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Midterm (Speech and Hearing Sciences)

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes the "Source-Filter Theory" of speech production?

a)

A. The brain generates the speech signal, which is then filtered by the ears.

b)

B. Sound is generated at the vocal folds (source) and shaped by the vocal tract (filter).

c)

C. Airflow from the lungs is directly shaped into speech sounds without a filter.

d)

D. Speech sounds are produced entirely by the articulators.

2.

What is the perceptual correlate of frequency?

a)

Loudness

b)

Timbre

c)

Pitch

d)

Duration

3.

What is the perceptual correlate of intensity?

a)

Pitch

b)

Timbre

c)

Duration

d)

Loudness

4.

What is the definition of Fundamental Frequency (Fo)?

a)

The overall intensity of a sound.

b)

The rate at which the vocal folds vibrate.

c)

The perceived quality of a sound.

d)

The resonant frequency of a cavity.

5.

What is the primary function of resonators in speech production?

a)

A. To initiate vocal fold vibration.

b)

B. To provide the power for speech.

c)

C. To filter and modify the sound produced by the vocal folds.

d)

D. To control articulation.

6.

Which of the following best describes a transducer?

a)

A device that amplifies sound.

b)

A device that changes one form of energy into another.

c)

A device that measures sound intensity.

d)

A device that produces sound waves.

7.

As the frequency of a sound wave increases, what happens to its wavelength?

a)

It decreases.

b)

It increases.

c)

It remains the same.

d)

It becomes zero.

8.

What type of scale is the decibel (dB) scale?

a)

Linear scale

b)

Absolute scale

c)

Ratio scale (logarithmic)

d)

Interval scale

9.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)?

a)

Irregular vibration patterns.

b)

Constant acceleration.

c)

Periodic and sinusoidal vibration.

d)

Damping over time.

10.

If the force applied to a surface remains constant, how does pressure change if the area over which the force is applied decreases?

a)

Pressure decreases.

b)

Pressure increases.

c)

Pressure remains the same.

d)

Pressure becomes zero.

11.

What is impedance in the context of sound propagation?

a)

The speed of sound in a medium.

b)

The opposition to the flow of energy.

c)

The ability of a medium to transmit sound.

d)

The intensity of a sound wave.

12.

What does the phase of a wave describe?

a)

A. Its amplitude.

b)

B. Its frequency.

c)

C. Its starting position in a cycle.

d)

D. Its speed.

13.

What occurs when two waves are in phase and combine, resulting in an increase in amplitude?

a)

Destructive interference

b)

Constructive interference

c)

Damping

d)

Reverberation

14.

According to the Inverse Square Law, if the distance from a sound source doubles, how much does the sound intensity decrease?

(a)  

15.

What is the primary acoustic cue for the perception of pitch?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Harmonics

c)

Fundamental frequency (Fo)

d)

Duration

16.

What is the primary biological function of the respiratory system?

a)

Producing speech sounds

b)

Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Regulating body temperature

d)

Filtering airborne particles

17.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY muscle of inspiration?

a)

Internal intercostals

b)

External obliques

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Rectus abdominis

18.

The mechanism that links the lungs to the thoracic wall, allowing them to move together, is called:

a)

Alveolar sacs

b)

Bronchial tree

c)

Pleural linkage

d)

Tracheal rings

19.

How does Boyle's Law apply to inspiration?

a)

As lung volume decreases, air pressure inside the lungs increases, causing air to flow in.

b)

As lung volume increases, air pressure inside the lungs decreases, causing air to flow in.

c)

As lung volume increases, air pressure outside the lungs decreases.

d)

As lung volume decreases, air pressure outside the lungs increases.

20.

What kind of process is quiet expiration at rest?

a)

Active, requiring muscle contraction.

b)

Passive, not requiring muscle contraction.

21.

What is the term for the volume of air inspired and expired during a single quiet breathing cycle?

a)

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

b)

Expiratory Reserve Volume

c)

Residual Volume

d)

Tidal Volume

22.

The maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation is known as:

a)

Total Lung Capacity

b)

Functional Residual Capacity

c)

Vital Capacity

d)

Inspiratory Capacity

23.

