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IBA Review Questions

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who installs, modifies and repairs personal computer hardware components?
a)
A. SEO analyst
b)
B. PC repair technician
c)
C. Network engineer
d)

D. Help desk technician
2.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who is responsible for evaluating Web site statistics to determine the site's effectiveness?
a)
Web application developer
b)
Web site designer
c)
Web site architect
d)
D. Web site analyst
3.
What is the term for an individual who is responsible for developing and implementing plans to take advantage of the sales and marketing opportunities available through the Internet?
a)
A. Web application developer
b)
B. Web site manager
c)
C. Web site analyst
d)
D. Web marketing manager
4.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who is responsible for diagnosing and resolving users' technical hardware and software problems?
a)
A. Network engineer
b)
B. Security manager
c)
C. PC repair technician
d)
D. Help desk technician
5.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who is responsible for the organization and appearance of a Web site?
a)
A.Web site analyst
b)
B. Web application developer
c)
C. Web site designer
d)
D. Web site architect
6.
Cloud computing is software services that are provided over the Internet. Which of the following IT job roles should be most familiar with cloud computing software, infrastructure and platform services?
a)
A. SEO analyst
b)
B. Web architect
c)
C. Help desk technician
d)
D. Server administrator
7.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who provides organizational leadership for Web site content and all related initiatives?
a)
A. Web application developer
b)
B. Web architect
c)
C. Web site analyst
d)
D. Web site manager
8.
What is the purpose of conducting an ontological study as it pertains to a particular organization or business?
a)
A. To enable software engineers and programmers to accurately map technology solutions to business needs
b)
B. To enable software engineers and programmers to accurately determine how an organization's data is used by particular applications
c)
C. To enable software engineers and programmers to accurately determine the requirements that a database must fulfill in order to function properly for an organization
d)
D. To enable software engineers and programmers to accurately predict the degree to which a demographic will adopt or accept a new product or innovation
9.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who is responsible for maintaining the software and procedures necessary to protect the confidentiality and integrity of information, and legitimate access to it?
a)
A. Server administrator
b)
B. Database administrator
c)
C. Web site manager
d)
D. Security manager
10.
As a new IT professional, you need to understand the needs of the business, as well as the various technologies required to design and deliver specific products. What is the term that describes this perspective in relation to IT?
a)
A. Holistic
b)
B. Architectural
c)
C. Ontological
d)
D. Cloud-based
11.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who develops primarily server-side Web applications?
a)
A. Database administrator
b)
B. Web application developer
c)
C. Server administrator
d)
D. Web architect
12.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who creates applications for devices such as smartphones and tablets?
a)
A. Web application developer
b)
B. Web architect
c)
C. Mobile application developer
d)
D. Web site designer
13.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who is responsible for managing the maintenance and security of an organization's data?
a)
A. Web site manager
b)
B. Network engineer
c)
C. Server administrator
d)
D. Database administrator
14.
Which IT job role best describes an individual who manages and maintains a network infrastructure?
a)
A. Server administrator
b)
B. Network engineer
c)
C. PC repair technician
d)
D. Database administrator
15.
To support an Internet client, you must have six elements. The first three -- a computer, an operating system and TCP/IP -- are generally acquired when you buy a computer. Which choice lists the other three elements you need to support an Internet client?
a)
A. Network access, administrator permission and server software
b)
B. Internet connection, client software and server software
c)
C. Server system, Internet connection and network access
d)
D. Client software, Internet connection and Internet address
16.
Cloud computing is a computing paradigm in which:
a)
A. users are able to access software and services run by servers that reside on the Internet.
b)
B. one domain name server hosts multiple domain names.
c)
C. multiple companies, organizations or people share portions of the same domain name.
d)
D. users are able to outsource a task to an undefined group of people or community to obtain and analyze large amounts of data.A. users are able to access software and services run by servers that reside on the Internet.
17.
What is an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?
a)
A. An organization that maintains a gateway to the Internet and rents access to it
b)
B. A computer system with an Internet connection and the correct software for Internet communication
c)
C. The company that provides telephone lines to your home or office
d)
D. A dial-up or high-speed direct connection to the Internet
18.
Tim is listening to music from an online music provider (such as Pandora). He creates a list of his music preferences, and the music service uses his list to suggest additional songs that Tim might like. This music service is an example of a cloud-computing application that uses collaborative filtering technology. What is the name of this type of technology?
a)
A. Bit-torrent
b)
B. Software as a Service
c)
C. Crowdsourcing
d)
D. Grid computing
19.
Of the six elements required to connect to the Internet, which can be supplied in the form of a Web browser, e-mail program or mobile app?
a)
A. Client software
b)
B. Operating system
c)
C. Internet address
d)
D. Internet connection
20.
In an Ethernet network, all data travels across the network and between computers in which form or unit?
a)
A. E-mails
b)
B. Protocols
c)
C. Packets
d)
D. Routers
21.
Six elements are required to connect to the Internet. One of these elements is TCP/IP. Which of the following best describes this element?
a)
A. Direct connection to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)
b)
B. PC, smartphone, smart TV, tablet, etc.
c)
C. Protocol software used to communicate with the Internet
d)
D. Windows, Linux/UNIX, Macintosh, etc.
22.
What is a node?
a)
A. A network computer that manages network resources and provides data
b)
B. A system or application on a network that requests a service from another computer
c)
C. Any entity or addressable device on a network that can be managed
d)
D. An organized repository of data that can be queried and searched by users
23.
Instead of purchasing software and hardware that must be maintained by internal resources, more and more small businesses today are choosing hosted solutions with a monthly subscription fee and outsourced system maintenance. Which term is commonly used for this business model?
a)
A. Software as a Service
b)
B. Crowdsourcing
c)
C. Grid computing
d)
D. Scalability
24.
