

c)

General facts and knowledge

d)

Emotional memories

64.

The "spacing effect" suggests that:

a)

Cramming is effective for long-term retention

b)

Distributed study yields better retention

c)

We remember the middle of a list best

d)

Hierarchies prevent forgetting

65.

Which component of working memory handles auditory information?

a)

Visuospatial sketchpad

b)

Phonological loop

c)

Central executive

d)

Sensory register

66.

Short-term memory typically has a capacity of:

a)

2±1 items

b)

7±2 items

c)

15±5 items

d)

Unlimited items

67.

Retrograde amnesia is the inability to:

a)

Form new memories

b)

Retrieve old memories

c)

Learn new skills

d)

Use language

68.

If you can't remember your new phone number because your old one keeps coming to mind, you are experiencing:

a)

Retroactive interference

b)

Proactive interference

c)

Encoding failure

d)

Source amnesia

69.

The "misinformation effect," studied by Elizabeth Loftus, occurs when:

a)

We forget the source of a memory

b)

Misleading information is incorporated into a memory

c)

We repress traumatic events

d)

We use mnemonics incorrectly

70.

State-dependent memory suggests you will remember information better if you are in the same _____ as when you learned it.

a)

Physical location

b)

Physiological or mental state

c)

Social group

d)

Time of day

71.

Intelligence quotient (IQ) was historically calculated as:

a)

Chronological age / Mental age × 100

b)

Mental age / Chronological age × 100

c)

Mental age + Chronological age

d)

Percentile rank × 100

72.

The extent to which a test yields consistent results is its:

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

c)

Standardization

d)

Normalization

73.

A test designed to predict future performance is a(n):

a)

Achievement test

b)

Aptitude test

c)

Intelligence test

d)

Personality test

74.

The "Flynn Effect" refers to the observation that:

a)

Intelligence scores have decreased over time

b)

Intelligence scores have increased over time

c)

Men are smarter than women

d)

IQ is 100% genetic

75.

Stereotype threat can lead to:

a)

Improved performance on tests

b)

Underperformance due to worry about confirming a negative stereotype

c)

Increased reliability of intelligence tests

d)

The development of a growth mindset

76.

Which of Howard Gardner’s intelligences involves the ability to understand oneself?

a)

Interpersonal

b)

Intrapersonal

c)

Naturalistic

d)

Bodily-kinesthetic

77.

A "fixed mindset" is the belief that:

a)

Intelligence can be developed

b)

Qualities are unchangeable traits

c)

Effort is the key to success

d)

Everyone is born with equal potential

78.

Which type of validity assesses whether a test measures the abstract psychological idea it claims to?

a)

Predictive validity

b)

Construct validity

c)

Split-half validity

d)

Content validity

79.

Information that is learned unconsciously, such as space and time, is processed through:

a)

Effortful processing

b)

Automatic processing

c)

Shallow processing

d)

Deep processing

80.

Method of loci is a mnemonic technique that uses:

a)

Acronyms

b)

Rhymes

c)

Visualizations of familiar spatial environments

d)

Grouping bits of information

81.

Teratogens are most dangerous during which period of development?

a)

Puberty

b)

Adulthood

c)

Prenatal development

d)

Adolescence

82.

A child who thinks their father wants a toy truck for his birthday is demonstrating:

a)

Conservation

b)

Egocentrism

c)

Object permanence

d)

Theory of mind

83.

In Piaget's stages, a child who understands that water poured into a different shaped glass is still the same amount has mastered:

a)

Reversibility

b)

Conservation

c)

Animism

d)

Abstract thinking

84.

Vygotsky's "Zone of Proximal Development" refers to the gap between:

a)

Nature and nurture

b)

What a child can do alone vs. with support

c)

Sensorimotor and preoperational stages

d)

Identity and role confusion

85.

Harry Harlow's monkey study demonstrated that attachment is primarily based on:

a)

Nourishment

b)

Contact comfort

c)

Imprinting

d)

Genetic predisposition

86.

An authoritative parenting style is characterized by:

a)

High demandingness and low responsiveness

b)

Low demandingness and high responsiveness

c)

High demandingness and high responsiveness

d)

Low demandingness and low responsiveness

87.

Erikson’s stage for adolescence is:

a)

Trust vs. Mistrust

b)

Autonomy vs. Shame

c)

Identity vs. Role Confusion

d)

Integrity vs. Despair

88.

Which identity status involves being in the middle of a crisis and exploring choices without a commitment?

a)

Identity Achievement

b)

Identity Foreclosure

c)

Identity Moratorium

d)

Identity Diffusion

89.

The smallest unit of language that carries meaning is a:

a)

Phoneme

b)

Morpheme

c)

Syntax

d)

Semantics

90.

"Go car" is an example of:

a)

Cooing

b)

Babbling

c)

Telegraphic speech

d)

Overgeneralization

91.

A child’s first menstrual period is called:

a)

Spermarche

b)

Puberty

c)

Menarche

d)

Menopause

92.

Fluid intelligence, the ability to reason speedily, typically _____ with age.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

d)

Doubles

93.

Which attachment style in adults is characterized by distrust and a tendency to close oneself off?

a)

Secure

b)

Anxious

c)

Avoidant

d)

Disorganized

94.

The "Social Clock" refers to:

a)

The time it takes to learn a language

b)

Culturally preferred timing of social events like marriage

c)

The circadian rhythm

d)

The speed of cognitive processing

95.

A longitudinal study follows:

a)

Different ages at one time

b)

The same people over a long period

c)

Only twins

d)

Animals in natural habitats

96.

"Personal fables" in adolescence lead to the belief that one is:

a)

Constantly being watched by others

b)

Unique and invincible

c)

Mentally inferior

d)

Part of a macrosystem

97.

According to Ecological Systems Theory, the "microsystem" is the:

a)

Broad cultural values

b)

Indirect social settings

c)

Immediate environment (family, friends)

d)

Connections between different settings

98.

A child who is able to reverse thoughts and understand logic but not yet think abstractly is in which Piaget stage?

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Preoperational

c)

Concrete Operational

d)

Formal Operational

99.

"Imaginary audience" refers to the adolescent belief that:

a)

They are the main character in a book

b)

Others are constantly observing and judging them

c)

Their parents cannot understand them

d)

They have special powers

100.

The ability to use accumulated knowledge and skills (crystallized intelligence) typically _____ as we age.

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Fluctuates

d)

Disappears