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science gcse

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a chemical energy store?

a)

the energy stored in the movement of an object

b)

the energy stored in food, fuels and chemicals found in batteries

c)

the energy found in hot objects such as a cup of tea

d)

the energy stored in the sea

2.

Give an example of a thermal energy store

a)

a book

b)

a train

c)

a hot cup of tea

d)

a pencil

3.

Can energy be transferred between stores?

a)

yes

b)

no

4.

As a coal fire burns, the chemical energy store decreases and the ________________ store increases

a)

thermal

b)

kinetic

c)

elastic

d)

gravitational potential

5.

As a skydiver falls, their speed increases. Their gravitational potential energy store decreases, and their __________ energy store increases

a)

thermal

b)

kinetic

6.

When does Friction happen

a)

It happens when an object falls off a shelf

b)

It happens when an object gets hot

c)

It happens when the sun is out

d)

It happens between the moving parts of a device

7.

What is useful energy?

a)

energy transferred into an energy store that is wanted

b)

energy transferred into an energy store that is not wanted

8.

What is the energy that is spread out into the surroundings called?

a)

Useful energy

b)

Wasted energy

c)

Dissipated energy

9.

True or false: "Energy cannot be created or destroyed".

a)

False

b)

True

10.

When a radio is on, what kind of energy does it produce?

a)

light

b)

sound

c)

gravitational potential

d)

thermal

11.

What three things are fossil fuels?

a)

sun, clouds, sky

b)

coal, trees, gas

c)

gas, stones, rocks

d)

coal, oil, gas

12.

What is one of the problems with fossil fuels?

a)

they are bad for the environment

b)

they will run out

c)

they are expensive

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

13.

What are energy sources that wont run out called?

a)

renewable

b)

non-renewable

c)

everlasting

d)

invincible

14.

What are Hydroelectric, Waves and Tidal energy generated from?

a)

soil

b)

water

c)

fire

d)

ice

15.

What does solar radiation transfer energy from?

a)

the sky

b)

the clouds

c)

the sun

d)

the moon

16.

Which two of these energy resources are non-renewable?

a)

oil

b)

biofuel

c)

geothermal

d)

coal

17.

How close a measurement is to the true value is called..

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Significant

d)

Estimate

18.

When a measurement is repeatable it is said to have...

a)

High precision

b)

Low precision

c)

High accuracy

d)

Low accuracy

19.
This bullseye demonstrates...
a)
High Accuracy & High Precision
b)
High Accuracy & Low Precision
c)
Low Accuracy & High Precision
d)
Low Accuracy & Low Precision
20.

A measurement where it is made by the same person taking repeats using the same method and equipment and obtains the same results is said to be .....

a)

Reproducible

b)

Consistent

c)

Accurate

d)

Precise

e)

Repeatable

21.

A measurement where it is repeated by a different person, or by using different equipment or techniques, and the same results are obtained is said to be .......

a)

Reproducible

b)

Consistent

c)

Precise

d)

Accurate

e)

Repeatable

22.

Describe in detail how you could obtain more accurate results. (3 Marks)

a)

Calculate mean

b)

Remove anomalous results

c)

plot a graph, draw a line of best & ignore anomalous points

d)

Repeat experiment

e)

Share results

23.

It is better to repeat each measurement at least three times.

Explain why this is likely to give a more accurate result. (3 marks)

a)

Anomalous results to be detected & removed

b)

A mean to be calculated

c)

Reduces random errors.

d)

Shows a pattern

e)

Results are more precise

24.

Some students in your class may have done an investigation to test the same hypothesis. Explain how using the results of other people may help you decide if your investigation is reproducible. 3 marks

a)

Results should be compared to see if they are similar.

b)

Need the same pattern or trend is present results for investigation to be reproducible

c)

Other group must use the same variables to compare

d)

Other group must use the same chemicals/equipment to compare.

e)

Need the exact same results for the investigation is reproducible.

25.

Describe briefly how you would do a preliminary investigation to find a suitable value for your control variable (3 marks)

a)

Decide on a value for the control variable.

b)

Do the experiment for the highest and lowest value you intend to do for the dependent variable.

c)

Do the experiment for the highest and lowest value you intend to do for the independent variable.

d)

A suitable control variable will show a clear pattern between the two results, if results are the same repeat with a different control variable value.

26.

When doing an investigation a student noticed the reading on the balance was 0.12 g when nothing was on it.

State what type of error this is.

Describe two ways the student could overcome this error.

