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Government Final Exam Review II

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Strong devotion to a political party is _____.
a)
politics
b)
patronage
c)
coalition
d)
partisanship
2.
Which of the following is not a function of a party?
a)
to nominate candidates
b)
to conduct elections
c)
to govern
d)
to exert a moderating influence
3.
United States politics is dominated by a _____-party system.
a)
one
b)
two
c)
multi
d)
splinter
4.
The single most influential factor in party choice is a person’s _____.
a)
family background
b)
education
c)
intelligence
d)
place of residence
5.
What is a state or local election in which voters select the candidates who will run on each party’s ticket in the general election?
a)
primary
b)
caucus
c)
convention
d)
campaign
6.
State party committees work to achieve each of the following except _____.
a)
choosing the presidential nominee
b)
fostering party unity
c)
recruiting candidates
d)
soliciting campaign funds
7.
(Select all that apply.) What is the practice of giving jobs to friends and other supporters (choose all that apply)?
a)
patronage
b)
the spoils system
c)
splinter
d)
nominate
8.
The United States is limited to two political parties.
a)
True
b)
False
9.
Competition between the major parties is usually strong.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
Citizens who wish to become members of a party must pass a test to ensure that they agree with the party positions.
a)
True
b)
False
11.

(Fill-in-the-blank: type the answer in the area below.) A political (a)   is an association that represents certain political philosophies and promotes certain political goals.

12.

(Fill-in-the-blank: type the answer in the area below.) To (a)   means to name candidates for public office.

13.
After the Civil War, the ____________________ party dominated the politics of the South.
a)
Democratic
b)
Republican
14.
A party ____________________ is a formal statement of a party’s position on current issues.
a)
district
b)
platform
c)
primary
15.
In a multiparty system, a(n) ____________________ is a temporary alliance of several groups to form a majority in order to gain control of the government.
a)
district
b)
platform
c)
primary
d)
coalition
16.
____________________ are the smallest units of election districts and party administration.
a)
precincts
b)
platform
c)
primary
d)
coalition
17.

DNC stands for (a)   .

18.

RNC stands for (a)   .

19.
A(n) ____________________ group is formed around a particular issue or agenda.
a)
irritating
b)
ward
c)
interest
d)
intriguing
20.
Voters who have no declared party affiliation are called ____________________ voters.
a)
obnoxious
b)
wishy-washy
c)
independent
d)
undetermined
21.
Voting for candidates of different parties for different offices is known as ____________________.
a)
ticket splitting
b)
common voting procedure
c)
Tippecanoe
d)
straight voting
22.

Which form of social media is Donald Trump most know for using?

(a)  

