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Cyber Security Final

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 2hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1.1 Service Models: What does PaaS stand for and what is provided?

a)

Platform as a Service.

Provided: Hardware, Operating System, and necessary tools to consumers.

b)

Platform as a Service.

Provided: Responsibility for hardware support.

c)

Product as a Service.

Provided: Hardware, Operating System, and necessary tools to consumers.

d)

Software as a Service.

Provided: Responsibility for installing, configuring, maintaining, patching, and upgrading the software.

2.

1.1 Service Models: Choose the best possible term for the description:

The CSP retains responsibility for installing, configuring, maintaining, patching, and upgrading the software.

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

Xaas

3.

1.1 Service Models: Choose the best possible term for the description:

Offloads responsibility for hardware support to the CSP

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

Iaas

d)

Xass

4.

1.1 Deployment Models: Choose the best term for the definition:

Services only to a single organization.

a)

Private

b)

Public

c)

Hybrid

d)

Community

5.

1.1 Deployment Models: Choose the best term for the definition:

CSP owns the cloud deployment and allocates its resources to external, unaffiliated customers. Those customers share the cloud’s resources without knowing precisely where their data is in relation to that of any other organization.

a)

Private

b)

Public

c)

Hybrid

d)

Community

6.

1.1 Deployment Models: Choose the best term for the definition:

Combination of two or more of the cloud deployments.

a)

Private

b)

Public

c)

Hybrid

d)

Community

7.

1.1 Characteristics: Choose the best term for the definition:

Consumers can provision resources as needed and automatically

a)

Broad network access

b)

Resource pooling

c)

On-demand self-service

d)

Rapid elasticity

8.

1.1 Characteristics: Choose the best term for the definition:

Services are available across the network from commonly available clients.

a)

Broad network access

b)

On-demand self-service

c)

Rapid elasticity

d)

Measured service

9.

1.1 Characteristics: Choose the best term for the definition:

Resources are provisioned and released to adjust for changes in demand and consumption. This process may be automatic or manual.

a)

Resource pooling

b)

Measured service

c)

Broad network access

d)

Rapid elasticity

10.

1.1 Characteristics: What is the pay-as-you-go model

a)

Organizations can pay for what they need--no more and no less.

b)

Organizations pay a subscription.

c)

Organizations only pay once.

d)

Organizations pay a different amount every day.

11.

1.1 Characteristics: Choose the best description for Scalability:

a)

Able to grow and shrink.

b)

Able to grow.

c)

Able to shrink.

d)

None of the above.

12.

1.1 Characteristics: Choose the best description for Availability:

a)

The current state of the software being able to be used.

b)

The amount of people on the software.

c)

The amount of people the software can handle.

d)

The down time of the software.

13.

1.1 Shared Responsibility Model: Choose the best description for Shared Responsibility:

a)

CSP is responsible for the security of the cloud. The consumer is responsible for the security in the cloud.

b)

CSP is responsible for the security in the cloud. The consumer is responsible for the security of the cloud.

c)

CSP is responsible for all security.

d)

The consumer is responsible for all security.

14.

1.3 Storage Features: Choose the best term for the definition:

Allows for efficient storage and efficient network transfer of data. Encodes data in a manner that consumes less storage capacity and less network bandwidth.

a)

Compression

b)

Deduplication

c)

Capacity on Demand

15.

1.3 Storage Features: Choose the best term for the definition:

A storage feature that cloud storage providers may make available. Removes duplicate files (or file blocks) on the storage medium, leaving a single copy of the particular piece of information and pointers to that data in all of the previously duplicate locations.

a)

Compression

b)

Deduplication

c)

Capacity on Demand

16.

1.3 Storage Features: Choose the best term for the definition:

Capacity is available when needed.

a)

Compression

b)

Deduplication

c)

Capacity on Demand

17.

1.3 Storage Characteristics: Choose the lowest option for Performance:

a)

Standard storage

b)

Standard_IA

c)

Glacier

18.

