wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

ACC102 - FAR

Total questions: 154

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statement is false?

a)

Cash discounts are a convenient means of reducing prices to invoice prices.

b)

Cash discounts are used to encourage customers to make prompt discount payments.

c)

Cash discounts may be offered in conjunction with trade discounts.

d)

From the seller’s point of view, the terms “cash discount” and “sales discount” are the same.

2.

A chart of accounts is

a)

a subsidiary ledger.

b)

a general ledger.

c)

a general journal.

d)

a listing of all account titles.

3.

This is the branch of accounting that is concerned primarily with the *1/1 preparation of general purpose financial statements:

a)

Managerial accounting

b)

Financial accounting

c)

Cost accounting

d)

Auditing Untitled

4.

Angelica, owner of Angel Services, withdrew P25,000 from the business *3/3 during the current year. The entry to close the withdrawals account at the end of the year is:

a)

Debit Angelica, withdrawals P25,000 Credit Angelica Capital P25,000

b)

Debit Income Summary P25,000 Credit Angelica Capital P25,000

c)

Debit Angelica Withdrawals P25,000 Credit Cash P25,000

d)

Debit Angelica Capital P25,000 Credit Angelica Withdrawals P25,000

5.

When a business entity receives payment from a customer before delivering the goods, the unearned revenue account is

a)

debited

b)

credited

c)

debited and credited

d)

not affected

6.

A company forgot to record accrued and unpaid employee wages of P35,000 at period end. This oversight would

a)

Understate net income by 35,000

b)

Overstate net income by 35,000

c)

Overstate assets by 35,000

d)

Have no effect in net income

7.

The basic purpose of accounting is

a)

to provide the information that the mangers of an economic entity need to control its operations.

b)

to provide information that the creditors of an economic entity can use in deciding whether to make additional loans to the entity.

c)

to measure the periodic income of the economic entity.

d)

to provide quantitative nancial information about a business enterprise that is useful in making rational economic decision.

8.

The controlling account in the general ledger that summarizes the debits *1/1 and credits to the individual customer accounts in the subsidiary ledger is called

a)

accounts receivable

b)

accounts payable

c)

sales

d)

purchases

9.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the periodic system?

a)

cost of goods sold is computed at the end of the period

b)

purchases are recorded by debiting purchases at cost

c)

inventory records are always up to date

d)

merchandise inventory, beginning is a nominal account

10.

A ledger

a)

contains only assets and liability accounts.

b)

should show accounts in alphabetical order.

c)

is a collection of the entire group of accounts maintained by a company.

d)

is a book of nal entry.

11.

Reversing entries may be prepared for the following adjustments, except:

a)

accrued income

b)

accrued expense

c)

prepayments, if the asset method is used

d)

unearned revenues, if the income method is used

12.

On December 31, earned but unpaid wages amounted to P10,300. What reversing entry could be made on January 1?

a)

Debit Wages expense P10,300 Credit Wages payable P10,300

b)

Debit Prepaid wages P10,300 Credit Wages expense P10,300

c)

Debit Wages expense P10,300 Credit Prepaid wages P10,300

d)

Debit Wages payable P10,300 Credit Wages expense P10,300

13.

The expression 3/20; n/30 means

a)

the invoice must be paid in 3 to 20 days, otherwise, interest for 30 days will be

charged.

b)

a 3% discount is available if the invoice is paid in 20 to 30 days; otherwise the total invoice is due.

c)

a 3% discount is available if the invoice is paid within 20 days, otherwise, the total invoice price is due in 30 days.

d)

a 3% discount is available if the invoice is paid within 30 days.

14.

Goods have an invoice price of P125,000 and the seller had a gross profit *3/3 rate of 25% of cost, what is the cost of goods sold?

a)

100,000

b)

93,750

c)

125,000

d)

156,250

15.

In preparing the worksheet, which of the following group of accounts is *1/1 not extended to the balance sheet column?

a)

Assets, contra-assets, and liabilities.

b)

Liabilities, contra-liabilities, and prot for the period.

c)

Drawing, capital, and prot for the period.

d)

Income, expenses, and losses.

16.

Why are adjusting entries necessary?

a)

to record revenues and expenses.

b)

to make debits equals credits.

c)

to close nominal accounts at year end.

d)

to correct erroneous balances in account

17.

What function do accounting journals serve in the accounting process?

a)

classifying

b)

summarizing

c)

recording

d)

reporting

18.