What is the least expensive way to access the Internet?
a)
A. With a cable modem from the cable TV company
b)
B. With a local area network (LAN) connection
c)
C. With a Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
d)
D. With phone lines, an analog modem and an ISP
25.
Which U.S. government agency first funded the development of the Internet?
a)
A. The Department of Commerce
b)
B. The Department of Defense
c)
C. The Internal Revenue Service
d)
D. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
26.
Which statement accurately describes the difference between a traditional modem and an ISDN line?
a)
A. ISDN translates digital signals to analog and back, whereas a modem uses a digital line.
b)
B. A modem connects a user to an all-digital network, whereas ISDN adapts a computer to a phone line or cable TV network.
c)
C. A modem provides a dial-up Internet connection, whereas an ISDN line provides a direct Internet connection.
d)
D. ISDN uses a digital line, whereas a traditional modem must translate digital signals to analog and back.
27.
Six elements are required to connect to the Internet. Which one of the six required elements can be satisfied by any of several examples including PC, smartphone, smart TV or tablet?
a)
A. Operating system
b)
B. Client software
c)
C. Computer
d)
D. Internet connection
28.
The technology adoption life cycle describes:
a)
A. the doubling of technological advances every two years that explains the increasing capabilities of software applications, the Internet and so forth.
b)
B. the intellectual "battle" that frequently takes place between those who adopt a new paradigm and those who cling to an old paradigm.
c)
C. the degree to which members of a demographic will adopt or accept a new product or innovation.
d)
D. how a particular part of a company, called a domain, is organized.
29.
Which choice lists the two principal methods of connecting to the Internet through an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?
a)
A. ISDN connection and DSL connection
b)
B. Standard modem and cable modem
c)
C. Dial-up connection and direct connection
d)
D. World Wide Web (WWW) connection and local area network (LAN) connection
30.
Which term is used to describe a computer that is connected to a central server with which it can communicate and from which it can request information?
a)
A. LAN
b)
B. Network
c)
C. Database
d)
D. Client
31.
Which term is used to describe a computer that is responsible for storing and providing information requested by a client application?
a)
A. Database
b)
B. Server
c)
C. Client
d)
D. Network
32.
Which statement best describes DSL?
a)
A. DSL stands for Digital Service Line, a direct Internet connection method that uses cable TV network lines and a cable modem.
b)
B. DSL stands for Digital Service Line, a dial-up Internet connection method that uses cable TV network lines and a cable modem.
c)
C. DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, a direct Internet connection method that uses digital phone lines and an xDSL modem.
d)
D. DSL stands for Digital Serial Line, a dial-up Internet connection method that uses digital phone lines and an xDSL modem.
33.
You are leading a project that will collect vast amounts of data, which will need processing. In your research, you learn about a technology in which volunteers can install a small application on personal computers to receive, process and return information to your organization. Using multiple systems to process large amounts of data in this way will be less expensive than using a single supercomputer to conduct this same task. Which term describes this technology?
a)
A. Crowdsourcing
b)
B. Software as a Service
c)
C. Grid computing
d)
D. Collective intelligence
34.
How does a LAN differ from a WAN?
a)
A. A LAN spans a wide geographic area, whereas a WAN spans a confined area such as an office or home.
b)
B. A LAN consists of multiple WANs, whereas a WAN consists of multiple computers.
c)
C. A LAN uses public networks and high-speed lines, whereas a WAN is private and may use slower lines.
d)
D. A LAN spans a confined geographic area, whereas a WAN consists of multiple LANs.
35.
The SETI (Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence) project collected vast amounts of data that needed processing. SETI was one of the early adopters of a technology in which volunteers installed a small application on personal computers to receive, process and return information to SETI. Using multiple systems to process large amounts of data was considered to be less expensive than using a single supercomputer to conduct the same task. This technology is typically known as:
a)
A.Collective intelligence.
b)
B. Software as a Service.
c)
C.Crowdsourcing.
d)
D.Grid computing.
36.
Kim is using the YouTube graphics-editing application that she accesses via the Internet through her browser. Kim does not own the application, nor can she download it. She is able to use the application any time she needs to edit graphics. Although she does not have to pay for the access, she does notice advertisements, which appear on the sidebar of the application's interface. The application Kim is using may be classified as which of the following?
a)
A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
b)
B. Spyware
c)
C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
d)
D. Freeware
37.
Which definition best describes a network?
a)
A. A system that requests services from other computers and is used to access files or documents
b)
B. A central repository of programs and data to which all member users have access
c)
C. An architecture of computers that divides processing and storage tasks between clients and servers
d)
D. A group of computers connected so they can communicate, share resources and exchange data
38.
Juan is preparing to give a presentation to his company's managers about the cloud-computing services that his department is planning to implement. He considers the possible objections that his managers might have to using cloud services for the company. What disadvantage of cloud services should he be ready to discuss?
a)
A. Cost
b)
B. Flexibility
c)
C. Scalability
d)
D. Speed
39.
Which of the following refers to a family of specifications for wireless network technology?
a)
A. Ad-hoc and infrastructure modes
b)
B. Dial-up and direct connections
c)
C. T and E carriers
d)
D. 802.11 standards
40.
Ange works as an Administrative Assistant for a small business that uses an SaaS service for sales orders and customer accounting (similar to Salesforce.com). Ange makes sure to save accurate records about current projects, and she performs regular backups of the business data stored on this cloud-based service. Why?
a)
A. Because the service and records would not be accessible if there is an interruption in Internet access
b)
B. Because although it is well known that cloud-based services are highly secure, highly reliable and always available, Ange is paranoid and too cautious
c)
C. Because data stored online through this cloud-based service has more risk to security breaches than if it were stored locally
d)
D. Because the number of users who are allowed to access the cloud-based service at any time is limited
41.