1.3 Storage Characteristics: Choose the best definition for hot vs cold storage (choose two):

a)

Hot: Solutions for data that must be accessed very quickly.

b)

Cold: Solutions for data that is rarely used or that can acceptably be accessed much more slowly.

c)

Hot: Solutions for data that is rarely used or that can acceptably be accessed much more slowly.

d)

Cold: Solutions for data that must be accessed very quickly.

19.

1.3 Storage Types: Choose the best term for the definition:

Relies on metadata describing the stored content to retrieve and reassemble the data for the user. It is very scalable and very efficient, but it has drawbacks. It is easier to meter. Consumers pay for the quantity of storage tat they use.

a)

Object Storage

b)

File Storage

c)

Block Storage

20.

1.3 Storage Types: Choose the best term for the definition:

It is easy to navigate, is very flexible for storing virtually any kind of datat, and has been used for decades. Can be difficult to expand.

a)

Object Storage

b)

File Storage

c)

Block Storage

21.

1.3 Storage Types: Choose the best term for the definition:

Divides the stored data into blocks. The blocks can be stored across different media. When data is called by the user, the blocks are reassembled and provided to the user. It is very efficient and scalable and is relatively easy to manage.

a)

Object Storage

b)

File Storage

c)

Block Storage

22.

1.3 Software-Defined Storage: Choose the best definition for Software-Defined Storage:

a)

It is based on a Policy based aproach.

b)

It is based on Hardware.

c)

It is based on Software.

23.

1.3 Content Delivery Network: Choose the best definition for the term Content Delivery Network:

a)

Disperse content geographically and then serve that content to consumers from the nearest provider.

b)

Disperse content based on population and then serve that content to consumers.

24.

1.4 Redundancy: Select all instances of Redundancy:

a)

A back up of files.

b)

A back up of a server.

c)

Creating a new server with no data.

d)

Keeping only one copy of something for security.

25.

1.4 High Availability: True or False:

High availability refers to a measure of downtime for a given service.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

1.4 Disaster Recovery: True of False:

Disaster Recovery refers to having more than one resource available in the event of the failure of one resource. Redundancy avoids a single point of failure.

a)

True

b)

False

Disaster Recovery refers to the ability to restore services in the event of a failure. The “disaster” may be as small as a single server failure or as large as a major natural catastrophe.

27.

1.4 Recovery Objectives: Answer with the correct Acronym for the definition:

Specifies a quantity of time between the most recent backup of data and the disaster. It is an understanding of how much data the organization can acceptably lose.

(a)  

28.

1.4 Recovery Objectives: Answer with the correct Acronym for the definition:

How quickly recovery needs to occur to maintain business continuity. In other words, how long can the business continue to function in the event of a disaster. 

(a)  

29.

2.1 Current and Future Requirements: Choose all Current requirements based on the following situation:

A company currently services 5 companies. However it expects to grow to 15 companies. The same company currently runs 2 websites but expects to run 5 by the end of year.

a)

Virtual Machines for 5 companies.

b)

Virtual Machines for 15 companies.

c)

5 Website domains.

d)

2 Website domains.

30.

2.1 Current and Future Requirements: Choose all Future requirements based on the following situation:

A company currently services 5 companies. However it expects to grow to 15 companies. The same company currently runs 2 websites but expects to run 5 by the end of year.

a)

Virtual Machines for 5 companies.

b)

Virtual Machines for 15 companies.

c)

5 Website Domains.

d)

2 Website Domains.

31.

2.1 Baseline: Choose all correct answers:

What is the baseline for security:

a)

Network Security

b)

Physical Security

c)

Maintain Secure Endpoints

d)

Monitor Access to Information Systems

32.

2.1 Feasibility Study: Choose the best answer(s):

When is a feasibility study needed for a company:

a)

Whenever a security gap if found.

b)

Whenever a new feature is implemented.

c)

After a cyber attack.

d)

When the manager asks for one.