The inventory of a merchandising entity consists of goods purchased for resale. Which is not a part of the inventory of a grocery store?

a)

canned goods

b)

meats and vegetables

c)

computer equipment

d)

dried goods

19.

The payment of a liability

a)

decreases assets and owner’s equity.

b)

increases assets and decreases liabilities.

c)

decreases assets and increases liabilities.

d)

decreases assets and decreases liabilities.

20.

The allowance for doubtful accounts is an example of a (an)

a)

expense account

b)

contra account

c)

adjunct account

d)

control account

21.

Posting refers to the process of transferring information from

a)

Journal to the general ledger accounts.

b)

Journals to source documents.

c)

General ledger accounts to the journal.

d)

Source documents to journal.

22.

The best definition of assets is

a)

the collection of resources belonging to the company and the sources of , or claims

on these resources

b)

the cash and properties owned by the company.

c)

the resources belonging to a company having future benet to the company.

d)

the owner’s investment in the business.

23.

The links between the financial statements are

a)

ending capital from the statement of owner’s equity to the statement of nancial

position.

b)

net income from the statement of comprehensive income to the statement of owner’s equity.

c)

both a and b.

d)

none of the above.

24.

Under the perpetual inventory system, the entry to record a sales return would include a debit to

a)

Accounts receivable

b)

Sales discount

c)

Cost of goods sold

d)

Merchandise inventory

25.

This is the financial statement that shows the assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity of the business as of a given date.

a)

Statement of Comprehensive Income

b)

Statement of Cash Flows

c)

Statement of Financial Condition

d)

Statement of Changes in Equity

26.

This refers to optional journal entries that are intended to make recording *1/1 transactions easier in the next accounting period.

a)

simple entries

b)

compound entries

c)

reversing entries

d)

adjusting entries

27.

Operating income will result if gross profit exceeds

a)

operating expenses.

b)

purchases.

c)

cost of goods sold.

d)

sales discounts and sales returns and allowances.

28.

A trial balance will not balance if

a)

an entry on purchase of supplies is recorded twice.

b)

a cash withdrawal of P5,000 is debited to a Capital account and credited Cash.

c)

The purchase of supplies on account is debited to Supplies and credited to Cash.

d)

a P20,000 payment on account is debited to Accounts payable for P2,000 and credited to Cash for P20,000.

29.

The following accounts will not appear on the post-closing trial balance, except

a)

Professional fees

b)

Advertising expense

c)

Taxes and licenses

d)

Unearned revenue

30.

From the point of view of the company receiving the cash, an item that represents services that have been paid for by the customer, but have not been provided to the customer by the firm which received the cash, is called

a)

an accrued expense.

b)

a prepaid expense.

c)

an accrued revenue.

d)

an unearned revenue.

31.

An adjusting entry that records the earned portion of unearned revenue previously recorded always include a

a)

Debit to an account in the asset category.

b)

Credit to an account in the asset category.

c)

Credit to an account in the owners' equity category.

d)

Credit to an account in the liability category.

32.

The income statement shows the performance of an enterprise

a)

As of a given date.

b)

At the end of the period.

c)

At the time of crisis.

d)

At the time of changes.

33.

A worksheet may or may not be prepared to come up with the financial statements. Therefore, a worksheet is

a)

Mandatory

b)

Permanent

c)

Optional

d)

Final

34.

An example of a nominal account is

a)

Accumulated depreciation

b)

Accrued expense

c)

Accrued income

d)

Doubtful accounts

35.

The last step in the accounting cycle is to

a)

prepare a post-closing trial balance

b)

prepare nancial statements

c)

journalize and post adjusting entries

d)

journalize and post reversing entries

36.

Information about the performance of an entity is required in order to assess potential changes in the economic resources that it is likely to control in the future. This information is primarily provided in the

a)

cash ow statement

b)

statement of retained earnings

c)

statement of nancial position

d)

statement of comprehensive income

37.

An accrued expense can best be described as an amount

a)

Paid and currently matched with earnings.

b)

Paid and not currently matched with earnings.

c)

Not paid and not currently matched with earnings.

d)

Not paid and currently matched with earnings.

38.

A company that sprays chemicals in residences to eliminate or prevent infestation of insects requires that customers prepay for 3 months' service at the beginning of each new quarter. Select the term that appropriately describes this situation from the viewpoint of the

exterminating company.

a)

Unearned revenue

b)

Earned revenue

c)

Accrued revenue.

d)

Prepaid expense

39.