23.
Participants must be registered as members of one party and may vote only for candidates from that party.
a)
blanket primary
b)
closed primary
c)
desert primary
d)
jungle primary
24.
Participants do not have to declare party membership.
a)
blanket primary
b)
closed primary
c)
open primary
d)
jungle primary
25.
Which type of nomination process was originally just a small group of political insiders choosing whom they wanted to run for office?
a)
caucus
b)
convention
c)
primary
d)
petition
26.
Which type of nomination method is a preliminary election and is the main method used today?
a)
petition
b)
caucus
c)
convention
d)
direct primary
27.
The Constitution specifies election laws regarding each of the following positions except _____.
a)
governor
b)
president
c)
vice president
d)
members of Congress
28.
What term refers to the location in a specific precinct where residents go to vote?
a)
voting booth
b)
polling place
c)
convention
d)
caucus
29.
Forty-nine states require voter registration, which mandates that citizens meet each of the following qualifications except _____.
a)
having US citizenship
b)
being at least eighteen years old
c)
owning or renting a place to live
d)
residing there for a specific amount of time
30.
Campaign funding made by groups or individuals without a candidate’s knowledge or approval is called _____.
a)
hard money
b)
soft money
c)
PAC contributions
d)
independent expenditures
31.
Each state has the same qualifications for governor.
a)
True
b)
False
32.
The final election before a candidate takes office is the primary election.
a)
True
b)
False
33.
How a candidate looks on television is not important.
a)
True
b)
False
34.
____________________ is the process of selecting a candidate to represent the party for public office.
a)
Nomination
b)
Stipulation
c)
Capitulation
d)
Delegation
35.
A person running for office who currently holds that office is called a(n) ____________________.
a)
Bull Moose
b)
incumbent
c)
winner forever
d)
constituent
36.
Residents of a district who are represented by an elected official are called ____________________.
a)
volunteers
b)
consultants
c)
constituents
d)
voters
37.
A paid advertisement by a political candidate is known as a(n) ____________________.
a)
bad idea
b)
spot
c)
media blitz
d)
covert manipulation
38.
Those who favor some type of middle ground in politics are best classified as _____.
a)
liberals
b)
conservatives
c)
moderates
d)
interest groups
39.
Each of the following is an example of mass media except _____.
a)
newspapers
b)
television
c)
classic books
d)
social media
40.
Freedom from prior restraint means that the government cannot
a)
arrest someone before a crime is committed.
b)
use social media to influence opinion.
c)
censor information before it is published.
d)
all of these answers
e)
none of these answers
41.
Which three of the following are issues directly related to domestic policy?
a)
law
b)
civil liberties
c)
health
d)
war
e)
trade relations
42.
Which three of the following are issues directly related to foreign policy?
a)
war
b)
trade relations
c)
diplomacy
d)
law
e)
civil liberties
43.
Laws protecting the confidentiality of news sources are known as ____________________ laws.
a)
shield
b)
prudent
c)
anonymity
d)
common sense
44.

What refers to the published false statements that injure a person's reputation?

(a)  

45.

What is false oral communication that injures a person's reputation?

(a)  