33.

2.1 Gap Analysis: Choose if the following is a business gap analysis of a technical gap analysis:

Compares its current performance to its performance expectations or goals.

a)

Business

b)

Technical

34.

2.1 Gap Analysis: Choose if the following is a business gap analysis of a technical gap analysis:

The process of comparing current tools and technology against the desired state, then building a plan for how you will bridge the gap.

a)

Buisness

b)

Technical

35.

2.1 Reporting: Based on the following report choose the compute cost(s):

There are 10 licensed virtual machines. They are all running 24 hours a day. Each virtual machine has 200 GB of storage. They all run AWS and are connected to the internet.

a)

The processor time and ram utilization. The cost of licensing for the virtual machines.

b)

The cost of licensing for the virtual machines.

c)

The virtual machines storage.

d)

The software and internet for the virtual machines.

36.

2.1 Reporting: Based on the following report choose the storage cost(s):

There are 10 licensed virtual machines. They are all running 24 hours a day. Each virtual machine has 200 GB of storage. They all run AWS and are connected to the internet.

a)

The processor time and ram utilization for the virtual machines.

b)

The cost of licensing for the virtual machines

c)

The virtual machines storage.

d)

The software and internet for the virtual machines.

37.

2.1 Reporting: Based on the following report choose the network cost(s):

There are 10 licensed virtual machines. They are all running 24 hours a day. Each virtual machine has 200 GB of storage. They all run AWS and are connected to the internet.

a)

The processer time and ram utilization for the virtual machines.

b)

The cost of licensing for the virtual machines.

c)

The virtual machines storage.

d)

The software and internet for the virtual machines.

38.

2.1 Benchmarks: Does the following situation properly use a benchmark: True or false:

A business has an update coming. However another business and their reviews went down. The business chooses not to release the update.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

2.1 Documentation and Diagrams: Choose types of diagrams:

a)

Request for Information

b)

Request for Proposal

c)

Request for Quote

d)

Statement of Work

40.

2.1 Key Stakeholders: True or False: These are some of the roles for stakeholders:

Governance

Operations

Business Management

Information Technology

a)

True

b)

False

41.

2.1 Point of Contact: What is a point of contact:

a)

Talking to a freind.

b)

Where two-way communication happens between the stakeholders and the cloud team.

c)

Employees talking at lunch.

d)

The Cloud Team doing what they want.

42.

2.2 Capital Expenditures: Choose all capital expenditures.

a)

Purchase of property.

b)

Computers

c)

Licensing

d)

Cloud payments

43.

2.2 Operating Expenditures: Choose all operating expenditures:

a)

Rent

b)

Insurance

c)

Payroll

d)

Land

44.

2.2 Variable vs. Fixed Costs: True or False:

Labor is a variable cost and hardware is a fixed cost.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

2.2 Licensing models: What does BYOL

a)

Bring your own loops.

b)

Bring your own license.

c)

Bring your own lizard.

d)

Buy your own license.

46.

2.2 Licensing models: What is a subscription license:

a)

You pay for a license once.

b)

You pay yearly or monthly.

c)

You pay once your done using it.

d)

You pay for nothing but equipment.

47.

2.2 Contracts: Why is it important to review contracts:

a)

They can scam you.

b)

Just for fun.

c)

To get the best deal.

d)

Certain areas may not fit your needs and need to be challenged.

48.

2.2 Billing: True or False:

There are lots of unexpected costs that can affect billing such as uptime of virtual machines while not in use.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

2.2 Request for Information: Select all correct choices:

A Request for Information gathers written documentation regarding the:

a)

Sevices

b)

Capabilites

c)

Potential Costs

d)

Support and Training Services

50.

2.2 Human Capital: True or False:

Training: There are man difference between traditional deployments and cloud deployments.