Of the six elements required to connect to the Internet, which is often supplied by an ISP?
a)
A. Internet connection
b)
B. Computer
c)
C. TCP/IP
d)
D. Operating system
42.
Which protocol is required for computers to communicate with each other over the Internet?
a)
A. TCP/IP
b)
B. POP
c)
C. HTTP
d)
D. FTP
43.
Approximately how many numeric IP addresses are possible with IPv4?
a)
A. 1 billion
b)
B. 400 million
c)
C. 4 billion
d)
D. 100 million
44.
Which protocol do many browsers assume when you enter a URL in the Address field?
a)
A. HTML
b)
B. HTTP
c)
C. FTP
d)
D. WWW
45.
Your company offers software applications for various topics. When a customer purchases a desired app from your online store, she is directed to a page where she can download the application directly. When the customer begins downloading the app, the standard protocol that is most likely transferring the application is:
a)
A. HTTPS.
b)
B. HTTP.
c)
C. FTP.
d)
D. SMTP.
46.
Which statement best describes an E3 connection?
a)
A. E3 is the direct-access equivalent of an ISDN line.
b)
B. E3 is the digital equivalent of an analog modem.
c)
C. E3 is the analog equivalent of a T3 Internet connection.
d)
D. E3 is the European equivalent of a T3 Internet connection.
47.
Which protocol is the data transmission standard for the Internet, responsible for sending information from one computer to another using uniquely identifying addresses?
a)
A. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
b)
B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
c)
C. Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE)
d)
D. Internet Protocol (IP)
48.
Which protocol is often used to publish Web pages to a Web server?
a)
A. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
b)
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
c)
C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
d)
D. Internet Protocol (IP)
49.
How many mail servers does the use of e-mail involve?
a)
A. One -- both incoming and outgoing mail are handled by one server using Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
b)
B. Two -- incoming mail is handled by one server using Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), and outgoing mail is handled by another server using Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
c)
C. One -- both incoming and outgoing mail are handled by one server using Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
d)
D. Two -- incoming mail is handled by one server using Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), and outgoing mail is handled by another server using Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
50.
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is responsible for providing Web pages to users who request them. The required elements for HTTP to function are:
a)
A. server, HTML and DNS.
b)
B. client, Web page and DNS.
c)
C. client, server and TCP/IP.
d)
D. browser, HTML and TCP/IP.
51.
Which protocol is used to host newsgroups and distribute mailing lists by providing text output that users can access at their convenience and by allowing multi-person input like a conference call?
a)
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
b)
B. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
c)
C. Post Office Protocol (POP)
d)
D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
52.
Which protocol is used to receive e-mail messages from an incoming mail server, and forces you to download e-mail messages before reading, deleting or otherwise managing them?
a)
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
b)
B. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
c)
C. Post Office Protocol (POP)
d)
D. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
53.
Direct connections provide continuous access to the Internet. Many bandwidth options are associated with direct connections. Which technology can transmit data over a network connection at speeds up to 1.544 Mbps?
a)
A. T1
b)
B. ISDN
c)
C. DSL
d)
D. E1
54.
Which protocol allows you to browse and manage e-mail messages while they reside on the mail server?
a)
A. Post Office Protocol (POP)
b)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
c)
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
d)
D. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
55.
Which protocol allows a computer using an analog modem to make an initial connection to the Internet?
a)
A. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
b)
B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
c)
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
d)
D. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
56.
You want to be able to quickly view news headlines without the need to open your Web browser and visit any news Web sites. How can you accomplish your goal?
a)
A. Set up a Web feed.
b)
B. Set up a proxy server.
c)
C. Set up a browser cache.
d)
D. Set up a rendering engine.
57.
Which protocol is used to send Web pages from a Web server to a Web browser?
a)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
b)
B. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
c)
C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
d)
D. Post Office Protocol (POP3)
58.
Which protocol is the Internet standard protocol for transmitting e-mail messages over networks, and is responsible solely for sending -- but not receiving -- e-mail messages?
a)
A. Post Office Protocol (POP)
b)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
c)
C. Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
d)
D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
59.
Which of the following can you use to view headlines and updates from your favorite Web sites without the need to open your Web browser or visit any Web sites?
a)
A. RSS and Atom
b)
B. Pop-up windows
c)
C. Pop-under windows
d)
D. Proxy servers
60.
Which Internet resource is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses?
a)
A. A shared domain hosting service
b)
B. A root-level server
c)
C. A virtual domain hosting service
d)
D. A domain name server
61.
When Web users enter the URL www.CIWcertified.com in their browser address bar, they can access the official CIW Web site at the IP address 72.44.192.233. Which technology enables users to do this, instead of having to remember and enter the IP address?
a)
A. HTTP
b)
B. TCP/IP
c)
C. DNS
d)
D. HTML
62.
Your company has a registered domain name. You decide to sell portions of the domain name and make it available to others. What does this scenario describe?
a)
A. A top-level domain
b)
B. A shared domain
c)
C. A virtual domain
d)
D. A cloud domain
63.
A domain name consists of letters (and sometimes numbers) separated by periods. Which of the following is the host name component of a domain name?
a)
A. The right-side component of a domain name, which categorizes domains into groups by common type or geography
b)
B. The left-side component of the domain name, which categorizes domains into groups by server name
c)
C. The left-side component of a domain name, which categorizes domains into groups by common type or geography
d)
D. The right-side component of a domain name, which categorizes domains into groups by server name
64.
D. The right-side component of a domain name, which categorizes domains into groups by server name
a)
A. .biz
b)
B. .info
c)
C. .net
d)
D. .pro
65.
Which choice lists two methods that you can use to reference an FTP or file-storage server (such as Dropbox) in order to download files?
a)
A. By IP address or FTP address
b)
B. By IP address or domain name
c)
C. By FTP address or HTTP address
d)
D. By HTTP address or domain name
66.