(3 marks)

a)

Zero error

b)

Random error

c)

Zero the balance then repeat the readings,

d)

Subtract 0.12 g from the readings obtained

e)

Ignore this as all the results will be the same anyway!

27.

Hypothesis : ‘Increasing the concentration of a reactant in a chemical reaction will decrease the time it takes for the reaction to finish.’


What is the independent variable?

a)

Concentration of reactant

b)

Temperature of reactant

c)

Time taken for reaction to finish

d)

Amount of reactant

e)

Volume of reactant

28.

Hypothesis : ‘Increasing the concentration of a reactant in a chemical reaction will decrease the time it takes for the reaction to finish.’


What is the dependent variable?

a)

Concentration of reactant

b)

Temperature of reactant

c)

Time taken for reaction to finish

d)

Amount of reactant

e)

Volume of reactant

29.

Hypothesis : ‘Increasing the concentration of a reactant in a chemical reaction will decrease the time it takes for the reaction to finish.’


What could be control variables in this experiment?

a)

Concentration of reactant

b)

Temperature of reactant

c)

Time taken for reaction to finish

d)

Amount of reactant

e)

Volume of reactant

30.

What would be defined as the quantity between readings, eg a set of 11 readings equally spaced over a distance of 1 metre would give an interval of 10 centimetres

a)

Interval

b)

Range

c)

Resolution

d)

Uncertainty

31.

What would be defined as the smallest change in the quantity being measured of a measuring instrument that gives a perceptible change in the reading.

a)

Resolution

b)

Precision

c)

Uncertainty

d)

Variable

32.

What would be defined as the interval within which the true value can be expected to lie, with a given level of confidence or probability, eg 'the temperature is 20 °C ± 2 °C

a)

Range

b)

Uncertainty

c)

Resolution

d)

Precision

33.

Use numbers given in the questions to work out the answer.

a)

Determine

b)

Calculate

c)

Measure

d)

Describe

34.

Use numbers given in the questions to work out the answer.

a)

Determine

b)

Calculate

c)

Measure

d)

Describe

35.

Only a short answer is required, not an explanation or a description.

a)

Write

b)

Give

c)

Explain

d)

Determine

36.

This answer must be based on the information given in the question. Without this, marks will not be awarded.

a)

Suggest

b)

Write

c)

Use

d)

Draw

37.

This term means - apply your knowledge and understanding to a new situation.

a)

Sketch

b)

Describe

c)

Complete

d)

Suggest

38.

Sketch

a)

Draw approximately

b)

Draw accurately

c)

Colour in

39.

Provide structured evidence to reach a conclusion.

a)

Show

b)

Sketch

c)

Define

d)

Describe

40.

Give a plausible outcome

a)

Plot

b)

Plan

c)

Name

d)

Predict

41.

Mark on a graph using data given

a)

Sketch

b)

Draw

c)

Plot

d)

Plan

42.

Write a method

a)

Label

b)

Measure

c)

Plan

d)

Determine

43.

Find an item of data for a given quantity

a)

Label

b)

Measure

c)

Evaluate

d)

Estimate

44.

Provide appropriate names on a diagram

a)

Give

b)

Predict

c)

Justify

d)

Label

45.

Justify

a)

Use evidence from the information to support an answer

b)

Assign an approximate value

46.

Identify

a)

Name or otherwise characterise

b)

Mark on a graph using data given

c)

Recall some facts, events or process in an accurate way

47.

Make something clear, state a reason for it happening. Give scientific reasons.

a)

Explain

b)

Estimate

c)

Evaluate

48.

Use the information supplied, as well as knowledge and understanding, to consider evidence for and against.

a)

Estimate

b)

Plan

c)

Suggest

d)

Evaluate

49.

Assign an approximate value

a)

Calculate

b)

Estimate

c)

Plot

50.

Produce or add to a diagram

a)

Choose

b)

Plan

c)

Draw

d)

Show

51.

Use given data or information to obtain an answer

a)

Determine

b)

Describe

c)

Explain

d)

Predict

52.

Design

a)

Set out how something will be done

b)

Specify the meaning of something

c)

Recall some facts, events or process in an accurate way

53.

Describe

a)

Recall some facts, events or process in an accurate way.

b)

Give the scientific reason behind why something happened

54.

Describe the similarities and/or differences between things, not just write about one

a)

Complete

b)

Choose

c)

Calculate

d)

Compare

55.

Select from a range of alternatives

a)

Complete

b)

Compare

c)

Choose

56.

