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ISSMA - QUIZ 5

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It describe those areas in which good results help ensure an organization’s successful competition and poor results usually lead to declining performance.

(a)  

2.

It is the full set of end-to-end activities involved in creating value for the end user.

(a)  

3.

It is the sequence of activities a company performs to design, produce, sell, deliver, and support its products or services.

(a)  

4.

Something a company is good at doing or a characteristic that gives it enhanced competitiveness.

(a)  

5.

Something a company lacks or does poorly or a condition that puts it at a disadvantage

(a)  

6.

A firm strives to create a cost advantage in its target segment Exploits differences in cost behavior in some segments.

(a)  

7.

Firm seeks to be unique in its industry along some dimensions of product or service that are widely valued by buyers.

(a)  

8.

Focused INTERNALLY on the firm’s operations and activities.

(a)  

9.

Focused EXTERNALLY on competition vis-à-vis the firm’s rivals.

(a)  

10.

This strategy rests on the choice of narrow competitive scope within an industry.

(a)  

11.

This strategy involves reversing performance decline and reinvigorating growth toward profitability through asset and cost surgery, selected market and product pruning, and piecemeal productivity improvements.

(a)  

12.

Policies and procedures which make the organization work.

(a)  

13.

To lead the process of making corrective adjustments, it involves promoting fresh initiatives to bring internal activities and behavior into better alignment with (a)   .

14.

. A firm’s achievement of similarity, or being “on par” with competitors with respect to low cost, differentiation, or other strategic product characteristics.

(a)  

15.

One firm, the acquirer, purchases and absorbs operations of another, the acquired.

(a)  

16.

Refers to how a business “learns” to lower costs as it gains experience with production processes.

(a)  

17.

This involves withdrawing from certain value chain activities and relying on outsiders to supply needed products, support services, or functional activities.

(a)  

18.

In 7-S framework, this process and basis of decision making of management, especially the CEO, which is an important determinant in what is strategically possible for the organization.

(a)  

19.

To lead the process of making corrective adjustments, it requires _______ adjustments are needed, and _______ adjustments to make.

(a)  

20.

Requires a much wider set of managerial activities and is much more time consuming.

(a)  

21.

Assessing tangible resources; the size, location, technical, sophistication, and flexibility of plant and equipment.

a)

Financial Resources

b)

Physical Resources

c)

Technological Resources

d)

Reputation

22.

Stock of technology in the form of proprietary technology (patents, copyright, trade secrets) and expertise in the application of technology (know-how).

a)

Financial Resources

b)

Physical Resources

c)

Technological Resources

d)

Reputation

23.

Analysis is the most basic and universally accepted approach to assessing a firm.

a)

Non-financial data analysis

b)

Financial data analysis

c)

Quantitative analysis

d)

Financial ratio analysis

24.

The firm’s borrowing capacity and its internal funds generation determines its capacity for investment expenditure and its ability to weather fluctuations in demand and profits over time.

a)

Financial Resources

b)

Physical Resources

c)

Technological Resources

d)

Reputation

25.

Assessing the intangible resources which key indicators are; brand recognition, price premium over competing brands, percentage of repeat buying, level and consistency of company performance, and objective measures of product performance.

a)

Financial Resources

b)

Physical Resources

c)

Technological Resources

d)

Reputation

26.

A firm’s generic strategy based on appeal to a narrow market segment within an industry.

a)

Cost-leadership strategy

b)

Generic strategies

c)

Focus Strategy

d)

Differentiation strategy

27.

A firm’s generic strategy based on appeal to the industry wide market using a competitive advantage based on low cost.

a)

Cost-leadership strategy

b)

Generic strategies

c)

Focus Strategy

d)

Differentiation strategy

28.

A firm’s generic strategy based on creating differences in the firm’s products or service offering by creating something that is perceived industry wide as unique and valued by customers.

a)

Cost-leadership strategy

b)

Generic strategies

c)

Focus Strategy

d)

Differentiation strategy

29.

Responsibility of plant managers, geographic unit managers, and lower level superiors.

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

Operating strategies

c)

Functional strategies

d)

Business strategies

30.

Responsibility of corporate-level managers.

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

Defensive strategy

c)

Functional strategies

d)

Business strategies

31.

Used to protect competitive advantage.

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

Defensive strategy

c)

Functional strategies

d)

Business strategies

32.