Professional Development: Employees must have professional development due to the constant update of services.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

2.3 Professional Services: Select the correct definition for Time to Market:

a)

The quantity of time between when a service or product is imagined and when it is available to the consumer.

b)

The amount of time something takes to load.

c)

The time it takes to buy something.

52.

2.3 Professional Services: True or False:

Skill Availability is what skills the vendor's employees can make available to you. This can be found with Request for Quote and Request for Proposal documents.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

2.3 Professional Services: True or False: Cloud support technicians likely may have just these skills:

Cloud design

Cloud migration

Cloud security

Virtual machine design and support

Network configuration

An understanding of the CSP’s offerings

a)

True

b)

False

They may be specialized for certain offerings(storage, database configurations, e-commerce) as well.

54.

2.3 Professional Services: What do Managed Services allow your organization to do (Select Two):

a)

They reduce operating expenditures.

b)

They manage your business for you.

c)

They allow you to do whatever you want.

d)

To outsource cloud design, migration, deployment, and management solutions.

55.

2.3 Statement of Work (SOW): True or False:

A Statement of Work (SOW) is a detailed project management document that clearly defines all aspects of a given project. It sets all expectations for considerations such as the project scope, the schedule, payment information, and criteria for success.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

2.3 Service Level Agreements (SLAs): True or False:

Service Level Agreements do not specify support information.

a)

True

b)

False

Service Level Agreements (SLAs) itemize and formalize vendor support. The SLA will specify support information; details about response times, uptime guarantees, penalties for failure, etc.

57.

2.3 Evaluations: True or False:

The pilot program is a small-scale project to test logistics, prove the value of the migration, and reveal any weaknesses in the deployment. Your cloud assessment will help you decide on the specific service or application to use for the pilot program.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

2.3 Evaluations: How is value defined:

Proof of value establishes whether the deployment provides value to the business.

a)

Value is defined as the amount of time services are used.

b)

Value can be defined as a cost savings, a time savings, extended or additional services that were previously unavailable, or other criteria that have meaning to your organization.

59.

2.3 Evaluations: True or False:

Proof of concept confirms that the functionality of the deployment is successful.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

2.3 Evaluations: True or False:

Success criteria allow you to decide that a project met its objectives. The success criteria are defined in a series of key performance indicators (KPI) that are usually related to the organization’s overall strategy. Measuring whether or not these KPIs were satisfied helps to determine the success (or failure).

a)

True

b)

False

61.

2.3 Open-Source vs. Proprietary: True or False:

Open-Source: Open-source software can be modified by the consumer. The source code that makes up the service, application, or operating system is open to be viewed and changed. This permits a business to modify the code to better fit its own specific needs.

Proprietary: Proprietary cloud solutions are not necessarily a poor choice. When CSPs retain full control over the code that makes up their software, there can be greater reliability, fewer operations support costs, and more rigorously tested Application Programming Interfaces (APIs).

a)

True

b)

False

62.

3.3 Chargebacks: True or false:

Chargebacks are a refund.

a)

True

b)

False

Chargebacks bill business units for the IT services that they consume.

63.

3.3 Instances: True or False:

Reserved instances are hardware profiles that your organization commits to, usually for a period of one to three years. CSPs offer significant discounts for such commitments. The instance utilization is predictable and relatively steady.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

3.3 Instances: True or False:

Spot instances are hardware profiles that may be currently unused by the cloud service provider’s other customers and are then made available to your organization at a significant discount. These instances may not always be available to you, but when they are, they can save a great deal of money. Spot instances can be very cost-effective when your compute needs are flexible.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

3.3 License Quantity: True or False:

Licenses can differ in the amount of people/things they cover.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

1.2 True or False (Direct Connections): Cloud service providers can also help your organization establish a direct network connection between a CSP data center and your premise. This connection is dedicated to your organization, and it supports much higher levels of traffic. Data is encrypted for confidentiality.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

1.2 True or False (VPN): VPNs encrypt network traffic for confidentiality.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

1.2 (Common access types): Which corelates to RDP?

a)

Encrypts network administration traffic.

b)

Encrypts network administration traffic and provides access to a Windows desktop.

c)

Encrypts web traffic. 