A balance sheet which is patterned after the accounting equation, A = L + Eq and is presented in a horizontal form is called

a)

Natural form.

b)

Account form.

c)

Report form.

d)

Functional form.

40.

In reviewing a set of journal entries, you encounter an entry composed of a debit to interest expense and a credit to interest payable. The purpose of this journal entry is to record

a)

An accrued expense.

b)

A deferred expense.

c)

A contingent liability.

d)

An unexpired cost.

41.

Which of the following is false?

a)

Nominal accounts are presented in the income statement.

b)

After posting the closing entries, the balances of the nominal accounts are reduced to zero.

c)

After posting the adjusting entries, there are no more nominal accounts in the general ledger.

d)

It is not necessary to close the nominal accounts every time f/s are prepared.

42.

The elements directly related to the measurement of performance of an entity are

a)

income and expenses

b)

assets, liabilities and equity

c)

assets and liabilities

d)

income, expenses and equity

43.

Which of the following accounts would not be closed to the income summary account at the end of a period?

a)

Fees earned

b)

Wages expense

c)

Rent expense

d)

Accumulated depreciation

44.

The correct order of the following steps of the accounting cycle is

a)

Posting, closing, adjusting, reversing.

b)

Posting, adjusting, closing, reversing.

c)

Posting, reversing, adjusting, closing.

d)

Adjusting, posting, closing, reversing.

45.

Closing entries

a)

Transfer the balances in all of the nominal accounts to the capital account.

b)

Must be made after the reversing entries but before the adjusting entries.

c)

Close out all of the accounts in the general ledger.

d)

Must be followed by reversing entries.

46.

Why are adjusting entries necessary?

a)

To record revenues and expenses.

b)

To make debits equals credits.

c)

To close nominal accounts at year end.

d)

To correct erroneous balances in accounts.

47.

The first step in the accounting cycle is to

a)

adjust the general ledger accounts

b)

analyze transactions from source documents

c)

record transactions in a journal

d)

post journal entries to general ledger accounts

48.

What are real accounts?

a)

Contra-asset accounts.

b)

Accounts added to the beginning balance.

c)

Balance sheet accounts.

d)

Income statement accounts.

49.

Failure to record the expired amount of prepaid rent expense would

a)

Understate expenses

b)

Overstate expenses

c)

Overstate liabilities

d)

Understate liabilities

50.

When a seller allowed a reduction from the original price for defective goods, the seller will issue to the customer a

a)

debit memorandum.

b)

sales invoice.

c)

credit memorandum.

d)

ocial receipt.

51.

Revenue is normally entered in the accounting records when:

a)

A customer order goods.

b)

A customer pays for the goods.

c)

Goods are received by customers.

d)

Goods are sold.

52.

The FOB shipping point imply that the:

a)

The seller of the goods pays the freight.

b)

The buyer of the goods pays the freight.

c)

Goods are places free on board to the buyer’s place of business.

d)

Common carrier pays the freight.

53.

Detailed records of goods held for resale are maintained under a

a)

perpetual inventory system.

b)

periodic inventory system.

c)

double entry accounting system.

d)

single entry accounting system.

54.

Expenses that are incurred directly or entirely in connection with the sale of merchandise are classified as :

a)

selling expenses

b)

general expenses

c)

other expenses

d)

administrative expenses

55.

Using perpetual inventory system, the entry to record sales return would *0/2 include

a)

Credit to Merchandise Inventory.

b)

Credit to Purchases.

c)

Debit to Cost of goods sold.

d)

Credit to Accounts Receivable.

56.

If the seller is to pay the transportation costs of delivering merchandise, the delivery terms are stated as

a)

FOB shipping point.

b)

FOB destination.

c)

FOB n/30.

d)

FOB seller.

57.

A credit note is used as documentation for a journal entry that requires a debit to

a)

Sales and a credit to Cash.

b)

Sales Returns and Allowances and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

c)

Accounts Receivable and a credit to a contra revenue account.

d)

Cash and a credit to Sales Returns and Allowances.

58.

Under the perpetual inventory system accounting standards require any discount received for paying for inventory purchased within the discount period is to be

a)

Credited to the Bank account.

b)

Credited to the Inventory account.

c)

Credited to the Cost of Sales account.

d)

Credited to the Accounts payable account.