Used to build new or stronger market position and/or create competitive advantage.

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

Offensive strategy

c)

Functional strategies

d)

Business strategies

33.

Responsibility of heads of major functional activities within a business unit division.

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

Offensive strategy

c)

Functional strategies

d)

Business strategies

34.

Responsibility of business-level general managers.

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

Offensive strategy

c)

Functional strategies

d)

Business strategies

35.

The __________ stage is characterized by strong increases in sales, attractive to potential competitors, and when firms can build brand recognition.

a)

Introduction stage

b)

Decline stage

c)

Growth stage

d)

Maturity stage

36.

The ___________ stage is when products are unfamiliar to consumers, market segments are not well-defined, product features are not clearly specified, and competition tends to be limited.

a)

Introduction stage

b)

Decline stage

c)

Growth stage

d)

Maturity stage

37.

The ___________ stage is when industry sales and profits begin to fall, price competition increases, and industry consolidation occurs.

a)

Introduction stage

b)

Decline stage

c)

Growth stage

d)

Maturity stage

38.

The ___________ stage is when aggregate industry demand slows, market becomes saturated, few new adopters, direct competition become predominant, and marginal competitors begin to exit.

a)

Introduction stage

b)

Decline stage

c)

Growth stage

d)

Maturity stage

39.

Generic strategies, value creating activities, and overall objectives all vary over the course of an ________________.

a)

Industry growth

b)

Industry life cycle

c)

Industry maturity

d)

Industry decline

40.

Strategic change framework that planning how changes will be made.

a)

8 SIT framework

b)

7-S model

c)

Porters model

d)

Zachman framework

41.

Given below are the characteristics of a strong culture except;

a)

Conduct business according to a clear, narrowly- understood philosophy

b)

Values are widely shared and deeply rooted

c)

Careful screening/selection of new employees to be sure they will “fit in”

d)

Considerable time spent by management communicating and reinforcing values

42.

Given below are the characteristics of a weak culture except;

a)

Weak employee allegiance to company’s vision and strategy

b)

Few behavioral norms evident in operating practices

c)

No strong sense of company identity

d)

Having good and widely-shared core set of values

43.

Given below are the characteristics of a unhealthy culture except;

a)

“Not-invented-here” mindset - company personnel discount need to look outside forb best practices, new or better managerial approaches, and innovative ideas

b)

Hostility to change

c)

Respect for high ethical standards and overzealous pursuit of wealth by key executives

d)

Highly politicized internal environment

44.

Strength and weaknesses looks at:

a)

The internal factors affecting the business

b)

The future of the business

c)

The external factors affecting the business

d)

None of the above

45.

Some of the examples of internal environment factors in an organization are;

a)

Management changes

b)

Culture changes

c)

Employee moral

d)

All of the above

46.

Major competitors’ actions often produce new and significant problems that become critical success factors (CSF). 

a)

True

b)

False

47.

A type of quantitative analysis in value chain is financial data analysis, and non-financial data analysis.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Inability of an alliance to endure depends on how well partners work together, success of partners in responding and adapting to changing conditions, and willingness of partners to renegotiate the bargain.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The value chain perspective considers every activity in the process, regardless of who performs the activity.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

A company’s value chain is typically just a part of a larger value system that includes companies either upstream (suppliers) or downstream (distribution channel), or both (i.e. the industry’s value chain).

a)

True

b)

False

51.

It is a useful tool for disaggregating a company’s operations into strategically relevant activities and business processes exposes the major elements of the company’s cost structure.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Competitive advantage exists when the firm’s strategy gives it an edge in improving market share, and defending itself against competitive forces.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Alliances fail because of the ability of partners to work together.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

In selecting generic strategies, each business establishes a central theme for how a company will endeavor to out-compete rivals.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

A business objective sets to convert the vision and mission into specific, measurable, and timely performance targets.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Strategic change means taking the necessary steps to ensure that the organization will be capable of implementing strategies.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Standout cultural traits does not include a can-do spirit, pride in doing things right, no-excuses accountability, and a results-oriented work climate in which people go the extra mile to achieve performance targets.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

One of the leadership roles is to put constructive pressure on company to achieve good results.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Formulating a strategic plan does automatically mean that the people in an organization will cooperate or, much worse, is even capable of implementing the required activities.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Successful leaders spend time in mobilizing organizational energy behind, good strategy execution, and operating excellence. 

a)

True

b)

False