During speech, what maintains the relatively constant subglottal pressure needed for phonation?

a)

Passive recoil forces only.

b)

Active muscular forces of inspiration and expiration.

c)

Diaphragmatic relaxation only.

d)

Intercostal muscle relaxation only.

24.

How does the inspiratory phase of speech breathing typically compare to resting breathing?

a)

It is much longer.

b)

It is much shorter.

c)

It is about the same duration.

d)

It involves only the diaphragm.

25.

The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal quiet exhalation is called the:

a)

Residual Volume

b)

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

c)

Expiratory Reserve Volume

d)

Tidal Volume

26.

Clinical Assessment of Respiration Question: Which of the following is a common perceptual assessment used to evaluate respiratory support for speech?

a)

A. Spirometry

b)

B. Manometry

27.

A significantly reduced Maximum Phonation Time (MPT) for an adult might indicate:

a)

Excellent respiratory support.

b)

Optimal laryngeal function.

c)

Poor respiratory control or glottal inefficiency.

d)

Increased lung capacity.

28.

What does a spirometer primarily measure?

a)

Air pressure.

b)

Air volume and flow.

c)

Vocal fold vibration.

d)

Muscle strength.

29.

Which instrument is used to measure air pressure, often during sustained phonation or blowing tasks?

a)

Spirometer

b)

Manometer

c)

Plethysmograph

d)

Laryngoscope

30.

Which of these conditions is most likely to result in reduced respiratory support for speech due to compromised lung function?

a)

Vocal nodules

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

d)

Muscle Tension Dysphonia

31.

What is the primary biological function of the larynx?

a)

Producing speech sounds

b)

Protecting the airway during swallowing

c)

Regulating breath support

d)

Resonating the voice

32.

Which laryngeal cartilage forms the anterior and lateral walls of the larynx and is the largest?

a)

Arytenoid cartilage

b)

Cricoid cartilage

c)

Thyroid cartilage

d)

Epiglottis

33.

What layer of the vocal folds is primarily responsible for the mucosal wave and is highly pliable?

a)

A. Epithelium

b)

B. Superficial Lamina Propria

c)

C. Intermediate Lamina Propria

d)

D. Vocalis muscle

34.

What is the name for the space between the vocal folds?

a)

Rima vestibuli

b)

Ventricle

c)

Glottis

d)

Pyriform sinus

35.

Which muscles are primarily responsible for adducting (closing) the vocal folds?

a)

Posterior Cricoarytenoid

b)

Cricothyroid

c)

Lateral Cricoarytenoid and Interarytenoids

d)

Thyroarytenoid (Vocalis)

36.

Which muscle is the only abductor (opener) of the vocal folds?

a)

Thyroarytenoid

b)

Cricothyroid

c)

Posterior Cricoarytenoid

d)

Lateral Cricoarytenoid

37.

The Bernoulli Effect explains which part of vocal fold vibration?

a)

How air pressure builds up below the vocal folds.

b)

How the vocal folds are drawn back together after being blown apart.

c)

How muscles contract to close the vocal folds.

d)

How vocal fold length changes.

38.

What does the "myo-" part of the Myoelastic-Aerodynamic Theory refer to?

a)

Muscle activity that brings the vocal folds together.

b)

The elastic recoil of the vocal folds.

c)

The airflow from the lungs.

d)

The neural impulses to the larynx.

39.

Which vocal register is characterized by the lowest fundamental frequency and a "creaky" sound?

a)

Falsetto

b)

Modal

c)

Vocal Fry (Pulse)

d)

Whistle

40.

What is the primary muscle responsible for increasing vocal pitch by lengthening and tensing the vocal folds?

a)

Lateral Cricoarytenoid

b)

Posterior Cricoarytenoid

c)

Cricothyroid

d)

Thyroarytenoid (Vocalis)

41.

What is a primary physiological mechanism for increasing vocal intensity (loudness)?

a)

A. Decreasing subglottal pressure.

b)

B. Decreasing vocal fold adduction.

c)

C. Increasing subglottal pressure and vocal fold adduction.

d)

D. Increasing vocal fold length.

42.