59.

Using perpetual inventory system, freight cost incurred by the buyer for the transportation of goods is recorded in what account?

a)

Freight-out.

b)

Freight expense.

c)

Freight-in.

d)

Inventory.

60.

What is the term applied to the excess of net revenue from sales over the cost of merchandise sold?

a)

gross prot

b)

income from operations

c)

net income

d)

gross sales

61.

In a merchandising operations, the Sales account

a)

Only credit sales of merchandise.

b)

Only cash sales of merchandise.

c)

Both cash and credit sales of merchandise.

d)

Sales of both merchandise and other assets of the business.

62.

Netflix Company purchased supplies for cash. The journal entry to record *0/2 the purchase using perpetual inventory system will be

a)

Debit Inventory and Credit Cash.

b)

Debit Purchases and Credit Cash.

c)

Debit Supplies and Credit Cash.

d)

Debit Inventory and Credit Accounts Payable.

63.

The cost of delivering goods to the customer is considered as:

a)

Part of the cost of goods sold.

b)

Is a contra-revenue account.

c)

Part of operating expense.

d)

Deduction to the cost of goods sold.

64.

Which of the following account would appear in the income statement of a merchandising business, but not in the income statement of a service business?

a)

Interest income

b)

Income tax expense

c)

Advertising expense

d)

Freight-in

65.

The transportation expense of P20,000 paid for the transport of goods *0/2 under F.O.B. destination, prepaid is a

a)

cost of inventory.

b)

cost of goods sold.

c)

selling cost.

d)

a receivable from buyer.

66.

Which of the following discount has no account of its own and requires *2/2 no special accounting entry?

a)

Sales discount

b)

Purchase discount

c)

Trade discount

d)

Cash discount

67.

Which of the following statement is false?

a)

The difference between list price and invoice price is equal to the amount of the

trade discount.

b)

Trade discounts are a convenient way of reducing list price to invoice price.

c)

Trade discounts are not entered in the accounting records.

d)

Trade discounts are identical to cash discounts.

68.

If Miss Jam returned goods to the seller, what effect will the return have on the books of the seller?

a)

An increase in Sales account.

b)

A decrease in the Accounts Payable and Allowance accounts.

c)

An increase in the Purchase Return and Allowance account.

d)

An increase in the Sales Return and Allowance account.

69.

Using periodic inventory system, the entry to record sales return would include

a)

Debit Sales Return.

b)

Debit Accounts Receivable.

c)

Credit Cost of Goods Sold.

d)

Debit Merchandise Inventory.

70.

When the seller advances the transportation costs and the terms of sale are FOB shipping point, the seller records the payment of the transportation costs by debiting

a)

Accounts receivable.

b)

Transportation in.

c)

Accounts payable.

d)

Sales.

71.

Revenue is normally entered in the accounting records when:

a)

goods are received

b)

goods are sold

c)

a customer pays for the goods

d)

a customer orders goods

72.

Sales return and allowances is classified in the financial statements as:

a)

an expense account.

b)

a revenue account.

c)

a contra revenue account.

d)

a cost of goods sold account.

73.

Theoretically, cash discounts permitted on purchased inventory should be

a)

Added to other income, whether taken or not.

b)

Added to other income, only if the discount is taken.

c)

Deducted from inventory, whether taken or not.

d)

Deducted from inventory, only if the discount is taken.

74.

A physical inventory count is usually taken

a)

in the middle of the accounting period.

b)

at the end of the accounting period.

c)

at the start of the accounting period.

d)

at the peak of the busy season.

75.

Which of the following statement is false?

a)

Cash discounts are a convenient means of reducing prices to invoice prices.

b)

Cash discounts are used to encourage customers to make prompt discount payments.

c)

Cash discounts may be offered in conjunction with trade discounts.

d)

From the seller’s point of view, the terms “cash discount” and “sales discount” are the same.

76.

Under the perpetual inventory system, the entry to record a sales return would include a debit to

a)

Accounts receivable.

b)

Sales discount.

c)

Cost of goods sold.

d)

Merchandise inventory.

77.

A sale on May 21 with terms of 2/10; n/30 is due to be collected by

a)

May 23.

b)

May 31.

c)

June 20.

d)

June 1.

78.

