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Worksheets

Full Syllabus (12th)

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Biomagnification is the process of

a)

breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and

minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats

b)

increased concentration of organic matter in aquatic ecosystem

c)

Increased concentration of toxicant in successive tropic level

d)

Magnifying objects placed under EM

2.

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Unlike tropical one, temperate environment are less seasonal and are relatively more constant.

Statement II: Constant environment provides niche specialization and leads to greater species diversity.

Statement III: More solar energy is available in the tropics, contributes to its higher productivity.

a)

Only statement I is correct.

b)

Statement I and III are correct.

c)

Statement II and III are correct.

d)

All the statements are correct.

3.

Which of the following is not a consequence due to loss of biodiversity in ecosystem?

a)

Decline in plant production

b)

Increased variability in in ecosystem processes

c)

Increased resistance to environmental perturbations

d)

Co-extinction

4.

Consider the following statement and mark the correct option.

Statement I: The ethical argument for conserving biodiversity says that we have a moral duty to care for biodiversity and pass on it to future generations.

Statement II: According to broadly utilitarian argument, biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.

a)

Only statement I is correct.

b)

Only statement Ii is correct.

c)

Both the statements are correct.

d)

Both the statements are incorrect.

5.

Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

a)

Effluents of primary treatment

b)

Activated sludge

c)

Primary sludge

d)

Floating debris

6.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of steps involved in breeding a new genetic variety of a crop?

a. Selection and testing of superior recombinants

b. Germplasm collection

c. Cross hybridisation among the selected parents

d. Evaluation and selection

e. Testing, release, and commercialization of new cultivars

a)

b, d, c, a, and e

b)

a, b, d, c, and e

c)

c, d, a, b, and e

d)

b, c, a, d, and e

7.

Statins used for lowering blood cholesterol level are extracted from

a)

algae

b)

bacteria

c)

viruses

d)

yeast

8.

Toddy is prepared by the fermentation of the sap obtained from

a)

palms.

b)

bamboo.

c)

grapes.

d)

Cycas.

9.

Green plants convert sunlight energy into the energy of

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Hydrogen bond

c)

Chemical bond

d)

Hydrophobic bond

10.

Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by:

a)

Autotroph

b)

Consumer

c)

Decomposer

d)

Producer

11.

Pyramid of biomass for a terrestrial grazing food chain represents

a)

gradual decrease in biomass from apex to base

b)

gradual decrease in biomass from producers to the tertiary consumers

c)

gradual increase of the biomass from producers to the tertiary consumers

d)

no change in biomass

12.

Study the following statements and select the incorrect one.

a)

Shorter food chains provide more energy as compared to longer food chains.

b)

Ecological factors connected with physical geography of earth are called topographic factors.

c)

The pyramid of biomass is upright in a grassland ecosystem and the pyramid of numbers is upright in a parasitic food chain.

d)

None of these

13.

Read the following statements and select the correct ones.

(i) Ahmed Khan, a plastic sack manufacturer of Bangalore, in 1998, developed polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic.

(ii) In collaboration with RV College of Engineering and Bangalore City Corporation, he proved that the mixture of polyblend and bitumen was better for road carpeting as it had better water repellent property.

(iii) By 2002, more than 40 km roads of Bangalore were laid with the help of Khan's mixture.

(iv) Rag pickers who used to get INR 0.40 per kg of plastic waste started getting INR 6.00 from Ahmed Khan,

a)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

b)

(ii), (iv) only

c)

(iii), (iv) only

d)

All of these

14.

Select the correct statement out of the following.

a)

Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can remove over 99% particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.

b)

Over half of the e-wastes generated in developed countries are exported to developing countries, mainly to China, India and Pakistan, where metals like Cu, Fe, Si, Ni, etc., are recovered during recycling process.

c)

Use of nuclear energy has two very serious inherent problems first is accidental leakage and the second is safe disposal of radioactive wastes.

d)

All of these

15.

A Scrubber

a)

can remove gases like ozone and CFC.

b)

is equipped with a spray of water or lime through which exhaust containing gases such as SO2 is allowed to pass.

c)

is the most widely used technique to remove particulate matter.

d)

is fitted in automobiles to reduce the emission of poisonous gases.

16.

Statement I: Montreal Protocol signed in 1987 aims to control the emission of ozone-depleting substances.

Statement II: The idea of laying roads with a mixture of polyblend and bitumen was suggested by Ramesh Chandra Dagar.

a)

Both statements are correct

b)

Only statement I is correct

c)

Only statement II is correct

d)

Both the statements are incorrect

17.

Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4) green-house gases that contribute to the total global warming?

a)

CFCs 14%, CH4 20%

b)

CO2 40%, CFCs 30%

c)

N2O 6%, CO2 86%

d)

CH4 20%, N2O 18%

18.

In eukaryotes, non-coding intervening sequences present in the product of transcription are known as

a)

Exons

b)

Cistron

c)

Introns

d)

Polysome

19.