Which category of voice disorders involves physical changes to the laryngeal tissue, such as nodules or polyps?

a)

Functional voice disorders

b)

Organic voice disorders

c)

Neurological voice disorders

d)

Psychogenic voice disorders

43.

Which of the following is considered a good voice hygiene practice?

a)

Habitual throat clearing

b)

Drinking plenty of water

c)

Excessive yelling

d)

Whispering for prolonged periods

44.

The goal of behavioral voice therapy is primarily to:

a)

Medically treat laryngeal pathologies.

b)

Change the client's maladaptive vocal behaviors.

c)

Surgically remove vocal fold lesions.

d)

Prescribe medication for voice symptoms.

45.

Which therapy technique focuses on reducing musculoskeletal tension in the laryngeal area?

a)

Confidential Voice

b)

Vocal Function Exercises

c)

Laryngeal massage (Circumlaryngeal massage)

d)

Resonant Voice Therapy

46.

Resonant Voice Therapy aims to maximize vocal economy and achieve strong, clear voice with least effort by focusing on:

a)

Hard glottal attacks.

b)

Vibratory sensations in the face/mouth.

47.

What type of medical management might be used for large vocal fold polyps that do not respond to voice therapy?

a)

Voice rest only

b)

Oral antibiotics

c)

Phonosurgery

d)

Anti-reflux medication

48.

Which condition often causes a breathy, weak voice due to vocal fold paralysis?

a)

Vocal nodules

b)

Laryngitis

c)

Unilateral vocal fold paralysis

d)

Reinke's edema

49.

What is an advantage of indirect laryngoscopy (e.g., using a mirror or rigid endoscope) for voice assessment?

a)

Allows for direct visualization of subglottal structures.

b)

Provides a real-time, dynamic view of vocal fold vibration.

c)

Is non-invasive and provides a quick overview.

d)

Can be performed by anyone without specialized training.

50.

What special technique does stroboscopy use to create the optical illusion of slow-motion vocal fold vibration?

a)

High-speed video recording.

b)

Continuous light source.

c)

Pulsed light synchronized with vocal fold vibration.

d)

Ultrasound imaging.

51.

The vocal tract is best described as what type of resonator?

a)

Closed tube resonator

b)

Open tube resonator

c)

Quarter-wave resonator

d)

Helmholtz resonator

52.

What are formants in the context of vowel production?

a)

The fundamental frequency of the vocal folds.

b)

The harmonics produced by the vocal folds.

c)

Resonant frequencies of the vocal tract.

d)

The intensity of the speech signal.

53.

How does the first formant (F1) frequency relate to tongue height for vowel production?

a)

A. F1 is high for high vowels.

b)

B. F1 is low for low vowels.

c)

C. F1 is high for low vowels.

d)

D. F1 is unrelated to tongue height.

54.

How does the second formant (F2) frequency relate to tongue advancement for vowel production?

a)

F2 is high for back vowels.

b)

F2 is low for front vowels.

c)

F2 is high for front vowels.

d)

F2 is unrelated to tongue advancement.

55.

Which of the following is NOT typically considered a primary articulator?

a)

A. Tongue

b)

B. Lips

c)

C. Pharynx

d)

D. Lungs

56.

What is the primary function of the oral cavity in speech production?

a)

To produce vocal fold vibration.

b)

To provide respiratory support.

c)

To act as the main resonator and articulate most speech sounds.

d)

To filter nasal sounds.

57.

Which structure is responsible for opening and closing the velopharyngeal port?

a)

Hard palate

b)

Alveolar ridge

c)

Velum (soft palate)

d)

Pharyngeal constrictor muscles only

58.

What unique acoustic characteristic is associated with nasal sounds (e.g., /m/, /n/, /ŋ/)?

a)

Elevated F1 frequency.

b)

Presence of antiformants (or nasal murmurs).

c)

Very short duration.

d)

High intensity bursts.

59.

On a wideband spectrogram, what do the dark horizontal bands represent?

a)

A. Voiceless frication.

b)

B. Formants (resonant frequencies).

c)

C. Individual vocal fold vibrations.

d)

D. Silent gaps.

60.