It is the largest single expense of the merchandising business. It is the cost of inventory that the entity has sold to customers.

a)

ending inventory

b)

total goods available for sale

c)

purchases and beginning inventory

d)

cost of goods sold

79.

Which of the following is not considered in computing net cost of purchases?

a)

Transportation cost paid on purchased goods

b)

Transportation cost paid on goods shipped to customers

c)

Purchase returns and allowances

d)

Purchases

80.

Which of the following would not be included in merchandise inventory for a purchasing company?

a)

Goods in transit shipped FOB shipping point.

b)

Goods in transit shipped FOB destination.

c)

Goods on hand in the showroom.

d)

Goods ordered and received from the supplier.

81.

I. The chart of accounts for a merchandising entity differs from that of a service entity.

II. Discounts offered to the buyer to encourage early payment are trade discounts.

III. If the seller is to shoulder the cost of delivery, the term is stated as FOB destination.

IV. The ending inventory of one period is the beginning of the next period.

a)

Only one statement is true.

b)

Only two statements are true.

c)

Only three statement s are true.

d)

All statements are true.

82.

If a customer returns goods to a merchandiser, what effect will the return have on the books of the merchandiser?

a)

an increase in sales account

b)

a decrease in the accounts payable and allowance accounts

c)

an increase in the purchase return and allowance account

d)

an increase in the sales returns and allowance account

83.

FOB shipping point means

a)

title passes at shipping point; seller pays transportation cost

b)

title passes at shipping point; buyer pays transportation cost

c)

title does not pass at shipping point; however, buyer is responsible for the transportation cost

d)

none of the above

84.

A purchase discount results from

a)

buying a large enough quantity of merchandise to get the discount.

b)

returning goods to the seller.

c)

receiving a purchase allowance from the seller.

d)

paying within the discount.

85.

When partial payment was made by the buyer for merchandise purchased on account with terms 2/10; n/30, what will happen when full payment will be made after the discount period?

a)

Partial discount will be given to the buyer in proportion to the amount paid within the discount period.

b)

A 2% discount will be given for the whole amount purchased.

c)

No discount will be given at all.

d)

A 2% discount will be given as long as it was paid within 30 days upon purchase.

86.

In merchandising operations, the Sales account will be recorded if the *2/2 seller sells

a)

assets that the company owns.

b)

goods or merchandise only.

c)

goods or merchandise on cash basis.

d)

goods or merchandise with discount.

87.

Which of the following discounts has no account of its own and requires no special accounting entry?

a)

cash discount

b)

trade discount

c)

sales discount

d)

purchase discount

88.

What are real accounts?

a)

Contra-asset accounts.

b)

Accounts added to the beginning balance.

c)

Balance sheet accounts.

d)

Income statement accounts

89.

An example of a nominal account is

a)

Accumulated depreciation

b)

Accrued expense

c)

Accrued income

d)

Doubtful accounts

90.

A company that sprays chemicals in residences to eliminate or prevent infestation of insects requires that customers prepay for 3 months' service at the beginning of each new quarter. Select the term that appropriately describes this situation from the viewpoint of the

exterminating company.

a)

Unearned revenue.

b)

Earned revenue.

c)

Accrued revenue.

d)

Prepaid expense.

91.

An accrued expense can best be described as an amount

a)

Paid and currently matched with earnings.

b)

Paid and not currently matched with earnings.

c)

Not paid and not currently matched with earnings.

d)

Not paid and currently matched with earnings.

92.

In reviewing a set of journal entries, you encounter an entry composed of a debit to interest expense and a credit to interest payable. The purpose of this journal entry is to record

a)

An accrued expense.

b)

A deferred expense.

c)

A contingent liability.

d)

An unexpired cost.

93.

Which of the following accounts would not be closed to the income summary account at the end of a period?

a)

Fees earned

b)

Wages expense

c)

Rent expense

d)

Accumulated depreciation

94.

From the point of view of the company receiving the cash, an item that represents services that have been paid for by the customer, but have not been provided to the customer by the firm which received the cash, is called

a)

an accrued expense.

b)

a prepaid expense.

c)

an accrued revenue.

d)

an unearned revenue.

95.

The elements directly related to the measurement of performance of an entity are

a)

income and expenses.

b)

assets, liabilities and equity.

c)

assets and liabilities.

d)

income, expenses and equity.

96.