Every domain name is unique. Once registered, it cannot be used by an unauthorized organization or individual. What organization is responsible for managing domain names?
a)
A. ICANN
b)
B. ISO
c)
C. W3C
d)
D. TCP/IP
67.
How is IPv6 able to offer more Internet addresses than IPv4?
a)
A. By using 128-bit IP addresses
b)
B. By requiring less overhead
c)
C. By causing Internet usage to grow
d)
D. By using wireless network components
68.
Which Internet resource is used to resolve IP addresses into easily recognizable text-based names?
a)
A. Root-level servers
b)
B. The Domain Name System (DNS)
c)
C. Usenet (User Network)
d)
D. Domain name servers
69.
IPv4 addresses use a 32-bit address format that is divided into four sets of numbers. What is the term for this address?
a)
A. Dotted quad
b)
B. Hexadecimal
c)
C. URL
d)
D. Connection
70.
Internet domain names sometimes use a country-level domain, or country code, to identify the geographical region in which the Internet organization or address is based. Which address demonstrates the proper syntax for a country-level domain?
a)
A. bonjour.fra.org
b)
A. bonjour.fra.org
c)
C. britishlore.org.eng
d)
D. londontimes.co.uk
71.
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) can be run over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to create the HTTPS protocol. How does HTTPS make HTTP transmission more secure?
a)
A. By eliminating the need for user names and passwords
b)
B. By attaching digital certificates to information transmitted to and from Web servers
c)
C. By eliminating the need for digital certificates
d)
D. By encrypting and decrypting information transmitted to and from Web servers
72.
Which term is used to describe a training session that is delivered over the Internet?
a)
A. Webinar
b)
B. Intranet
c)
C. Extranet
d)
D. Voice conference
73.
While you are exploring a Web page in the Firefox browser, a file fails to properly display. You decide to install the required plug-in to view the file and are forced to quit Firefox, install the plug-in, then restart Firefox. What kind of installation is this?
a)
A. An online installation
b)
A. An online installation
c)
C. An offline installation
d)
D. A lossless installation
74.
Your company is making changes to a certain product. You need to discuss these changes with the company's sales managers, who are located in various international locations. Which of the following methods is the most efficient and economical solution for you to discuss the required information with all the sales managers synchronously?
a)
A. Post the blueprints showing the changes on the company's Web site and call each sales manager personally to discuss their individual questions or concerns offline.
b)
B. Schedule an in-person sales meeting with the managers at the company headquarters so that you can demonstrate the changes and answer any questions with the entire group present.
c)
C. Schedule a Webinar with the sales managers so that you can demonstrate the changes and answer any questions with the entire group.
d)
D. Send the blueprints showing the changes via e-mail to each of the sales managers and ask them to contact you with any questions
75.
In reference to the elements of a Web browser, what is a sandbox?
a)
A. Code that controls how the browser accesses a network
b)
B. An instruction from a running application that executes a particular task
c)
C. A programming method that isolates a particular application or process
d)
D. The part of the browser responsible for reading and processing programming languages
76.
Web conferences are a cost-effective alternative to live, in-person meetings. Which of the following is a feature of Web conferences?
a)
A. Language translation
b)
B. Transcription
c)
C. Polling
d)
D. Unlimited availability to the public
77.
Consider the following address:
http://www.CIWcertified.com/courses/iba.htm
Which part of this address represents the domain name?
a)
A. /courses/
b)
B. www
c)
C. iba.htm
d)
D.CIWcertifed.com
78.
Viewers are scaled-down versions of applications and usually do not have the full application's functionality. Which choice describes tasks you can generally perform using a viewer?
a)
A. View and print documents, but not edit them
b)
B. Print documents, but not view or edit them
c)
C. View documents, but not print or edit them
d)
D. View and edit documents, but not print them
79.
Users can access and navigate an FTP server using an FTP client program. For which action does the FTP client program use the "put" command?
a)
A. To upload a file
b)
B. To move a file to a new location
c)
C. To search for a file
d)
D. To download a file
80.
Which is the native audio format for Microsoft Windows?
a)
A. Waveform (WAV)
b)
B. Ogg Vorbis (OGG)
c)
C. Audio Interchange File Format (AIFF)
d)
D. Moving Picture Experts Group, Audio Layer-3 (MP3)
81.
Which file format retains formatting information through all platforms and can be created and read on any computer, regardless of the local operating system?
a)
A. Encapsulated PostScript (EPS)
b)
B. Microsoft Word (DOC)
c)
C. Portable Document Format (PDF)
d)
D. Rich Text Format (RTF)
82.
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) are two common protocols used to secure Internet communication exchanges. Which of the following is true about SSL and TLS?
a)
A. SSL is the successor to TLS and has become more common.
b)
B. TLS and SSL are deprecated protocols that have been replaced by HTTPS.
c)
C. TLS and SSL are newer protocols that have replaced HTTPS.
d)
D. TLS is the successor to SSL and has become more common.
83.
What is the function of a CAPTCHA?
a)
A. To identify and filter out spam messages before they reach the e-mail Inbox
b)
B. To publish a list of IP addresses known to be sources of spam
c)
C. To schedule appointments and meetings, store contact information, and manage tasks 
d)
D. To differentiate humans from automated senders during online transactions
84.
With which prefix does a Web page's Uniform Resource Locator (URL) begin?
a)
A. html://
b)
B. mailto://
c)
C. ftp://
d)
D. http://
85.
Tina is the technology coordinator for a small multi-national corporation with offices in San Francisco, New York, Tokyo and Paris. She needs to coordinate a live and interactive meeting that will allow executives from each of the offices to meet virtually and share presentations. Which of the following is the best way for Tina to accomplish this?
a)
A. Webcast
b)
B. Podcast
c)
C. Conference call
d)
D. Web conference
86.
