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Science 10 Diagnostic Test

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This theory states that the Earth's lithosphere is composed of fragments or plates that move around and interact with each other?

a)

Plate Motion Theory

b)

Plate Tectonics Theory

c)

Plate Interaction Theory

d)

Plate Movement Theory

2.

What can you infer from the fact that tectonic plates are always moving around?

a)

The shape and location of the continents have changed over time.

b)

Tectonic activity probably caused the last Ice Age.

c)

New volcanoes and islands form every few years.

d)

Earthquakes will continue long after hurricanes and tsunamis have stopped.

3.

Fossils of a particular animal species have been found in both Africa and South America but nowhere else. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY the reason why?

a)

The fossils evolved into different organisms.

b)

The climate changed and became much colder.

c)

In the past, Africa and South America were part of the same continent.

d)

This is a mere coincidence.

4.

Which statement BEST describes the distribution of volcanoes and earthquakes on Earth?

a)

They are found along the plate boundaries of the Earth's lithosphere.

b)

They are found where magmatic activity is most prominent.

c)

They usually appear on places where the land meets the sea.

d)

They appear randomly at any given time or place.

5.

Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust in the subduction zone?

a)

The oceanic crust is pushed from the ridge.

b)

The oceanic crust is pulled downward by Earth's magnetic field.

c)

The continental crust has a denser composition.

d)

The oceanic crust has a greater density.

6.

What type of plate boundary occurs between the African and Arabian Plate?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

None

7.

What kind of plate movement created the Himalayan Mountains?

a)

Divergence between two continental crustal plates.

b)

Convergence of two plates composed of continental crust.

c)

Transform movement between oceanic and continental crustal plates.

d)

Convergence of two plates composed of oceanic crust.

8.

Why are transform plate boundaries considered to be conservative?

a)

The form of the plates involved is preserved during their interaction.

b)

The converging oceanic plate is destroyed as it subducts.

c)

Fold mountains are created at the point where the two plates meet.

d)

New seafloor is produced as magma wells up the formed gap.

9.

What is the epicenter of an earthquake?

a)

The vibrations that occur when Earth's plates shift position.

b)

The point inside the Earth where the earthquake begins.

c)

The point on Earth's surface directly above the earthquake's focus.

d)

A line that marks movement between two tectonic plates.

10.

What major paradigm shift in our country's disaster management system was introduced by the Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Law of 2010?

a)

The transformation of focus from relief and response to risk reduction.

b)

The substantial increase of the calamity fund.

c)

The giving of ayuda after disasters is given the most importance.

d)

Private organizations are given the task to handle disaster management.

11.

Immediately after an underwater earthquake, a tsunami hit the coast of a community with a population of 50 people. Would you consider this natural hazard as a disaster?

a)

Yes, because the tsunami destroyed the homes of the residents.

b)

No, because the population should exceed at least 10,000 people.

c)

Yes, because there are people affected regardless of their number.

d)

No, because the minimum number of casualties for disasters is not met.

12.

The following are some important things to consider when formulating your emergency preparedness plan, EXCEPT?

a)

Make a communication plan.

b)

Hoard food items and water.

c)

Assemble a disaster survival kit.

d)

Take into consideration the special needs of each family member.

13.

The following are the properties of electromagnetic waves, EXCEPT?

a)

As wavelength of EM waves decreases, its frequency increases.

b)

EM waves can travel through a medium or a vacuum.

c)

EM waves can travel at the speed of 3 x 108 m/s in a vacuum.

d)

The electric and magnetic field of EM waves are parallel to each other.

14.

Infer the relationship of wavelength, frequency, and energy of EM waves in the spectrum.

a)

Wavelength is directly proportional to frequency and energy

b)

Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency and energy.

c)

Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency, but directly proportional to energy.

d)

Wavelength, frequency, and energy of electromagnetic waves are not related at all.

15.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of electromagnetic waves from left to right?

a)

Radio Wave, Visible Light, Ultraviolet, X-Ray, Microwave, Infrared, Gamma Ray

b)

Gamma Ray, X-Ray, Ultraviolet, Visible Light, Infrared, Microwave, Radio Wave

c)

Radio Wave, Microwave, Infrared, Visible Light, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma Ray

d)

Gamma Ray, Infrared, Microwave, Radio Wave, Ultraviolet, Visible Light, X-ray

16.