Information about the performance of an entity is required in order to assess potential changes in the economic resources that it is likely to control in the future. This information is primarily provided in the

a)

cash ow statement.

b)

statement of retained earnings.

c)

statement of nancial position.

d)

statement of comprehensive income.

97.

A business pays weekly salaries of P20,000 on Friday for a five-day week ending on that day. The adjusting entry necessary at the end of the fiscal period ending on Thursday is

a)

debit Salaries Payable, P16,000; credit Cash, P16,000.

b)

debit Salary Expense, P16,000; credit Drawing, P16,000.

c)

debit Salary Expense, P16,000; credit Salaries Payable, P16,000.

d)

debit Drawing, P16,000; credit Cash, P16,000.

98.

Gugel.Com started operations on December 1, 2021. On the same day, received cash amounting to P240,000 for two year subscription starting January 1, 2022.

How much should be reported as 2021 Subscription Income?

a)

P-0-

b)

P 10,000

c)

P120,000

d)

P240,000

99.

The field of accounting where an accountant renders his services to a business enterprise, and where he performs a variety of tasks related to the accounting cycle.

a)

public accounting

b)

government accounting

c)

private accounting

d)

not for profit accounting

100.

The phases of accounting include recording, classifying, summarizing and controlling.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Relevance of an information may be lost if there is undue delay in reporting them.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

The basic purpose of accounting is to provide financial information to internal users to help them make informed judgments and better decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

In cases of conflict between the legal form and economic substance, the legal form is given the accounting recognition.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

The primary purpose of a business is making profit.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Information about financial position is primarily provided in a balance sheet.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

In cases when there is conflict between the framework and a PFRS, the requirements of the PFRS will prevail.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Revenue arises from central revenue producing activities of the enterprise.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Because of its subjectivity, historical cost is the basis most commonly applied by entities to measure the f/s elements.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Because of its subjectivity, historical cost is the basis most commonly applied by entities to measure the f/s elements.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

liquidation of the company is imminent, the financial statement may still be prepared using the going concern assumption.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Liquidity refers to the availability of cash in the near future after taking account of financial commitments over the current period.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

government and its agencies rely on financial information to determine whether business enterprises comply with prescribed rules and regulations.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Information about complex matters must be excluded from the f/s because the users may not understand.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

An asset is recognized when it is possible that the future economic benefits will flow to the enterprise and its cost can be measured reasonably.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Equity is the residual amount in the liabilities of the company after deducting all its assets.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Management accounting is concerned with providing information to external users to help them in making economic decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

One characteristic of assets is that these are resources owned and controlled by the enterprise.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Losses are decreases in equity from incidental transactions of the entity, except those that result from distribution to owners.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Qualitative characteristics are the attributes that make the information provided in the financial statements useful to users.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

The exercise of prudence allows the deliberate understatement of assets and overstatement of liabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Under generally accepted accounting principles, revenue recognition normally occurs when cash is received.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

The standards set out the concepts that underlie the preparation and presentation of financial statements for external users.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Legal ownership of the item is a requirement so that such item may be considered as an asset of the business.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Accounting is a service activity, whose function is to provide qualitative information, primarily financial in nature, about economic entities, that is intended to be useful in making economic decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Financial statements are prepared based on the assumption that users have common information needs.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

Intercomparability is the comparability of financial statements of an enterprise for at least two reporting periods.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

item is material if its inclusion would not make a difference in the evaluation and decision of the users of f/s.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

The benefits derived from information should not exceed the costs of providing it.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

Financial accounting information is primarily historical in nature.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

The standards set out the concepts that underlie the preparation and presentation of financial statements for external users.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

Which of the following is not a broad subdivision within the accounting profession?

a)

academe

b)

public accounting

c)

government accounting

d)

management accounting

132.

Financial accounting is the area of accounting that emphasizes reporting to

a)

internal auditors.

b)

SEC and BSP.

c)

Creditors and investors.

d)

Management

133.

The reporting period of an enterprise

a)

may be equal or less than one year.

b)

may be equal or more than one year.

c)

is generally equal to one year.

d)

generally depends on the decision of the management.

134.

They are interested in information about trends and recent developments in the prosperity of the enterprise and the range of its activities.

a)

investors

b)

lenders

c)

public

d)

customers

135.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

a)

Accounting is both a science and an art.

b)

Accounting is a service- oriented discipline.

c)

Proper accounting of the transactions of a business will benet both the people inside and outside the enterprise.

d)

Being a bookkeeper requires the same kind of training and preparation as that of being an accountant.