Nancy is using a Web browser on her desktop computer to place some bids on a popular online auction site. She decides that she wants to browse to the CIW site without closing her browser. What is the most efficient way to do this?
a)
A. By performing a search within the auction site currently displayed in her Web browser
b)
B. By opening the CIW app that she has downloaded and installed on her computer
c)
C. By typing the CIW site's URL (www.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of her Web browser
d)
D. By entering the CIW site's FTP address (ftp.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of her Web browser
87.
What is the term for the part of a browser responsible for reading a Web page and presenting it to an end user?
a)
A. Interpreter
b)
B. Sandbox
c)
C. Rendering engine
d)
D. Window
88.
Intranets and extranets can both be considered subsets of the Internet. Which statement best describes the difference between intranets and extranets?
a)
A. Intranets are used by commercial organizations, whereas extranets are used by private parties and entrepreneurs.
b)
B. Intranets are used within corporations by employees, whereas extranets are used by corporations for non-public customer support.
c)
C. Intranets are used within a geographic continent, whereas extranets are used to connect between continents.
d)
D. Intranets are used by Internet industry professionals, whereas extranets are used by casual Web users.
89.
Your company wants to simplify the customer support process for its distributors by enabling them to obtain company forms and reports online. You and your Web team are in charge of implementing this capability. Which Web-based system should you implement?
a)
A. Webinar
b)
B. Extranet
c)
C. Intranet
d)
D. FTP site
90.
You want to give your Web site users the ability to view high-quality video. Connection speed is not an issue. Which file format could you use?
a)
A. WAV
b)
B. AVI
c)
C. MPEG
d)
D. PDF
91.
If you click a hyperlink, your browser will:
a)
A. display a new Web page or another area on the same page.
b)
B. increase the speed of your modem connection.
c)
C. display a Web page's source code.
d)
D. open a window in which you can edit a Web page's text.
92.
Which of the following is generally an advantage of using a Webcast instead of an in-person meeting?
a)
A. A Webcast can be viewed by unauthorized participants.
b)
B. A Webcast might be interrupted by Internet connection problems.
c)
C.  A Webcast lacks face-to-face interaction meeting.
d)
D. A Webcast is more cost-effective than an in-person meeting.
93.
What is the main difference between a PostScript (PS) file and an Encapsulated PostScript (EPS) file?
a)
A. A PS file contains instructions that determine the display of the graphic, whereas an EPS file includes the bitmap information for the image as well.
b)
B. PS is the audio format used by UNIX servers, whereas EPS is the audio format used by Windows servers.
c)
C. A PS file is used to transport text files between operating systems and applications, whereas an EPS file is used to transport audio or video content between operating systems and applications.
d)
D. A PS file compresses graphics, whereas an EPS file compresses audio or video content.
94.
James has just finished designing a Web site to support a charity organization's fund-raising efforts. He needs to meet with the board members to get their feedback and address some questions before he implements the final design. The board members are dispersed throughout the country and want to avoid spending charity funds on traveling to this meeting. Which of the following solutions would best support the charity and provide James with an opportunity to discuss the design with the group?
a)
A. Create a PowerPoint slideshow that contains pictures of the Web site design and create a survey to gather the board members' feedback.
b)
B. Create an audio Webcast and distribute it to the board members over the Internet.
c)
C. Plan a Webinar that reviews the layout of the site then request that board members submit their feedback by e-mail after the Webinar.
d)
D. Plan a Web conference using a service that supports screen-sharing and phone conferencing.
95.
A plug-in is useful for:
a)
A. writing HTML code for Web browsers.
b)
B. creating streaming technology.
c)
C. extending a browser's capabilities.
d)
D. clearing the browser cache.
96.
Sensitive data (such as credit card information) should be secured using authentication and encryption when transmitting it over the Internet. Which protocol do most servers use to exchange sensitive data over the Internet?
a)
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
b)
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
c)
C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
d)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
97.
Stephen is creating video tutorials to sell his company's products. The target audience will consist of company employees using primarily new computers with the Windows operating systems and Internet Explorer 9. Stephen is debating whether to publish the videos using the MP4 or the OGG video format. Both formats are compatible with the HTML5 video element, which he is using in his tutorials. Which of the following would be a reason for Stephen to choose one format over the over?
a)
A. The MP4 video format is a free open-source solution that is compatible with all browsers.
b)
B. The OGG video format is a free open-source solution that is compatible with all browsers.
c)
C. The MP4 video format is natively supported by Internet Explorer 9 and does not require a plug-in.
d)
D. The OGG video format is natively supported by Internet Explorer 9 and does not require a plug-in.
98.
The graphics you are probably most familiar with, GIFs and JPEGs, are raster graphics. What are raster graphics?
a)
A. Pixel-based images that describe a series of points to be connected
b)
B. Mathematical shapes saved as a sequence of vector statements, which map bits directly to a display space
c)
C. Images that map bits directly to a display space
d)
D. Mathematical shapes saved as a sequence of vector statements, which describe a series of points to be connected
99.
Which popular plug-in is Microsoft's response to Adobe Flash?
a)
A. Windows Media Player
b)
B. Zotero
c)
C. QuickTime
d)
D. Silverlight
100.
You want to learn more about CIW certifications and access a PDF document at http://www.ciwcertified.com/_resources/CIW_Roadmap.pdf. Which type of URL does this represent?
a)
A. A deep URL
b)
B. A default URL
c)
C. An absolute URL
d)
D. A relative URL
101.
Susan is taking an online college seminar series in Art History. All classes will be delivered over the Web. Although there is no opportunity to ask questions, the live lectures and artwork presentations are engaging. Which Web-based meeting format was used?
a)
A. Blog
b)
B. Podcast
c)
C. Web conference
d)
D. Webinar
102.