What does a "vowel space" plot typically show?

a)

The intensity of different vowels.

b)

The duration of vowels.

c)

The relationship between F1 and F2 frequencies for different vowels.

d)

The fundamental frequency range of a speaker.

61.

Which consonant sound is produced using both lips?

a)

/t/ (as in 'top')

b)

/f/ (as in 'fan')

c)

/b/ (as in 'bat')

d)

/k/ (as in 'cat')

62.

Which of the following describes the manner of articulation for a fricative sound?

a)

Complete closure of the vocal tract.

b)

Continuous turbulent airflow through a narrow constriction.

c)

Airflow directed through the nasal cavity.

d)

A gradual opening of the vocal tract.

63.

When the articulation of a sound is influenced by a following sound, this is known as:

a)

Carryover coarticulation

b)

Anticipatory coarticulation

c)

Simultaneous coarticulation

d)

Retroactive coarticulation

64.

Which acoustic feature is characteristic of a stop consonant, typically appearing as a vertical spike on a spectrogram after a silent gap?

a)

Formant transition

b)

Nasal murmur

c)

Release burst

d)

Voicing bar

65.

If a structure vibrates in response to an external force at or near its natural frequency, this is an example of:

a)

Forced vibration

b)

Mechanical resonance

c)

Sympathetic resonance

d)

All of the above

66.

To produce sound:

a)

something must vibrate

b)

something must be displaced from rest

c)

all of the above

d)

the medium surrounding a vibrating structure must be disturbed

67.

The force that carries a vibrating object beyond the point of rest is

a)

displacement

b)

elasticity

c)

gravity

d)

inertia

68.

The three forces that interact to keep molecules swinging back and forth around their equilibrium positions before they settle down again are

a)

friction, damping, simple harmonic motion

b)

elasticity, inertia, and friction

c)

driving pressure, elasticity, and inertia

d)

elasticity, friction and propagation

69.

What is the frequency and period of a tuning fork vibrating at 500 cycles per second

a)

F=250 Hz; t=0.002s

b)

F=250 Hz; t=0.004s

c)

F=250 Hz; t=0.002s

d)

F=250 Hz; t=0.004s

70.

The decibel scale is a linear scale that compares any target sounds with a standard reference sounds

a)

True

b)

False

71.

The human auditory system responds more favorbly to sounds in the midrange of frequencies than those that are high or low

a)

True

b)

False

72.

All of the following influence the frequency of a vibrating object EXCEPT

a)

Density

b)

Pitch

c)

Length

d)

Tension

73.

Compression occurs when

a)

Air molecules collide, creating an area of positive pressure

b)

Air molecules return to their equilibrium position

c)

Air molecules collide, creating an area of negative pressure

d)

Air molecules overshoot their equilibrium postion

74.

Increasing the density of a vibrating object will decrease its rate of vibration

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The filtering process that cleans air going into the lungs is achieved by

a)

Cartilaginous structure of the bronchi

b)

Tracheal flexibility

c)

Surfactant within the alveoli of the lungs

d)

Cilia present in the tracheal epithelium

76.

Internal Intercostals

a)

muscles of exhalation

b)

muscles of inhalation

c)

maximum exhale after inhale

d)

amount of air exhaled in normal, at rest breathing

77.

External intercostals

a)

muscles of exhalation

b)

muscles of inhalation

c)

maximum exhale after inhale

d)

amount of air exhaled in normal, at rest breathing

78.

Vital Capacity

a)

muscles of exhalation

b)

muscles of inhalation

c)

maximum exhale after inhale

d)

amount of air exhaled in normal, at rest breathing

79.

Tidal Volume

a)

muscles of exhalation

b)

muscles of inhalation

c)

maximum exhale after inhale

d)

amount of air exhaled in normal, at rest breathing

80.

The pressure within the plural cavity is normally positive

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Singers use expiration reserve volume to sustain long phrases without replenishing air

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which statment is true of resting expiratory level?

a)

State of equilibrium in the respiratory system

b)

Moment when alveolar pressure equals atmospheric pressure

c)

All of the above

d)

Occurs at the end of every exhalation

83.

Residual air is air that cannot be exhaled

a)

True

b)

False

84.

SLPs measure vital capacity to assess the potential power source for speech

a)

True

b)

False

85.