46.
Those issues that the government decides to address are its
a)
perceptions
b)
polls
c)
strong issues
d)
agenda
47.
Natural born means a citizen must be born on American soil or to US citizens.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
How old must a person be to be eligible for president of the US?
a)
50 years old
b)
35 year old
c)
40 years old
d)
30 years old
49.
How long must a person being considered for the presidency of the US must live in the United States of America?
a)
All of their lives
b)
35 years
c)
20 years
d)
14 years
50.
A person running for the office of president MUST have had a successful military career or have held an important government office.
a)
True
b)
False
51.
The method of people having control of party nominations is called
a)
open season
b)
direct primaries
c)
private caucus
d)
necessary evil
52.
There is really no benefit for presidential primaries. One candidate is just as good as another.
a)
True
b)
False
53.
(Select all that apply.) A formal statement of a party's position on current issues is
a)
a work of fiction
b)
a party platform
c)
drafted at a party's national convention
d)
is held to an immutable and irrevocable standard
e)
is a physical structure from which candidates make their speeches; similar to a soap box
54.
(Select all that apply.) The general election
a)
is when military generals cast votes for the new Uncle Sam mascot
b)
determines which presidential candidate will be president of the USA
c)
is held on January 20
d)
is held on the Tuesday after the first Monday in November
55.
Who were the first presidential candidates to conduct their debate on national TV?
a)
Abraham Lincoln and Stephen Douglas
b)
George Bush and Bill Clinton
c)
John Kennedy and Richard Nixon
d)
Dwight Schrute and Andy Bernard
56.
What is the purpose of the Electoral College?
a)
drive people crazy
b)
keep unqualified persons from being elected president
c)
to protect the rights of the few against the rights of many and to give less populous states fair representation
57.
The number of electoral votes a state has never changes.
a)
True
b)
False
58.
As part of a president's inauguration he swears to
a)
faithfully execute the office of president and preserve, protect and defend the Constitution
b)
fully and faithfully support his/her party's platform
c)
defend America's position of global superpower
d)
defend the downtrodden
59.
Executive orders are presidential directives that have the effect and force of law.
a)
True
b)
False
60.
What are the six (6) major areas of presidential responsibility?
a)
Chief Executive
b)
Commander in Chief
c)
Diplomatic Leader
d)
Legislative Leader
e)
Chief of Staff
61.
Executive agreements and executive orders can be changed by a later president.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
The president's cabinet
a)
is a famous piece of furniture in the Oval office.
b)
was developed to assist the president in his constitutional duties
c)
is always super efficient
d)
is always staffed by the most qualified people
63.
Christians should always submit to the government no matter what it is we are asked to do. This is supported by scripture I Timothy 2:1-2.
a)
True
b)
False
64.
Which term refers to an administrative system in which agencies staffed largely by nonelected officials perform specific tasks in accordance with standard procedures.
a)
judiciary
b)
mule team
c)
bureaucracy
d)
legislative body
65.
A bureaucrat is
a)
a blight on society
b)
always highly qualified and competent
c)
civil servants dedicated to the details of administrative procedure
66.
The president can remove cabinet members.
a)
True
b)
False
67.
(Select all that apply.) What are three (3) benefits to America's bureaucracy
a)
chain of command in a hierarchical structure with the president at the top
b)
established rules, regulations, methods, and procedure cultivated by formalized rules
c)
efficiency and productivity due to job specialization where workers have specific responsibilities
d)
This is trick question. There are no benefits to bureaucracy.
e)
Presidents always know to whom Christmas cards should be addressed.
68.
It is an easy and simple process to terminate and replace civil servants of the bureaucracy.
a)
True
b)
False
69.
Congress has no authority or oversight in regards to bureaucratic departments because the bureaucracy is part of the executive branch.
a)
True
b)
False
70.
What were the original four cabinet departments?
a)
Department of State
b)
Department of Treasury
c)
Department of Justice
d)
Department of Defense (War)
e)
Department of Intelligence
71.
(Select all that apply.) What are the four (4) goals of US foreign policy?
a)
National Security
b)
Economic Development
c)
Alliance Security
d)
International Stability
e)
World Health
72.
What does the term isolationism include in regards to US foreign policy?
a)
America should not be tied to other countries or any other nation
b)
the US should close all borders to any who would enter
c)
No other countries should influence the US in any way: political, military, or economic.
73.
American foreign policy has always involved isolationism in some way.
a)
True
b)
False
74.
Which servant of the US public is typically responsible for US foreign policy?
a)
Speaker of the House
b)
President of the Senate (vice-president)
c)
President of the US
d)
State Governors
75.
Embassies are government offices or residences that are typically located in foreign capitals.
a)
True
b)
False
76.
How does the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) impact US foreign policy?
a)
It has no effect whatsoever.
b)