What is the main benefit of using Rich Text Format (RTF)?
a)
A. RTF is a file format that you can use to import and export graphics files between operating systems and applications.
b)
B. RTF has become an Internet standard for graphics.
c)
C. RTF provides an efficient compression algorithm to reduce file size.
d)
D. RTF is compatible with many operating systems and applications, including most Macintosh and Windows word processors.
103.
What is the term for the part of a browser responsible for reading and processing programming languages?
a)
A. Rendering engine
b)
B. Thread
c)
C. Sandbox
d)
D. Interpreter
104.
You have activated pop-up blockers in your Web browser to prevent pop-up windows from continually interrupting your browsing experience. What could be an unintended consequence of this action?
a)
A. You may not be able to clear your browser's cache.
b)
B. You may not be able to access the company intranet.
c)
C. You may not be able to enter logon information when needed to access a site.
d)
D. You may not be able to set up Web feeds when needed to access news headlines.
105.
What is the main advantage of the Ogg Vorbis (OGG) audio file format?
a)
A. OGG files are larger, download faster, and sound as good as other audio file formats.
b)
B. OGG files are smaller than and sound as good as other audio file formats, but do not download as quickly.
c)
C. OGG files are smaller and download faster than other audio file formats, but do not sound as good.
d)
D. OGG files are smaller, download faster, and sound as good as other audio file formats.
106.
Samson needs to review several promotional product videos from his company's marketing department immediately, before a meeting to discuss revisions. Samson tries to view the videos on his computer using his Windows Media Player, but they will not play. The video files are in RealMedia format. What should Samson do in order to view these videos?
a)
A. Contact his company's Technical Support department and request an upgrade for his computer.
b)
B. Convert the video files to the WMV format, because RealMedia files will not play in Windows Media Player.
c)
C. Decompress the files before attempting to play them in Windows Media Player, because RealMedia files are compressed for uploading/downloading.
d)
D. Upload the videos to the Web server to view them on the company Web site because they will not play from a local computer.
107.
The Flash Player allows browsers to play Flash movies, which are animations created using vector graphics. What are vector graphics?
a)
A. Mathematical shapes saved as a sequence of vector statements, which describe a series of points to be connected
b)
B. Images that map bits directly to a display space
c)
C. Pixel-based images that describe a series of points to be connected
d)
D. Mathematical shapes saved as a sequence of vector statements, which map bits directly to a display space
108.
Monty has been searching online for a rare wine vintage. He finally finds it on the Rare Vintage Web site, which he has recently heard about from friends. The site is well designed and offers some good deals on hard-to-find wines. As Monty navigates through the checkout process, he reaches the checkout page with the following URL, which asks him to enter his credit card and mailing information:
http://www.RareVintage.com/vprod/checkout.html/ref=chk_out_TLS128_1b?ie=UTF8&docId=107931
Monty cancels his online transaction instead of proceeding. Why?
a)
A. Because the site uses 128-bit encryption, which is illegal for companies that are located overseas
b)
B. Because the URL uses abbreviations and is not completely readable, so Monty cannot identify the domain name
c)
C .Because the URL uses SSL/TLS encryption, which Monty knows is not compatible with the browser he is using
d)
D. Because the URL does not use SSL/TLS encryption and therefore any information Monty enters would not be secure
109.
Ken has been asked to test a newly developed Web site. Part of the test plan requires him to verify that all links within the site work properly. In addition to verifying that clicking a link navigates to the appropriate Web page, what else will he observe?
a)
A. The URL displayed in the browser's Address bar will update with each link that is clicked.
b)
B. Clicking a hyperlink that is deeper than three clicks from the home page will automatically send you back to the home page.
c)
C. Clicking a hyperlink will update the Home button in the browser toolbar.
d)
D. The URL displayed in the browser's Address bar will display only the domain of the Web server, no matter which link is clicked.
110.
You work with UNIX workstations and want to install a Web browser specific to your environment. Which browser should you install?
a)
A. RockMelt
b)
B. Konqueror
c)
C. Lynx
d)
D. Safari
111.
Your mom sent you a message with a link to a college information page that you find very useful. You want to be able to find this same page in the future from your desktop computer, or from your mobile device when you are not at your desk. Which is the best way to do this?
a)
A. Add the link to a cloud-based bookmark service such as Delicious or Google Bookmarks.
b)
B. Save the message from your mom so you can open the message and copy or click the link any time you want to view the page.
c)
C. Memorize the URL so you can find the page using any browser, any time.
d)
D. Manually enter the Web address into any and all browsers on all of your devices.
112.
How can you view a Web page, including all related images, fonts and scripts referenced by the HTML on the page, without connecting to the Internet?
a)
A. Save the Web page content to your computer's local disk cache.
b)
B. Install the appropriate viewer for the browser you are using.
c)
C. Save the Web page content to your hard disk.
d)
D. Install the appropriate plug-in for the browser you are using.
113.
Why is it important to have an adequate amount of disk cache space when downloading multimedia objects?
a)
A. Because plug-ins can store a portion of the multimedia object data in the cache and begin streaming delivery as the file downloads
b)
B. Because plug-ins for viewing multimedia objects often require a large amount of disk cache space
c)
C. Because all multimedia objects must be completely downloaded to your hard drive before you can view them
d)
D. Because multimedia objects are stored in the disk cache on the hard drive until you decide to view them
114.
Consider the following address:
http://www.CIWcertified.com/Courses/Web_Foundations/iba.htm
Which part of this address represents the protocol being used to send the page information from the server to the computer of the user who requested it?
a)
A. www
b)
B. .CIWcertifed.com
c)
C. /Courses/
d)
D. http://
115.