If the vital capacity is below 80% of the level predicted for a patient's age, gender, size, and race the SLP should work on increasing the vital capacity before working on speech

a)

True

b)

False

86.

It is not possible to exceed the vital capacity level that is predicted for someone your age, size, gender, and race

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Diseases that weaken the respiratory muscles usually result in a louder than usual voice

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Adequate breathing for speech may be compromised due to which of the following

a)

All of the above

b)

Poor posture

c)

Central nervous system damage

d)

Impaired function of the respiratory muscles

89.

When inhaling to perform a forced vital capacity, you should contract your abdominal muscles

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Patients with Parkinson's disease may present with speech breathing difficulties primarily due to

a)

Muscle atrophy

b)

All of the above

c)

Muscle rigidty

d)

Lack of muscle coordination

91.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a)

The positioning of the chest wall results in a particular volume of air in the lungs.

b)

It is possible to measure one parameter of respiration and make inferences about another parameter from that information.

c)

The volume of air in the lungs directly influences the pressure in the abdomen.

d)

Lung volume, pressures and flows, and chest wall positioning are closely related to each other.

92.

Manometers are useful for determining

a)

total amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation

b)

length of a time a person can hold their breath

c)

amount of pressure a person can generate and sustain for a period of time

d)

how efficiently a person integrates speech with breathing

93.

Vocal folds are adducted at rest

a)

True

b)

False

94.

If jitter is increased

a)

pitch is increase

b)

amplitude is increased

c)

hoarseness is increased

d)

variability is increased

95.

Harmonic frequencies

a)

Whole number multiples of the formant freqency

b)

A characteristic of source vibration is

c)

The same as resonant frequency

d)

Determined by the size of the cavities

96.

What would be the first harmonic be for a person who has F0 of 125 Hz

a)

250 Hz

b)

500 Hz

c)

125 Hz

d)

300 Hz

97.

_____ facilitate swallowing by pulling the larynx up and forward

a)

Intrinsic laryngeal muscles

b)

Thyriod Cartilage

c)

Extrinsic laryngeal muscles

d)

Aryepiglottic folds

98.

What is the primary function of the cricothyriod joint?

a)

Permits adduction

b)

Regulates fundamental frequency by elongating and shortening the vocal folds

c)

A and B

d)

Permits abduction

99.

The Bernoulli principle helps to explain the opening motion of the vocal folds

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The vocal folds consist of six layers, including the thyroaryteniod muscle, four layers of muscos membrane, and layer of epithelium

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Which of the following statments describes an electroglottograph

a)

All of the above

b)

It depends upon the changing resistance to the flow of air pressure between the vocal folds

c)

It measures subglottal pressure

d)

It generates a waveform that corresponds to vocal fold movement

102.

The peaks on an Lx waveform make it possible to determine a speakers

a)

Jitter and shimmer level

b)

Fundamental frequencies

c)

Subglottal pressure

d)

Amplitude

103.

Which of the following acoustic characteristics of voice is the strongest indicator of gender identification in humans

a)

Average amplitude

b)

Maximum phonational frequency range

c)

Dynamic range

d)

Fundamental frequency

104.

For patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis, what is the ultimate goal of treatment methods involving vocal fold injection, vocal fold medialization thyroplasty, and/or arytenoid adduction

a)

Increasing glottal closure

b)

Greater intonational range

c)

Greater amplitude in connected speech

d)

Increasing frequency variability

105.

An Lx waveform represents which of the following

a)

Increases and decreases in amplitude

b)

Increases and decreases in electrical activity

c)

Increases and decreases in air pressure

d)

Increases and decreases in subglottal

106.

A disadvantage of stroboscopy is

a)

Does not capture a snapshot of the vocal fold

b)

Requires that the patient undergo general anesthesia

c)

Irregular vocal fold vibration cannot be seen

d)

Inability to visualize the structure and function of the larynx

107.

Raising the tongue during phonation will

a)

Increase the second formant frequency

b)

Decrease the first formant frequency

c)

Decrease the first harmonic frequency

d)

Increased fundamental frequency

108.