In the visible spectrum, what color has the highest frequency?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Orange

d)

Violet

17.

Which of the following is a major application of gamma rays?

a)

Utilized to detect the growth of cancer cells.

b)

Used as a medium in transmitting the information between devices.

c)

Applied on the skin as for heat detection.

d)

Measured to sterilize water from a drinking fountain.

18.

A ray of light strikes a surface at an angle of 27.89 degrees. Find the reflected angle.

a)

27.89 degrees on the same side of the normal line.

b)

62.11 degrees on the same side of the normal line.

c)

27.89 degrees on the other side of the normal line.

d)

62.11 degrees on the other side of the normal line.

19.

Which statement/s about the types of reflection is/are TRUE?

a)

Specular reflection happens when light hits a smooth surface, and the light bounces off in parallel directions resulting in a clear image.

b)

Diffuse reflection occurs when light hits a rough surface, scattering the light in many directions producing no image.

c)

Both statements are true, but not related

d)

Both statements are true and related

20.

Determine the image formed if object is positioned beyond the focus of the concave mirror.

a)

Inverted, real, and magnified

b)

Upright, virtual, and magnified

c)

Upright, virtual, and diminished

d)

No image is formed

21.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the refraction of light?

a)

The bouncing of light when it hits a surface.

b)

The bending of the boundary as light passes through it.

c)

The bending of light when it crosses the boundary from one medium to another.

d)

The absorption of light when it hits a surface.

22.

What happens to the speed of light as it enters a less dense medium?

a)

It speeds up

b)

It slows down

c)

It varies randomly

d)

It doesn't change

23.

A light ray strikes the surface of an ice block at an angle of 17° relative to the normal. If the refractive index of ice is 1.3, what is the angle of refraction?

a)

31°

b)

13°

c)

3.1°

d)

1.3°

24.

Which of the following characteristics describe the image produced by a concave lens?

a)

Inverted, real, and magnified

b)

Upright, virtual, and magnified

c)

Upright, virtual, and diminished

d)

No image is formed

25.

Which of the following BEST describes the function of the nervous system?

a)

It detects, processes, and responds to stimuli from the environment and within the body.

b)

It circulates blood and transports nutrients throughout the body.

c)

It breaks down food into nutrients for energy production.

d)

It produces hormones to regulate long-term processes like growth and metabolism.

26.

An injury to the cerebellum is most likely to affect which of the following bodily functions?

a)

Locomotor skills

b)

Hand-eye coordination

c)

Regulation of blood pressure

d)

Short-term memory

27.

Jin accidentally slapped Franz after he pulled a surprise prank on him. What division of the peripheral nervous system is activated in this scenario?

a)

Sympathetic Nervous System

b)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

c)

Adrenal Cortex

d)

Adrenal Medulla

28.

Which of the following is FALSE about the functions of the endocrine system?

a)

It maintains the balance of bodily functions through hormones.

b)

It influences growth, reproduction, and metabolism.

c)

It regulates biological processes in the body.

d)

It controls involuntary muscle movements.

29.

What are the body's chemical messengers, released by endocrine glands, that send signals through the bloodstream and tissues?

a)

Glucose

b)

Enzymes

c)

Biochemicals

d)

Hormones

30.

Eman filmed a mukbang video for his YouTube channel where he consumed a large amount of desserts. Shortly after, his blood sugar levels spiked. How does the pancreas respond to help regulate his blood sugar level?

a)

Glucagon is released to convert blood sugar to insulin.

b)

Insulin is released to convert blood sugar to glucose.

c)

Glucagon is released to increase blood sugar level.

d)

Insulin is released to decrease blood sugar level.

31.

All of the following are hormones of the pituitary, EXCEPT?

a)

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone

b)

Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone

c)

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone

d)

Oxytocin

32.

Which statement BEST describes the relationship of the nervous and endocrine systems?

a)

The nervous system helps maintain stable internal conditions, while the endocrine system is dedicated to affecting change.

b)

The endocrine system helps maintain stable internal conditions, while the nervous system is dedicated to affecting change.

c)

Both systems help in maintaining stable internal conditions by detecting, processing, and responding to stimuli.

d)

Both systems work independently from one another having their own specific functions.