69.

1.2 (Common access types): Which corelates to SSH?

a)

Encrypts network administration traffic.

b)

Encrypts network administration traffic and provides access to a Windows desktop.

c)

Encrypts web traffic.

70.

1.2 (Common access types): Which corelates to HTTPS?

a)

Encrypts network administration traffic.

b)

Encrypts network administration traffic and provides access to a Windows desktop.

c)

Encrypts web traffic.

71.

1.2: (a)   is a distributed, hierarchical database that relates these easy-to-remember names with difficult-to-remember IP addresses.

72.

1.2: A (a)   filters traffic, making decisions to forward the traffic or drop it.

73.

1.2: (a)   permits administrators to manage networking in a more dynamic and flexible manner than traditional hardware-based networking.

74.

1.2 True or False: Load Balancing distributes network traffic equally across a network.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

2.4: The (a)   approach means that a user must only authenticate once to the system and then is granted whatever levels of access are defined.

76.

2.4:

What you know (passwords)

What you have (smart card or other token)

Who you are (biometrics such as fingerprints)

(a)   combines two or more of the above authentication types.

77.

2.4: (a)   allows users to log in once (single sign-on) and have access to multiple services that may be provided by different organizations. The organizations choose to participate and trust the authentication credentials, even if a given site does not directly manage those credentials. 

78.

2.4: Cloud-native applications are made up of (a)   .

79.

2.4: (a)   is virtualization at the operating-system level such that a single operating system is partitioned and used by multiple applications.

80.

2.4: _____ and _____ may be used in fields such as customer support, fraud detection, business intelligence, image recognition, etc.

(a)  

81.

2.4: (a)   is the name given to hosting immense quantities of data as well as analyzing that data for information useful for the business.

82.

2.4: (a)   have a very positive return on investment (ROI) and permit a great deal of personalization. Advertising and customer communication may be tailored to the target audience.

83.

2.4: (a)   provides businesses with another marketing channel to communicate with their customers.

84.

2.4: n cloud services, the term (a)   refers to the elimination of the human role in management tasks.

85.

2.4: (a)   can do many things from Alexa to home alarms to agriculture.

86.

2.4: What service can your customers use to sign up for services. They also manage their own accounts and preferences in a self-service manner.

(a)  

87.

2.4: Organizations may find a greater opportunity for (a)   due to the high degree of accessibility inherent in cloud solutions.

88.

2.4: Traditional (a)   solutions are hosted on-premise. Your organization owns and manages the hardware solutions required to serve desktop environments to client devices. This is an alternative to locally installing an operating system and applications on each individual workstation.

89.

2.4: (a)   allows organizations to make decisions for expenditures based on current neeeds.

90.

2.5: (a)   means the application will be entirely rearchitected to be cloud-ready.

91.

2.5: (a)   means no modification; application is cloud-ready.

92.

2.5: (a)   is a mix of any of the Migration Types.

93.

2.5: (a)   migration means your organization’s cloud deployment will probably be divided into several distinct phases.

94.

3.1: (a)   allows businesses to move data to where it can be utilized most effectively.

95.

3.1: (a)   means that CPU processing power is brought to the data, rather than the other way around.

96.

3.1: Some organizations will (a)   data directly to cloud storage instead of backing up to a tape drive or hard disk drive.

97.

3.1: Cloud service providers divide the world into regions. Each region is independent of the others. The regions are divided into _____. The _____ have independent data centers that possess their own power, cooling, and network connectivity.

(a)  

98.

3.1: (a)   replicates data or services between two regions.

99.

3.1: The servers your company utilizes are only virtual, and they may be created or destroyed at any time. Servers are treated as (a)   .

100.