You have just installed the Microsoft Windows 7 operating system on your PC. Which Web browser is bundled with Windows 7 and is installed automatically when you load the operating system?
a)
A. Mozilla
b)
B. Internet Explorer
c)
C. Opera
116.
You want to look at multiple Web sites simultaneously and follow different paths of hyperlinks in each site. What is the easiest way to accomplish this in current Web browsers?
a)
A. Store Web sites in your History folder and access them as needed.
b)
B. Open multiple windows in one browser and use tabbed browsing.
c)
C. Store Web sites in your browser cache and access them as needed.
d)
D. Launch your Web browser multiple times to accommodate each site.
117.
You use a proprietary Windows-based program to create designs and layouts for your freelance greeting card business. You want to share samples of your work on your Web site for potential new customers to review. You convert the file format of your designs so that customers can view accurate renderings of them, regardless of the local operating system, settings or browser each individual uses to view your site. Which file format should you use?
a)
A. PDF
b)
B. OGG
c)
C. DOC
d)
D. MP3
118.
Which file format designates an Apple QuickTime Movie file, which supports video, animation, text and audio?
a)
A. SWF
b)
B. MPEG
c)
C. AVI
d)
D. MOV
119.
Which type of URL gives an abbreviated path to a resource using the current page as a starting position?
a)
A. Absolute URL
b)
B. Root URL
c)
C. Relative URL
d)
D. Deep URL
120.
You are using Firefox as your default browser and you want to customize it to better suit your browsing habits. What plug-ins and extensions specific to Firefox can you use to accomplish this?
a)
A. Firefox add-ons
b)
B. Firefox viewers
c)
C. Firefox codecs
d)
D. Firefox ActiveX controls
121.
Anonymous browsing allows users to:
a)
A. develop software that lacks any constraints imposed by prior development.
b)
B. surf the Web privately, leaving no cached information.
c)
C. create new processes and recover from problem threads, thereby avoiding crashes.
d)
D. improve the performance of computers with slow connections.
122.
Users can access and navigate an FTP server using an FTP client program. For which action does the FTP client program use the "get" command?
a)
A. To upload a file
b)
B. To move a file to a new location
c)
C. To download a file
d)
D. To search for a file
123.
Which choice lists the systems for which the Windows Media Player is available?
a)
A. Windows and Linux systems
b)
B. Windows and Macintosh systems
c)
C. Windows and UNIX systems
d)
D. Windows and DOS systems
124.
Which file format is a popular, customizable graphics format commonly used for medical imaging and desktop publishing?
a)
A. TIFF
b)
B. PNG
c)
C. GIF
d)
D. JPEG
125.
Sarah just made a purchase on an online shopping site (such as amazon.com) and completed the checkout process by paying with her credit card. Which protocol was most likely used for the transmission of her information?
a)
A. POP3
b)
B. FTPS
c)
C. HTTPS
d)
D. IMAPS
126.
Which is the standard video file format for Microsoft Windows?
a)
A. Ogg Vorbis (OGG)
b)
B. Audio Video Interleave (AVI)
c)
C. Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG)
d)
D. QuickTime Movie (MOV)
127.
What is the main advantage of using vector graphics instead of raster graphics to create animations?
a)
A. The file sizes are relatively small, resulting in shorter download times.
b)
B. Transfer delays are minimized because the animations download as streaming media.
c)
C. Transfer delays are minimized because portions of animations are stored in your local disk cache.
d)
D. The file sizes are relatively large, allowing you to create highly elaborate animations.
128.
Consider the following address:
http://www.CIWcertified.com/Certifications/Foundations/iba.htm
Which term best describes this address type?
a)
A. Fully qualified domain name
b)
B. Relative URL
c)
C. Deep URL
d)
D. IP address
129.
Which audio file format is inherently supported by most browsers?
a)
A. PDF
b)
B. AVI
c)
C. AU
d)
D. MPEG
130.
Consider the following address:
http://www.CIWcertified.com/courses/iba.htm
Which part of this address represents the server name on which this page resides?
a)
A. www
b)
B. .CIWcertifed.com
c)
C. /courses/
d)
D. .CIWcertified
131.
Which statement about compressing JPEG files is true?
a)
A. The more compression, the smaller the file size, but the lower the image quality.
b)
B. The more compression, the larger the file size, but the higher the image quality.
c)
C. The more compression, the larger the file size, but the lower the image quality.
d)
D. The more compression, the smaller the file size, but the higher the image quality.
132.
You want to be able to access active content directly from your browser. Which type of application provides the efficient integration of multimedia formats with a browser or computer that will enable you to do this?
a)
A. Viewer
b)
B. Object
c)
C. Applet
d)
D. Plug-in
133.
Which of the following plug-ins can be used to show MOV files, which can combine video, animation, text and audio into one file?
a)
A. Adobe Reader
b)
B. Windows Media Player
c)
C. Adobe Flash Player
d)
D. Apple QuickTime
134.
A Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is an Internet address that performs which task?
a)
A. Identifies the method by which an Internet resource is accessed
b)
B. Identifies the search string used to locate an Internet resource
c)
C. Locates an Internet resource using an e-mail server
d)
D. Locates an Internet resource using a search engine
135.
You recently returned from a vacation and you want to share some photos with your co-workers. You would like to share these photos via e-mail. What should you consider when attaching several high-resolution photos to an e-mail message?
a)
A. Security
b)
B. Privacy
c)
C. File size
d)
D. Transmission speed
136.