33.

When the body detects an infection, it can trigger a fever as part of the immune response. What is the role of the hypothalamus in fever homeostasis?

a)

The hypothalamus acts as a sensor, detecting changes in the internal body temperature.

b)

The hypothalamus acts as the control, setting a higher temperature set point to induce fever, helping the body fight off infection.

c)

The hypothalamus acts as an effector, activating mechanisms like sweating or shivering to adjust the body's temperature.

d)

The hypothalamus does not participate in the regulation of fever during an infection.

34.

Which of the following scenarios in the human body is an example of positive feedback?

a)

A drop in body temperature stimulating shivering.

b)

Body temperature rising during hot weather, resulting in sweating.

c)

The release of insulin by the pancreas to decrease blood glucose after a heavy meal.

d)

A blood clot that results in the release of factors that stimulate more blood clotting at a wound.

35.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the term biodiversity?

a)

It refers to the variety of life on Earth.

b)

It is all the things that make us who we are as a person.

c)

The number of plants and animals in a particular location.

d)

It is a branch of Biology that deals with all types of plants and animals.

36.

All of these are ways to conserve and protect biodiversity, EXCEPT?

a)

Tree planting and growing activities

b)

Segregating biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste

c)

Buying products in single-use packaging

d)

Signing online petitions related to conservation of endangered animals

37.

Which of the following statements does NOT agree with the Kinetic Molecular Theory?

a)

Gas particles are in constant random motion.

b)

Gas particles are spaced far apart from each other.

c)

Gas particles move in predetermined patterns.

d)

Gas particles move independently from one another.

38.

What happens to the kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of gas as the temperature of the sample increases?

a)

It increases, then decreases

b)

It decreases

c)

It increases

d)

It does not change

39.

Why do tires often explode on hot summer days?

a)

The high temperature during summer causes the tires to explode.

b)

There is too much air inside the tires.

c)

Vehicle tires are not maintained.

d)

There are more travelers during summer vacation.

40.

Which statement about gases did Robert Boyle propose?

a)

The initial pressure, volume, and temperature are directly proportional to their final values.

b)

The volume of a gas at constant temperature is inversely proportional to its pressure.

c)

The pressure of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.

d)

The temperature and volume of a gas are directly related when pressure remains constant.

41.

Which of the following is NOT included in the formulation of the Combined Gas Law?

a)

Boyle's Law

b)

Charles's Law

c)

Gay-Lussac's Law

d)

Avogadro's Law

42.

A balloon contains 2.0 moles of helium. If an additional 2.0 moles are added at constant temperature and pressure, what happens to the volume?

a)

It doubles

b)

It halves

c)

It decreases

d)

It quadruples

43.

A sample of gas is stored in a rigid container at 2.00 atm and -4°C. What will be the pressure of the gas if the temperature is increased to 23°C, assuming the volume remains constant?

a)

0.22 atm

b)

2.22 atm

c)

2000 Pa

d)

220 kPa

44.

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that rusting is a chemical property rather than a physical property of iron?

a)

Rust can form on any iron.

b)

Rust does not look the same as iron

c)

Rust forms slowly.

d)

Rust cannot turn back into iron.

45.

Chemical changes are always represented by a chemical equation. What entities are usually located on the left-hand side of a chemical equation?

a)

Coefficient

b)

Product/s

c)

Reactant/s

d)

Subscript

46.

Which of the following equations does NOT demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

H₂ + Cl₂ → 2 HCl

b)

Ca + 2 H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂

c)

2 K + 2 H₂O → 2 KOH + H₂

d)

Mg + O₂ → MgO

47.

Write the correct coefficients in the order they should appear in the equation below.

_ Fe2O3 + _ C → _ Fe + _ CO2

a)

2, 3, 4, 2

b)

2, 3, 4, 3

c)

2, 4, 3, 2

d)

3, 4, 2, 2

48.

The following are chemical reactions that undergo single replacement, EXCEPT?

a)

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O

b)

Cu + 2 AgNO₃ → 2 Ag + Cu(NO₃)₂

c)

Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

d)

Cl₂ + 2 KBr → 2 KCl + Br₂