It gathers intelligence, information on activities in foreign countries.
c)
It attempts to educate people in other countries about how awesome the US is.
77.
The media, for good or ill, plays a part in foreign policy.
a)
True
b)
False
78.
The only tool that the US uses in foreign policy is military relations that display US military might.
a)
True
b)
False
79.
to approve the decision of a lower court
a)
affirm
b)
appeal
c)
appellate jurisdiction
d)
brief
80.
to petition a higher court to review a lower-court decision
a)
affirm
b)
appeal
c)
appellate jurisdiction
d)
brief
81.
a legal document that presents arguments supporting a client’s position in a case
a)
affirm
b)
appeal
c)
appellate jurisdiction
d)
brief
82.
the division of law dealing with private citizens’ legal rights in disputes with other citizens
a)
brief
b)
civil law
c)
common law
d)
constitutional law
83.
a system of law developed in England based on tradition and court decisions rather than legal code
a)
brief
b)
civil law
c)
common law
d)
constitutional law
84.
the division of law that treats crimes prosecuted by the government
a)
criminal law
b)
original jurisdiction
c)
precedent
d)
reverse
85.
a court decision that guides subsequent decisions in related cases
a)
criminal law
b)
original jurisdiction
c)
precedent
d)
reverse
86.
to rule against a lower-court decision
a)
criminal law
b)
original jurisdiction
c)
precedent
d)
reverse
87.
a principle of law that bases decisions on judicial precedent
a)
precedent
b)
reverse
c)
stare decisis
d)
writ of certiorari
88.
speech that attempts to overthrow the government or endanger national security
a)
libel
b)
sedition
c)
slander
d)
symbolic speech
89.
spoken defamation
a)
libel
b)
sedition
c)
slander
d)
symbolic speech
90.
written defamation
a)
libel
b)
sedition
c)
slander
d)
symbolic speech
91.
expressing ideas through actions rather than words
a)
libel
b)
sedition
c)
slander
d)
symbolic speech
92.
being tried twice for the same crime
a)
bill of attainder
b)
capital punishment
c)
double jeopardy
d)
eminent domain
93.
testifying against oneself in court
a)
ex post facto law
b)
self-incrimination
c)
writ of habeas corpus
94.
charges must be brought against the arrested
a)
ex post facto law
b)
self-incrimination
c)
writ of habeas corpus
95.
the death penalty
a)
bill of attainder
b)
capital punishment
c)
double jeopardy
d)
eminent domain
96.
Which of the following is not a natural, God-given right?
a)
the right to life
b)
the right to vote
c)
the right to worship
d)
the right to be treated as God’s image-bearer
97.
The United States currently has how many members of the Supreme Court?
a)
13
b)
9
c)
50
d)
94
98.
The _____ is the written report detailing the reasoning of the winning side in a Supreme Court case.
a)
concurring opinion
b)
majority opinion
c)
minority opinion
d)
dissenting opinion
99.
A member of the Supreme Court who votes with the losing side may write a _____.
a)
concurring opinion
b)
majority opinion
c)
minority opinion
d)
dissenting opinion
100.
A member of the Supreme Court who votes for the winning side for a reason different than that presented in the decision may write a _____.
a)
concurring opinion
b)
majority opinion
c)
minority opinion
d)
dissenting opinion
101.
How long is the term of office of a US Supreme Court member?
a)
4 years
b)
7 years
c)
9 years
d)
life
102.
In what case did the Supreme Court declare the doctrine of judicial review?
a)
Marbury v. Madison
b)
McCulloch v. Maryland
c)
Brown v. Board of Education
d)
Roe v. Wade
103.
Which of the following is a civil liberty?
a)
freedom of worship
b)
no poll taxes
c)
no discrimination
d)
freedom to vote
104.
Which of the following is a civil right?
a)
freedom of worship
b)
the right to bear arms
c)
no discrimination
d)
no cruel or unusual punishment
105.
Generally, what fraction of the jury must be convinced of a criminal defendant’s guilt for the accused to be found guilty?
a)
one-third
b)
a majority
c)
two-thirds
d)
all
106.
Which of the following amendments deals with voting rights for women?
a)
Fifteenth
b)
Nineteenth
c)
Twenty-Fourth
d)
Twenty-Sixth
107.
Which of the following amendments deals with voting rights for eighteen- to twenty-one-year-olds?
a)
Fifteenth
b)
Nineteenth
c)
Twenty-Fourth
d)
Twenty-Sixth
108.
(Select all that apply.) Which two amendments deal with voting rights for African Americans?
a)
Fifteenth
b)
Nineteenth
c)
Twenty-Fourth
d)
Twenty-Sixth
109.
Ensuring justice is a fundamental obligation of government.
a)
True
b)
False
110.
The English judicial system spread to the American colonies.
a)
True
b)
False
111.
The United States operates both federal courts and state courts.
a)
True
b)
False
112.
The highest ranking judge on the US Supreme Court is called the associate justice.
a)
True
b)
False
113.
The Supreme Court hears more original-jurisdiction cases than appellate cases.
a)
True
b)
False
114.
The supremacy clause of the Constitution dictates that state laws overrule federal laws.
a)
True
b)
False
115.
Civil liberties must be protected from government.
a)
True
b)
False
116.
Civil liberties and civil rights are the same thing.
a)
True
b)
False
117.
The First Amendment was intended to protect the religious diversity of the states from the power of the national government.
a)
True
b)
False
118.
Obscenity is protected under the First Amendment.
a)
True
b)
False
119.
Judges and all citizens agree on what constitutes obscenity.
a)
True
b)
False
120.
Many criminals receive the sentence of capital punishment.
a)
True
b)
False
121.
Literacy tests and poll taxes were enforced among blacks and whites alike.
a)
True
b)
False