Answers should be written in the space provided - on a diagram, in spaces in a sentence or in a table.

a)

Complete

b)

Explain

c)

Justify

57.

which ones aren't contact forces?

a)

tension

b)

air resistance

c)

lift

d)

friction

e)

gravitational force

58.

a scientific quantity that has a magnitude but NO direction

a)

vector

b)

scalar

59.

which is the correct formula for weight?

a)

weight x mass = gravitational field strength

b)

mass ÷ gravitational field strength = weight

c)

mass x gravitational field strength = weight

60.

what is weight measured in?

a)

newton meters

b)

grams

c)

newtons

d)

kilograms

61.

QUESTION:


A car has a mass of 10,000 kg. What is the WEIGHT of the car?


(Use 10n/kg as the value of gfs)

a)

1,000 N

b)

100,000 N

c)

10,000 N

d)

100 N

62.

what is a resultant force?

a)

the overall effect of more than two forces acting on an object

b)

the overall effect of weight acting on an object

c)

the overall effect of more than one force acting on an object

63.

a free body force diagram is used to show the ?????? acting on an object.

(a)  

64.

if the resultant force on an object is zero it will ?????

a)

the direction may change

b)

it will continue at the same speed

c)

it will stay still

d)

the speed will change

65.

if the resultant force of an object is NOT zero it will ????

a)

the speed will change

b)

it will continue at the same speed

c)

it will stay still

d)

the direction may change

66.

what is this an example of?

a)

parallelogram of forces diagram

b)

centre of mass diagram

c)

scale vector diagram

d)

free body force diagram

67.

which is the correct definition of

"work done"

a)

when chemical energy turns into mechanical energy and enables work to be done

b)

when energy is transferred and an action takes place because of that

c)

when food is eaten to create energy so we can move

68.

what is the correct equation for work done?

a)

force x distance

b)

force x work done

c)

distance ÷ force

69.

what equipment do you use to draw a scale vector diagram?

a)

ruler

b)

pencil

c)

protaractor

d)

compass

70.

what equipment do you use for a parallelogram for forces diagram?

a)

pencil

b)

ruler

c)

protractor

d)

compass

71.
What is chemical analysis?
a)
Identifying unknown substances
b)
Analytical chemistry
c)
Identifying known substances
d)
Chemical experiments
72.
In everyday language what is a "pure" substance?
a)
Made of one compound
b)
No additives
c)
A mixture
d)
Clean
73.
In chemistry what is a "pure" substance?
a)
No additives
b)
A mixture
c)
Made of one element/compound only
d)
A formulation
74.
How can pure substances be distinguished from impure ones?
a)
Melting/boiling points
b)
Colour
c)
Smell
d)
Temperature
75.
Describe the melting and boiling points of pure substances
a)
Range of temperature
b)
Fixed
c)
Different temperature
d)
One very specific temperature
76.
Describe the melting and boiling points of impure substances
a)
Fixed
b)
Range of temperature
c)
Different temperature
d)
One very specific temperature
77.
What is a formulation?
a)
Milk
b)
A designed mixture
c)
Calculation
d)
A random mixture
78.
Give an example of a formulation
a)
Chlorine
b)
Acetone
c)
Paint
d)
Oxygen
79.
Name a process to separate the constituents of a mixture
a)
Oxidation
b)
Displacement
c)
Chromotography
d)
Combustion
80.
In paper chromatography, what is the mobile phase?
a)
Pencil line
b)
Paper
c)
Ink
d)
Solvent e.g. water
81.
How can chromatography show pure or impure substances?
a)
Impure = no dots
b)
Pure = many dots
c)
Impure = single dot
d)
Pure = single dot
82.
What value is equal to [dot distance / solvent front distance]?
a)
Rf
b)
Mr
c)
Ar
d)
Moles
83.
What does a substance's Rf value depend on?
a)
Solubility
b)
Gravity
c)
Size of compound
d)
Colour
84.
In chromatography, why is a pencil used to draw the line?
a)
It’s insoluble
b)
It's soluble
c)
It's sharper
d)
Neutral colour
85.
In chromatography, where must the solvent height be compared to the pencil line?
a)
Above
b)
Below
c)
Level with
d)
Doesn't matter
e)
On
86.
A squeaky-pop when a gas is lit shows the presence of which gas?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Chlorine
d)
Carbon Dioxide
e)
Helium
87.
What type of gas is able to relight a glowing splint?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Chlorine
d)
Carbon Dioxide
e)
Helium
88.
A gas that turns limewater from colourless to cloudy is?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Hydrgogen
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Chlorine
e)
Helium
89.
A gas that turns damp blue litmus paper from blue to red and then white is?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Chlorine
e)
Helium
90.