136.

An advantage of a corporation is that

a)

it has a limited life.

b)

its owners’ personal assets are at stake.

c)

its ownership is easily transferable via the sale of shares.

d)

a change in ownership requires a new corporate agreement.

137.

Which of the following is an internal user of a company’s financial information?

a)

members of the board of directors

b)

creditors with long-term contracts with the company

c)

holders of the company’s bond

d)

stockholders of the corporation

138.

The best definition of assets is

a)

the collection of resources belonging to the company and the sources of, or claims

on these resources.

b)

the cash and properties owned by the company.

c)

the resources belonging to a company having future benet to the company.

d)

the owner’s investment in the business.

139.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of financial accounting and financial statements?

a)

Financial accounting represents information needed to serve the common needs of users.

b)

Financial accounting information is primarily historical nature.

c)

Financial statements are used to evaluate the entity’s performance and nancial condition.

d)

Financial statements are prepared using the cash basis of accounting.

140.

Which statement is incorrect concerning financial statements?

a)

Financial statements are prepared and presented atleast annually and are directed

toward the common information needs of a wide range of users

b)

The objective of f/s is to provide information about nancial position, performance and cash ows of an entity that is useful to a wide range of users in making economic decisions.

c)

F/s also show the results of the stewardship of management of the accountability of management for the resources entrusted to it.

d)

The external auditor of an entity has the primary responsibility for the preparation and presentation of its f/s.

141.

Management accounting is the area of accounting that

a)

emphasizes reporting to SEC.

b)

developing accounting information for use within a company.

c)

combining accounting knowledge with an expertise in management information system.

d)

reporting nancial information to external users.

142.

It refers to the firm’s ability to meet long-term obligations

a)

protability

b)

stability

c)

solvency

d)

liquidity

143.

Information about the performance of an entity is required in order to assess potential changes in the economic resources that it is likely to control in the future. This information is primarily provided in the

a)

cash ow statement.

b)

statement of retained earnings.

c)

statement of nancial position.

d)

statement of comprehensive income.

144.

The function of the certified public accountant that is most heavily relied on by the public as a whole is

a)

auditing

b)

cost accounting

c)

performing tax services

d)

internal auditing

145.

The body authorized by law to promulgate rules and regulations affecting the practice of accountancy in the Philippines

a)

Financial Reporting Standards Council

b)

Professional Regulatory Board of Accountancy

c)

Professional Regulation Commission

d)

Securities and Exchange Commission

146.

The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) publishes its standards in a series of pronouncements called

a)

International Accounting Standards

b)

Financial Reporting Standards

c)

International Financial Reporting Standards

d)

Statement of Financial Accounting Standards

147.

The branch of accounting that is concerned with providing information to present and potential creditors of an enterprise.

a)

auditing

b)

nancial accounting

c)

managerial accounting

d)

income tax accounting

148.

The elements directly related to the measurement of performance are

a)

income and expenses.

b)

assets, liabilities and equity.

c)

assets and liabilities.

d)

income, expenses and equity.

149.

A body of rules, policies, principles, standards of recognition and measurement methods which has been developed and is accepted by the members of the accounting profession and data-users is called:

a)

basic accounting assumptions

b)

qualitative characteristics

c)

qualitative objectives

d)

generally accepted accounting principles

150.

A statement that is taken for granted to be true without need of proof is a/an

a)

accounting principle.

b)

underlying assumption.

c)

qualitative objective.

d)

reporting constraint.

151.

A conceptual framework is

a)

a Philippine Financial Reporting Standards.

b)

an underlying accounting assumption.

c)

a theoretical foundation which guides the FRSC, preparers and users of nancial accounting information in the preparation and presentation of f/s.

d)

a financial statement.

152.

Which of the following is not a satisfactory statement of the balance sheet equation?

a)

Assets = Liabilities – Owner’s Equity

b)

Assets – Liabilities = Owner’s Equity

c)

Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity

d)

Assets – Owner’s Equity = Liabilities

153.

Which of the following is an example of an internal transaction?

a)

Purchased equipment.

b)

Rendered services to customers or clients.

c)

Used raw materials to produce the nished goods.

d)

Took a loan from the bank.

154.

The residual equity over the assets of a business enterprise is called

a)

owner’s equity.

b)

capital.

c)

net assets.

d)

all of the above.