What is one additional cue that listeners use to accurately identify vowels using formant frequencies

a)

Fundamental frequency changes during vowel production

b)

Periodic frequency changes during vowel production

c)

Harmonic frequency changes during vowel production

d)

Formant frequency changes during vowel production

109.

As the tongue moves foward

a)

The first formant decreases in frequency

b)

The second formant raises in frequency

c)

The second formant decreases in frequency

d)

The first formant raises in frequency

110.

Problems with velopharyngeal function can result in air escaping through the nasal cavities rather than through the oral cavity during the production of oral sounds. The resulting speech production is characterized by

a)

Insufficient nasal resonance

b)

Hyponasality

c)

Hypernasality

d)

Velopharyngeal closure

111.

Sonorants:

a)

Nasals, glides, and liquids

b)

Produced when lips close completely

c)

Nasals, glides, and liquids and made with a less constricted vocal tract

d)

Made with a less constricted vocal tract

112.

One of the major disadvantages of electropalatography is

a)

It doesn't provide instant feedback

b)

It does not provide real time visual display

c)

It doesn't visualize mid and low vowels

d)

It does not visualize high vowels

113.

Showing spectrograms to a child producing a target sound has the advantage of providing instant visual feedback and is a beneficial therapeutic technique. 

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Which of the following can affect a speaker’s intelligibility?

a)

All of the above

b)

Rate of speech

c)

Loudness, pitch, and prosody

d)

Degree of precision of articulation

115.

Intelligibility is often measured perceptually, which provides detailed information about a speaker’s underlying articulatory patterns

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Which of the following is true of phonological processes?

a)

They affect children from birth to two years of age.

b)

They may be present in typically developing children.

c)

they often result from hearing impairments.

d)

They cannot be treated using kinematic measures.

117.

Why are stops, fricatives and affricates particularly difficult to produce for individuals with cleft palate?

 

a)

These phonemes require tongue-palate contact in order to be produced.

b)

These phonemes require intricate and precise tongue movement

c)

These phonemes require a high degree of neuromuscular control.

d)

These phonemes require a strong buildup of oral pressure.

118.

Individuals with dysarthria often exhibit difficulty with the timing of their articulatory movements.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

A higher than normal F2 frequency indicates that the tongue is not achieving the appropriate amount of tongue height for that phoneme.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

All of the following are safe, non-invasive procedures for observing articulatory movement EXCEPT

a)

Glossometry

b)

Cineradiography

c)

Electropalatography

d)

Electromagnetic articulography

121.

Individuals with hearing loss typically exhibit cul-de-sac resonance. 

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of the Eustachian tube?

a)

It is normally open, except during a yawn or swallow.

b)

It keeps the middle ear space ventilated.

c)

It runs from the nasopharynx into the middle ear.

 

d)

It aids in equalizing pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere.

 

123.

Which of the following statements is true about the cochlea?

a)

It transduces air pressures into mechanical energy

b)

It contains the organ of Corti.

c)

It is important in regulating balance.

 

d)

It aids in equalizing air pressure within the tympanic cavity.

124.

Contextual and linguistic information serve to enhance speech perception and the decoding of an acoustic signal into meaningful units.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

Which of the following statements (if any) is NOT true about speech perception of individuals with hearing loss? 

 

a)

Many adults with hearing impairment are able to discriminate between vowels.

b)

Many children with hearing impairment have difficulty in discriminating between vowels.

c)

 

All the above statements are true.

d)

Individuals with high frequency losses typically have difficulty identifying fricatives.

126.

An individual with this audiogram will have trouble discriminating the vowels /u/ and /i/. 

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Children with language-learning difficulties

a)

Require a longer voice onset time to differentiate voiced from voiceless stops.

b)

Present with difficulties processing rapid acoustic signals.

c)

All of the above.

d)

Demonstrate subtle delays in perceptual processing.

128.

Children with a functional articulation disorder

a)

Rarely have underlying speech perception difficulties.

b)

Have speech perception difficulties with /w/ and /r/ only.

c)

May or may not have underlying speech perception difficulties

d)

Frequently have underlying speech perception difficulties.

129.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of otitis media? 

a)

It results in a mixed hearing loss.

b)

It can result from an upper respiratory infection.

c)

 

It can result from fluid build-up in the middle ear.

d)

It is common in young children.