3.1: _____ may be configured to notify administrators and business process owners of exceptional utilization or of downtime. _____ may be configured for thresholds to notify administrators before costs become unexpectedly high.

(a)  

101.

3.1: In the case of Infrastructure as a Service, _____ might include information about virtual machine or service availability. Platform as a Service _____ might include update or upgrade information for the development platform. Application as a Service _____ might track application utilization, licensing, availability, etc.

(a)  

102.

3.1: (a)   manages the number of active servers in a deployment based on the workload.

103.

3.1: The process of fine-tuning a virtual machine to better match its actual workload is called (a)   .

104.

3.2: DevOps emphasizes the use of automation for quicker and more consistent deployments. (a)   provides this capability. In older deployment models, servers were configured manually, and all settings were manipulated at the server.

105.

3.2: Infrastructure as Code templates may be created to simplify deployments. Developers can call these (a)   to generate their own test server instances.

106.

3.2: (a)   is a set of development practices that emphasizes integration and collaboration, with frequent synchronizations to help detect issues.

107.

3.2: (a)   means applications are tested in an isolated environment that is not connected to the production environment in any way. Such a design keeps any unintended effects from impacting production.

108.

3.2: (a)   means applications are tested with a simulated demand to confirm that the application performs acceptably.

109.

3.2: Revisions to an application must not break existing application functionality. (a)   is used to ensure that the update does not have an unintended impact on existing functionality after an update. Since the application was presumably tested before the update, the previous tests are run again and are expected to be successful even after the change. 

110.

3.2: The (a)   process is made up of a series of automated events. The goal is to have little or no human involvement in the deployment process other than to call for a virtual machine to be built (which may be automated through auto-scaling too).

111.

3.2: (a)   means a virtual machine is configurating it.

112.

3.2: What term relates to: Operating systems and applications may need to be patched for security weaknesses, to expose new functionality, or to correct programming mistakes. Continuous delivery automates this process, making it both simpler and more consistent than a manual process.

(a)  

113.

3.2: Developers utilize _____ to permit portions of an application to communicate with each other or for communication between two applications. _____ provide connectivity for monitoring software, for access to data, and for software component interactions.

(a)  

114.

4.1: What Inventory is described here: It may seem odd to maintain an inventory of cloud resources, but it is very necessary.

(a)  

115.

4.1: (a)   makes it easier for an organization to address the risks. Some risks might be considered to be a low priority if they are very unlikely or would have a small impact. Others might be considered to be a high priority if they are very likely or would have a significant impact.

116.

4.1: There is the risk of loss of (a)   or control of data to the cloud service provider. For example, social media sites may own data posted to them. Photos, personal information, communications, etc., may potentially be deleted or shared by the site, depending on the end-user agreement.

117.

4.1: Risk (a)   means to take reasonable precautions to prevent a particular risk.

118.

4.1: Risk (a)   means to take no action to mitigate a risk.

119.

4.1: Risk (a)   seeks to keep the business out of position to be affected by a given risk.

120.

4.1: The common example of risk _____ is insurance. Your organization may insure the data center against fire, _____ring the risk to the insurance company. The insurance company may cause you to take some mitigation steps before _____ring the risk.

(a)  

121.

4.1: What term relates to this: Risks identified in the risk assessment should be documented. There should also be documentation that displays the impact analysis and associated costs for mitigating the risk. Risk documentation may also outline who is responsible for the project, why risk management is being undertaken, and plans for reviewing the documentation regularly.

(a)  

122.

4.1: The risk assessment will result in a (a)   , which is used to track identified risks and mitigation efforts. This document, similar to the following table, is used early on to help map the risk mitigation process. It is shared at a high level in the organization among key stakeholders. New items may be added to it when necessary.

123.

4.1: (a)   means that the organization is dependent on the cloud service provider and its proprietary service. In addition, the organization cannot easily migrate to a different cloud platform.

124.