Farmers use fertilizers to increase the....

a)

Magnesium

b)

Carbon

c)

Mangan

d)

Nitrogen

91.

Using fertilisers improves...

a)

Farmer's life

b)

Crop production

c)

Ecosystem

d)

Habitat for animals

92.

The main chemical compound in fertiliser is

a)

Ammonium nitrate

b)

Ammonia

c)

Potassium Chloride

d)

Sodium Sulphate

93.

Starting material for making ammonium nitrate is...

a)

Ammonia gas and Sulphuric Acid

b)

Ammonium ion and Hydrochloric Acid

c)

Ammonia gas and Nitric Acid

d)

Sodium Hydroxide and Nitric Acid

94.

Ammonia is made from

a)

Nitrogen and Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen and Hydrogen

c)

Hydrogen and Ammonia

d)

Hydrogen and Nitric Acid

95.

The process of making ammonia is called as...

a)

Haber

b)

Contact

c)

Blast Furnace

d)

Electrolysis

96.

NPK fertilizers contains

a)

Natrium, Phosphorus, Kalium

b)

Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium

c)

Neon, Potassium, Krypton

d)

Natrium, Potassium, Sodium

97.

What is the reaction above called?

a)

Redox

b)

Displacement

c)

Neutralisation

d)

Oxidation

98.

A catalyst is required for making of Ammonia in the Haber process. Which below is the catalyst?

a)

Iron

b)

Lead

c)

Mangan

d)

Potassium

99.

Hydrogen gas used to make ammonia are made through?

a)

Cracking of Ethane

b)

Neutralization process

c)

Electrolysis of water

d)

Metal reacting with acids

100.

1 part of Nitrogen gas reacts with 3 parts of Hydrogen gas to make.....

a)

1 part of Ammonia

b)

2 parts of Ammonia

c)

3 parts of Ammonia

d)

4 parts of Ammonia

101.

What is the conditions required in Haber process ?

a)

300 atm and 150oC

b)

450 atm and 200oC

c)

400 atm and 100oC

d)

200 atm and 450oC

102.

Which organelle controls the actitivies of the cell and contains DNA?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

103.

Which organelle is where aerobic respiration occurs?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Ribosome

104.

Which organelle is where protein synthesis happens?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleus

105.

What is the function of the cytoplasm?

a)

To control what enters and exits a cell.

b)

It is where chemical reactions occur.

c)

To control the activities of a cell.

d)

It is where photosynthesis happens.

106.

What is the name of the process where particles move from a high concentration to a low concentration (down a concentration gradient)?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

107.

Which statement is false about active transport?

a)

It requires energy.

b)

It requires a membrane.

c)

It moves particles down the concentration gradient.

d)

It moves particles against the concentration gradient.

108.

Which statement is false about eukaryotic cells?

a)

They can have mitochondria, chloroplasts and vacuoles.

b)

They have a nucleus

c)

They are much smaller than prokaryotic cells.

d)

Animal and plant cells are examples of eukaryotic cells.

109.

What are the levels of living organisms from smallest to largest?

a)

Tissue - Organ Systems - Cells - Organs - Organism

b)

Cells - Tissue - Organs - Organ Systems - Organisms

c)

Organs - Organ Systems - Organisms - Cells - Tissue

d)

Cells - Tissue - Organisms - Organ Systems - Organs

110.

Lipase breaks down (a)   molecules.

111.

Amylase breaks down (a)   molecules.

112.

What does Bile do in digestion?

a)

Protects the cells in the stomach lining from the acid inside it.

b)

Allows the lock and key model of the enzymes to work more efficently.

c)

Creates better conditions for good bacteria to grow in digestive system.

d)

Emulsifise (break down) fats.

113.
Rose black spot is caused by a…?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungi
d)
Protist
114.
Salmonella food poisoning is caused by…?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protist
115.
These live and reproduce inside your cells…?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protist
116.
What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons only
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Electrons 
117.
Which subatomic particles contribute the most to the mass of an atom?
a)
Protons, Neutrons, Electrons
b)
Protons only
c)
Protons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Neutrons
118.
The particles of the atom you can find by knowing the atomic number.
a)
neutrons
b)
protons and electrons
c)
protons and neutrons
d)
atomic mass
119.
What is the atomic mass of the atom pictured? 
a)
9
b)
10
c)
18
d)
19
120.

How are elements arranged in the Periodic Table?

a)

In rows called columns, by increasing mass number.

b)

In rows called periods, by increasing mass number.

c)

In rows called columns, by increasing atomic number.

d)

In rows called periods, by increasing atomic number.