130.

Training on suprasegmental aspects of speech for cochlear implant users can help to increase phoneme and word recognition. 

a)

True

b)

False

131.

Auditory discrimination of small acoustic differences 

a)

s not related to language learning.

b)

Is equally as important for learning language in typical and language-learning disabled children.

c)

s more important for learning language in children with language problems.

d)

Is more important for learning language in typically developing children.

132.

Which of the following statements is true about the central nervous system? 

a)

It is involved in aspects of information processing, including planning, organization, memory and language.

b)

It transmits and receives nerve impulses to and from muscles and glands in the body.

c)

All of the above statements are true

d)

It is made up of 12 pairs of cranial and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

133.

Cerebrospinal fluid

a)

All of the above.

 

b)

Circulates around the brain and spinal cord, creating a shock-absorbing system.

c)

Contains proteins and glucose that provide energy for cell function.

d)

Reduces the weight of the brain from 1400g in air to 45g in fluid.

134.

The brain stem is the point of origin for the cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II).

a)

True

b)

False

135.

The brain is divided into four major lobes by way of the

a)

Third and fourth ventricles.

b)

Sulci and gyri.

c)

Longitudinal cerebral fissure and corpus callosum.

d)

Central sulcus and lateral fissure.

136.

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for language expression, reasoning, and problem solving?

a)

Parietal

b)

Occipital

c)

 

Frontal lobe

d)

Temporal

137.

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the subdural space, between the dura mater and arachnoid mater.

a)

 

True

b)

 

False

138.

Damage to the basal nuclei may result in

a)

Decreased muscle tone and flaccidity

b)

 

Excessive involuntary movements

c)

Tics and tremors & Excessive involuntary movements

d)

 

Tics and tremors

139.

The trigeminal nerve

a)

Contains only a motor branch.

b)

Supplies nerve impulses to the muscles of facial expression.

c)

Is made up of the ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular branches.

d)

Innervates the muscles of the soft palate and the pharynx.

140.

The cranial nerve that plays a vital role in heart rate, endocrine function, digestion and phonation is 

a)

CN X

b)

 

CN VII

c)

 

CN IX

d)

 

CN XII

141.

An axon extends from the cell body and transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body.

a)

True

b)

False

142.

Longitudinal studies completed on post-stroke patients are best monitored with

a)

PET

b)

fMRI

c)

SPECT

d)

TMS

143.

Individuals who stutter have shown

a)

Extensive hyperactivity of the motor system.

b)

Increased activity in the striatum and globus pallidus.

c)

None of the above.

 

d)

Decreased activity in the supplementary motor area.

144.

Brain imaging has been used to identify patients with possible PD before clinical symptoms have appeared.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

 PET has been useful in determining appropriate drug therapy for patients with multiple sclerosis.

a)

True

b)

False

146.

Which of the following statements best describes a model?

a)

A statement about a particular phenomenon, incorporating the underlying principles and assumptions.

b)

A simplification of a system that can be manipulated in a controlled manner.

c)

Explains observed data and can be used to make predictions about related events.

d)

Often used to institute changes in clinical practice.

147.

Theories are simplifications of a system or any of the system’s parts.

a)

 

True

b)

 

False

148.

According to the Motor theory

a)

Speakers focus on acoustic-phonetic features to supplement other linguistic information.

b)

Speakers rely on the syllabic structure of speech to perceive meaningful information.

c)

Individuals perceive speech because they have experience producing speech sounds.

d)

All of the above.

149.

According to acoustic-auditory models, the goal of speech production is the appropriate acoustic output, and the articulatory movements made to achieve the acoustic output can vary. 

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Research showing that observing speech-related lip movements or listening to speech increases the excitability of motor units in the left hemisphere supports 

a)

Action theory

b)

The DIVA model

c)

Feedback and feedforward

d)

Motor theory

151.

All of the following statements are true of fMRI EXCEPT

a)

It is safe and noninvasive.

b)

It can be used to treat selected psychiatric disorders.

c)

It can assess how brain function changes over time.

d)

It can be used in conjunction with MRI.