Sadie receives a verbally abusive voicemail from an angry customer who want to complain about a product, followed by several text messages from the customer asking why no one has returned his call yet. Sadie is due at a mandatory meeting with the company's executive managers. Which of the following is her best course of action?
a)
A. She should not respond to the customer because he has communicated inappropriately.
b)
B. She should send a brief text message to the customer requesting that he send his complaints via e-mail, so that further inappropriate communication will be well documented.
c)
C. She should send text messages to the customer during the meeting to placate him, and if he continues to be verbally abusive, it is acceptable for her to respond in the same abusive tone.
d)
D. She should skip the meeting and call the customer immediately to resolve the problem with him.
137.
Cheryl just started using a new e-mail client on her laptop computer. She wants to send an e-mail message with an attachment, but she does not see a button labeled "Attachment" on the client interface. What icon is commonly used on e-mail clients to invoke the Attachment option?
a)
A. Flag
b)
B. Lock
c)
C. Envelope
d)
D. Paperclip
138.
What is contained in your e-mail application's Outbox folder?
a)
A. Messages that have been sent to you by others
b)
A. Messages that have been sent to you by others
c)
C. Messages that are queued for sending
d)
D. Messages that you have sent to others
139.
Which of the following is a drawback of requiring SMTP authentication?
a)
A. The SMTP server will not send e-mail messages that are not digitally signed.
b)
B. Chances are increased that a hacker can use a packet sniffer to obtain a valid user name and password.
c)
C. The SMTP server may be used illicitly to send unsolicited junk mail.
d)
D. Chances are increased that a hacker can use a packet sniffer to obtain a valid digital certificate from the session.
140.
Why should you make judicious use of file attachments in e-mail messages?
a)
A. Users will not be able to delete e-mail messages as long as files are attached to them.
b)
B. File attachments cause e-mail threads to become longer than they already are.
c)
C. Large file attachments can take a long time to download.
d)
D. Attaching files to e-mail messages is not considered professional and should be avoided in the workplace.
141.
Which of the following can be considered an inappropriate use of e-mail communication in the workplace?
a)
A. Sharing files with a co-worker
b)
B. Disclosing confidential information
c)
C. Archiving e-mail threads for later retrieval
d)
D. Documenting the progress of a project
142.
Why should you create and use an e-mail signature for work-related e-mail messages?
a)
A. Including an e-mail signature with your messages ensures the privacy of your e-mail messages.
b)
B. An e-mail signature is a reminder to your recipients of your identity and the identity of your company.
c)
C. Including an e-mail signature with your messages makes it easier to recall e-mail messages that have been sent in error.
d)
D. An e-mail signature is an indication to your recipients that your e-mail messages are virus-free.
143.
Troy is project manager for a development team. After a short meeting to introduce a new project, he is preparing an e-mail message for his team that will assign some initial tasks to be completed that day. He has a list of action items for the team members to review and confirm. Which is the preferred approach to communicate important action items in an e-mail message?
a)
A. Include emoticons to ensure the recipients understand your humor.
b)
B. Write the action items using all capital letters.
c)
C. Describe all action items at length in a detailed paragraph in the middle of the message.
d)
D. List the action items in a numbered or bulleted list for clarity.
144.
What does a closed-envelope icon next to an e-mail message header indicate?
a)
A. A message that has not yet been read
b)
B. A message that has already been read
c)
C. A message marked for deletion
d)
D. A message marked for follow-up
145.
What distinguishes S/MIME from MIME?
a)
A. S/MIME controls the way that messages and attachments are organized and distinguished from one another, whereas MIME supports encryption and the use of digital certificates.
b)
B. S/MIME supports encryption and the use of digital certificates, whereas MIME controls the way that messages and attachments are organized and distinguished from one another.
c)
C. S/MIME controls the way attachments are organized and distinguished from one another, and it supports encryption; whereas MIME controls the way messages are organized and distinguished from one another, and it supports the use of digital certificates.
d)
D. S/MIME is designed specifically for servers, whereas MIME is designed specifically for individual clients.
146.
Which protocol was developed as an extension of SMTP that allows users to exchange various types of data files over the Internet?
a)
A. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
b)
B. Post Office Protocol (POP)
c)
C. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
d)
D. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME)
147.
You are part of a team that has been collaborating on a marketing document. The document is ready for final approval from the stakeholders. The team leader has sent the document to the stakeholders as an attachment to an e-mail. You notice that an important stakeholder was omitted from the recipient list. What should you do to ensure that the omitted stakeholder receives the document and receives future replies to the e-mail thread?
a)
A. Use the Reply All feature and include the omitted stakeholder's e-mail address.
b)
B. Use the Forward feature, add the omitted stakeholder's e-mail address and include the other e-mail addresses from the original message to alert the team to the oversight.
c)
C. Use the Forward feature to forward the message to the omitted stakeholder's e-mail address, then alert the team to the oversight in a separate message.
d)
D. Use the Forward All feature and include the omitted stakeholder's e-mail address.
148.
What is the purpose of an e-mail autoresponder?
a)
A. To automatically attach your signature information to the end of every e-mail message you forward
b)
B. To automatically attach your signature information to the end of every e-mail message you send
c)
C. To send an automated response to e-mail messages that your system is configured to discard as spam
d)
D. To send an automated response to e-mail messages received while you are out of the office for a planned absence
149.
Kjell received an e-mail message on which several other individuals were copied. He wants to respond to this message in a way that will include everyone who was copied on the original message. Which steps should he take with this e-mail?
a)
A. Click the Reply All button, enter his response, and click Send.
b)
B. Open a New message, enter the e-mail addresses of all the recipients, enter his response, and click Send.
c)
C. Click the Reply button, enter his response, and click Send.
d)
D. Click the Forward button, enter his response, and click Send.
150.
You want to send an e-mail message you received to another user who did not receive the original message. Which is the best way to do this?
a)
A. Ask the sender to re-send the original message and include the omitted user.
b)
B. Forward the message.
c)
C. Reply to the message.
d)
D, Copy the message text into a new message and send it to the omitted user.