A DNA molecule has 45% guanine in it. What will be the percentage of adenine in this DNA molecule?

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

45%

d)

25%

20.

The number of N-glycosidic bonds present in single stranded viral DNA having 5346 nucleotides are

a)

5346

b)

5345

c)

10,692

d)

10,690

21.

In prokaryotes,

a)

Translation and transcription can occur simultaneously in cytosol.

b)

There are at least three RNA polymerases in the nucleus.

c)

Heterogenous nuclear RNA undergoes a process of removal of introns known as splicing.

d)

The transcribed RNA consists of poly A tail at 3’ end.

22.

Semi-conservative nature of DNA replication was first shown in

a)

Bacteriophages

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Human cells

d)

Escherichia coli

23.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps taking place during translation?

a) Aminoacylation of tRNA

b) Initiation

c) Termination

d) Elongation

a)

a,b,d,c

b)

b,c,d,a

c)

a,c,d,b

d)

a,d,c,b

24.

What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Nucleosomes

c)

Base pairs

d)

Gene

25.

Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?

a)

Rhizobium

b)

Nostoc

c)

Mycorrhiza

d)

Agrobacterium

26.

The experiment, which proved conclusively that during infection only DNA of the bacteriophage enters the host cell and the protein coat remains behind, was conducted by

a)

F. Griffith

b)

Avery, Macleod and Mc Carty

c)

Sutton and Boveri

d)

Hershey and Chase

27.

In phenylketonuria

a)

Break down of phenylalanine is rapid

b)

Accumulation of phenylalanine in body

c)

Chromosomal constitution of patient changes

d)

TSD gene situated on chromosome 15 undergoes mutation

28.

Which of the following correctly defines the purity of gametes?

a)

Law of independent assortment

b)

Law of segregation

c)

Blending inheritance

d)

Co-dominance

29.

A normal-visioned man whose father was color blind marries a woman whose father was also colorblind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances. That this child would be colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

0%

c)

25%

d)

50%

30.

Mendel failed to get linkage during his experiments because

a)

Genes selected by him were located on the same chromosome

b)

Genes selected by him was discrete and unstable

c)

The 7 character which he selected for studies were behaving independently

d)

None of the pea characters show linkage

31.

In a cross one parent is heterozygous, and other one is homozygous. What will be the genotype of the F1 progeny?

a)

50% progeny will be identical to one parent 50% progeny will be identical to another parent.

b)

50% progeny will be identical to one parent 25% progeny will be identical to another parent

c)

25% progeny will be identical to one parent 25% progeny will be identical to another parent

d)

100% identical to only one of the parents.

32.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option:

a) The number of linkage groups is equivalent to haploid number of chromosomes in Human females.

b) Close linkage between genes of cultivated varieties makes it easier for plant breeders to bring all desirable traits in one variety.

a)

Only a is correct

b)

Only b is correct

c)

Both a and b are correct

d)

Both a and b are incorrect

33.

Identify the correct statements.

a)

Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by using fruit flies.

b)

Sutton and Boveri coined the term ‘Linkage’

c)

The male Drosophila are larger in size than female Drosophila

d)

Genetic mapping of genes is based on their independent assortment.

34.

In a population of 960 progenies obtained as a result of monohybrid cross between two axially and terminally placed flower in Pisum sativum. Assuming complete segregation in the gamete formation, how many progenies will be having terminally located flowers?

a)

240

b)

720

c)

480

d)

143

35.

The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called

a)

recessive characters

b)

dominant characters

c)

holandric characters

d)

lethal characters

36.

In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, percentage of pure homozygous individuals obtained in F1 generation will be

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

37.

Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in.

a)

5 years

b)

12 years

c)

20 years

d)

50 years

38.

Monoecious plant of Chara shows the occurrence of:

a)

stamen and carpel of the same plant

b)

upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

c)

upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

d)

antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant

39.

In Amoeba, binary fission is a process in which

a)

Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis

b)

Nucleus is divided into many daughter nuclei

c)

The resulting daughter cells do not resemble with their parents

d)

Without nuclear division only cytoplasm divides

40.

During embryogenesis, the event that does not occur is

a)

Cell division

b)

Cell differentiation

c)

Gameotogenesis

d)

Both A and C

41.

Parthenogenesis is the process of formation of

a)

Fruit without seed

b)

Organism without fertilisation

c)

Seed without fertilization

d)

Both A and C

42.

Carpels are equal to

a)

Androecium

b)

Embryo sac

c)

Microsporophylls

d)

Gynoecium

43.

Mesogamy is

a)

fusion of male and female gametes

b)

fusion of physiologically similar and morphologically different gametes

c)

entry of pollen tube through integuments

d)

None of the above

44.

Egg apparatus

a)

Is a 7 called 8 nucleated structure

b)

Is composed of diploid cells

c)

Is present towards the micropylar end of embryo sac

d)

Is not a part of female gametophyte

45.

Number of pollen grains formed from the 4 sporogenous cells in an anther are

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

16