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2 egats

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

a)

Heavy, clean, and slow

b)

Light, dirty, and fast

c)

Heavy dirty and fast

2.

Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?

a)

Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

b)

For every reaction, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

c)

An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward.

3.

What should you consider when planning to land at another airport?

a)

Airport lighting using continuous wiring.

b)

Check for airport and touchdown markings.

c)

Land and hold short procedures.

4.

Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?

a)

Slow your airspeed to Va and maintain altitude and course.

b)

Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

c)

Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

5.

The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is...

a)

Class E airspace from 1,200 feet AGL.

b)

Surface area Class E airspace.

c)

Class E airspace from 700 feet AGL.

6.

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL up to, but does not include...

a)

15,000 feet MSL.

b)

10,000 feet MSL.

c)

18,000 feet MSL.

7.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

a)

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

b)

3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

c)

1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.

8.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

a)

C

b)

B

c)

A

d)

D

9.

With respect to passengers; what obligation, if any, does the pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

a)

The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.

b)

The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to the passengers use of safety belts.

c)

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their belts during taxi, takeoff and landing.

10.

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

a)

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

b)

Sunset to Sunrise.

c)

End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

11.

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain; it is necessary to drain fuel from the...

a)

Fuel strainer drain.

b)

Lowest point in the fuel system

c)

Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps

12.

The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the

a)

Mixture control.

b)

Throttle

c)

Manifold pressure.

13.

How many gallons per hour are you using if you use 36 gallons in 4 hours and 30 minutes?

a)

 

9 GPH

b)

27 GPH

c)

8 GPH

14.

What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50 degrees Fahrenheit on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?

a)

1,300 foot increase.

b)

1,000 foot increase

c)

1,100 foot decrease

15.

What is the time en route from the Gila Bend VORTAC to Buckeye VOR along V461 at a TAS of 125 knots and forecasted winds from 180 at 17 knots? Local magnetic variation is 11 degrees East.

a)

Approximately 15 minutes

b)

Approximately 13 minutes.

c)

Approximately 16 minutes

16.

If a true heading of 230 results in a ground track of 250 and a true airspeed of 160 knots results in a groundspeed of 175 knots the wind would be from?

a)

165 and 60 knots

b)

135 and 59 knots

c)

343 and 60 knots.

17.

Which airport marking is a runway safety area/obstacle free zone boundary?

a)

N

b)

G

c)

H

d)

M

18.

What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

a)

55 to 100 knots

b)

58 to 165 knots

c)

55 to 208 knots

19.

Altimeter 2 Indicates

a)

4500

b)

1500

c)

14500

20.

An approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding...

a)

120 days

b)

60 days.

c)

180 days.

21.

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?

a)

Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.

b)

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

c)

Annual condition and 50-hour inspections

22.

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?

a)

For informational purposes only.

b)

They are voluntary

c)

They are mandatory.

23.

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft?

a)

Starting, taxiing, takeoff and landing

b)

Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim.

c)

Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs and descents

24.

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the...

a)

Downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.

b)

Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of it's motion.

c)

Direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway.

25.

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

a)

No, it may not be moved under any circumstances

b)

Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

c)

Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.

26.

Which publication contains explanations of airport signs and markings?

a)

VFR Section Chart Ledgend

b)

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

c)

Chart Supplements U.S.

27.

The complete loss of information of what percentage of the electronic display is considered to be a reportable incident?

a)

More than 50%

b)

Less than 50%

c)

25%

28.

With a reported wind of south at 20 knots; Which runway 10, 14, or 24 is appropriate for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?

a)

Runway 14

b)

Runway 10

c)

Runway 24

29.

Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff.

OAT: 100 degrees Fahrenheit

Pressure altitude: 2,000 feet

Takeoff weight: 2,750 pounds.

Headwind component: Calm.

a)

1150 feet

b)

1800 feet

c)

1300 feet

30.

Leaving carburetor heat on during takeoff

a)

Leans the mixture for more power on takeoff

b)

Will increase the ground roll

c)

Will decrease the takeoff distance

31.

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

a)

The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily

b)

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

c)

Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.

32.

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "antiauthority"?

a)

Rules do not apply in this situation.

b)

Follow the rules.

c)

I know what I'm doing.

33.

In order to act as Pilot in Command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have...

a)

Made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.

b)

Passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane

c)

Received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

34.

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have

a)

An annual flight review

b)

A biennial flight review

c)

A semiannual flight review.

35.

What minimum pilot certificate is required for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (area 6)?

a)

Student Pilot Certificate

b)

Private Pilot Certificate

c)

Sport Pilot Certificate

36.

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

a)

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

b)

Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

c)

Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.

37.

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

a)

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.

b)

When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.

c)

When intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees.

38.

The most current regulations can be looked up and reviewed at the

a)

Electronic Code of Federal Regulations on the GPO Access website.

b)

The Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

c)

Most recent edition of the FAR/AIM

39.

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

a)

Not deviate from the FARs unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator

b)

Deviate from the FARs to the extent required to meet the emergency, but also submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.

c)

Deviate from the FARs to the extent required to meet that emergency.

40.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

a)

Gyroplane

b)

Airship

c)

Aircraft refueling other aircraft

41.

What wind is forecasted for STL at 9,000 feet?

a)

230 degrees true at 32 knots

b)

230 degrees true at 25 knots

c)

230 degrees magnetic at 25 knots

42.

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

a)

Steady-state thunderstorms

b)

Squall line thunderstorms

c)

Warm front thunderstorms

43.

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above earth's surface of the

a)

Lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered broken or thin.

b)

Lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.

c)

Lowest layer of clouds or or obscuring phenomena reported as: broken, overcast and not classified as thin or partial.

44.

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is

a)

An increase in cloud coverage

b)

A change in temperature

c)

An increase in relative humidity.

45.

Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?

a)

Unusable fuel and undrainable oil

b)

Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity

c)

Only the airframe, powerplant and optional equipment.

46.

An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

a)

16.2 gallons

b)

15.7 gallons

c)

18.4 gallons

47.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

a)

E

b)

D

c)

C

d)

A

48.

You can get the most detailed information about a given major metropolitan area from a…

a)

VFR sectional chart

b)

VFR Terminal Area Chart

c)

VFR World Aeronautical Chart

49.

During preflight planning, where your course is plotted to fly through R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?

a)

In teh Chart Supplement U.S. (Formerly Airpot Facility Directory)

b)

In the Aeronautical Information Manual

c)

On the Sectional Chart in the Special USA Airspace area

50.

Fixed wing aircaft in the traffic pattern at Blake (AJZ) airport….

a)

Will be making left turns when landing on runway 21

b)

Will remain generally away from the side that the train tracks are on

c)

Will be making left turns when landing on all runways