4.1: (a)   is the transfer of data between two cloud providers.

125.

4.2: (a)   are specific step-by-step procedural documents for standard tasks.

126.

4.2: For example, a developer team at your organization may be accustomed to working as individuals, with very little collaboration or project synchronization. It may be decided to migrate the developer team to a PaaS solution and a version control tool such as GitHub. Developers will be migrated from local, self-administered development environments to a consistent cloud-based development environment. They will no longer be responsible for administrative tasks in the environment. They will also be expected to synchronize projects via GitHub. In this scenario, (a)   would educate the developers about the change, offer support during the migration, and then provide service desk support after the migration is complete.

127.

4.2: (a)   addresses the utilization of tangible resources (money, supplies, etc.) and intangible resources (time, skill, people, etc.).

128.

4.2: An (a)   is a step-by-step process for managing a specific security incident.

129.

4.2: (a)   are implemented to manage the interaction between users and data. User account management, including on-boarding and off-boarding of employees, account creation and modification, and group memberships are all specified.

130.

4.2: (a)   govern the use of all communications media, including email, instant messaging, texting, phone calls, blogging, and any other social media outlets.

131.

4.3: Data is subject to the regulations, laws, and requirements of the country where it is stored. This concept is called (a)   .

132.

4.3: Cloud deployments still fall under (a)   concerns, even if the data is being stored at another organization’s data center. Any necessary auditing and documentation that pertains to your industry must include cloud services and resources.

133.

4.3: (a)   are defined by the International Organization for Standards (abbreviated as ISO in the United States). The two cloud standards define specific vocabulary and cloud service models. The goal is to ensure CSPs, consumers, governments, and regulatory bodies operate from a consistent set of terms.

134.

4.3: Cloud service providers allow their infrastructures to be independently audited. Such _____ indicates they are compliant with various industry or government requirements. The _____ assure consumers that an independent agency has verified the security claims of the service provider.

(a)  

135.

4.4: A _____ is an activity you are trying to protect your systems or data from. _____s have the potential to disrupt services. There are three primary types of _____s: natural, unintentional, and intentional.

(a)  

136.

4.4: A (a)   is a known weakness in a system, service, application, or even a user that may be exploited by a threat actor.

137.

4.4: One form of cloud security assessment is (a)   . This is an authorized attack conducted by a third-party security firm to assess and report the security level of your organization. It is important to note that this attack is conducted with the knowledge and approval of the organization.

138.

4.4: _____ software checks applications and services for security issues. These issues might include misconfigurations, missing security patches, known vulnerabilities, etc. _____ may be conducted with administrative credentials from inside the network or without credentials using the same approach as an external attacker would use.

(a)  

139.

4.4: Web (a)   software connects to the web application site the same way a customer or an attacker would and then searches the site for vulnerabilities. The software will construct a model of the entire site after discovering all of the pages and web services.

140.

4.4: (a)   —Content is confirmed by the legal department and is available to the general public.

141.

4.4: (a)   —Content is secured using permissions and is only available to regular employees.

142.

4.4: (a)   —Content is secured by permissions and encryption and is only available to members of certain business units.

143.

4.4: (a)   —ensuring only authorized users can access data, for example, keeping an organization’s intellectual property secret.

144.

4.4: (a)   —validating that data has not changed, for example, during a download process.

145.

4.4: (a)   —ensuring access to data or services, for example, by using backup and restore procedures.

146.

4.4: A data _____ may still occur, even if your organization has taken steps to mitigate it. A data _____ is the accidental or deliberate exposure of data to unauthorized users. An incident response policy is used to govern reactions to data _____es.

(a)  

147.

4.4: (a)   ing—log files and other record-keeping that is used to track who took what actions.

148.

4.4: (a)   —permissions that are used to control your access to data based on your authenticated identity.

149.

4.4: (a)   attempts to reduce vulnerabilities and their associated risks by applying best practices, configurations, and tools to systems.