121.

Mendeleev’s Periodic Table was revolutionary because:

a)

He ordered elements by both their properties and their atomic number.

b)

He left gaps for undiscovered elements.

c)

He used his Periodic Table to make predictions about undiscovered elements.

d)

He ordered elements by both their properties and their atomic mass.

122.

Reduction is:

a)

Gain of oxygen

b)

Loss of oxygen

c)

Gain of electrons

d)

Loss of electrons.

123.
What type of bonding occurs between chlorine and fluorine molecules?
a)
Ionic
b)
Metallic
c)
Weak intermolecular force
d)
Covalent
e)
Atomic
124.
Covalent bonds occur when electrons are ….
a)
Discharged
b)
Delocalised
c)
Transferred
d)
Lost
e)
Shared
125.
What type structure is diamond, graphite and silicon dioxide?
a)
Giant ionic
b)
Giant covalent
c)
Simple molecule
d)
Giant metallic
e)
Monatomic
126.
What forces exist between simple molecules only?
a)
Strong nuclear
b)
Weak nuclear
c)
Weak intermolecular
d)
Electrostatic
127.
Which of these substances have weak intermolecular forces hence low boiling points?
a)
Sodium Chloride
b)
Copper
c)
Buckminster fullerene
d)
Methane
e)
Sand
128.
Explain why graphite can act as a lubricant
a)
High melting point
b)
Low melting point
c)
Is a metal
d)
Free electrons
e)
Layers slide
129.
How many double bonds in the compound?
a)
1
b)
6
c)
12
d)
5
130.
What type of organic compound is it?
a)
alkane
b)
alkene
c)
alkyne
d)
amino acid
131.
How many bonds does Carbon need to become stable?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
132.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
133.
In an endothermic reaction the products have 
a)
more energy than the reactants
b)
less energy than the reactants
c)
the same energy as the reactants
d)
no energy
134.
In an exothermic reaction the products have
a)
more energy than the reactants
b)
the same energy as the reactants
c)
less energy than the reactants
d)
no energy
135.
If a chemical reaction is EXOTHERMIC, the temperature would....
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
136.

Which of these physical changes is endothermic?

a)

Condensation

b)

Freezing

c)

Evaporation

137.

Which energy store is missing? Magnetic, electrostatic, nuclear, gravitational, elastic, thermal, chemical and....

a)

heating

b)

lighting

c)

kinetic

d)

sounding

138.

When a kettle boils, energy is transferred from the electrostatic store to the _________________ energy store.

a)

chemical

b)

kinetic

c)

elastic

d)

thermal

139.

Work done is another way of saying energy is transferred. What are the units of measurement fir work done?

a)

kilograms

b)

Joules

c)

Degrees celcius

d)

Joules per kilogram degrees celcius

140.

What is the unit of measurement for mass?

a)

grams

b)

kilograms

c)

metres

d)

metres per second

141.

Efficiency = useful energy ÷\div  total energy. Torch A transfers 1200J of energy per minute. 480J of this energy is useful. Calculate the efficiency.

a)

40%

b)

41%

c)

42%

d)

50%

142.

The graph below shows how the current through a filament lamp changes after the lamp is switched on.


Why might the filament inside a lamp melt when the lamp is first switched on?

a)

The current changes rapidly.

b)

The current drops away quickly.

c)

The wire might be brittle.

d)

The current goes higher than normal value.

143.

The graph below shows how the current through a filament lamp changes after the lamp is switched on.


The normal current through the filament lamp is 1.5 A.

For how many seconds is the current through the filament lamp greater than 1.5 A?

a)

0.01 s

b)

0.08 s

c)

0.09 s

d)

0.14 s

144.

LED lamps are much more efficient than filament lamps.

What does this statement mean?

a)

LED lamps have a similar power output to filament lamps.

b)

LED lamps waste a smaller proportion of the input energy than filament lamps.

c)

LED lamps have a higher power input than filament lamps.

d)

LED lamps waste a larger proportion of the input energy than filament lamps.

145.

Figure 1 shows the inside of a battery pack designed to hold three identical 1.5 V cells.

Which one of the arrangements shown in Figure 2 would give a 4.5 V output across the battery pack terminals T?

a)
b)
c)
d)
146.

A student set up the electrical circuit shown in the figure.

What line best describes what happens to the total resistance of the circuit and the current through the circuit when switch S is closed.

a)

Total resistance decreases, so current decreases

b)

Total resistance decreases, so current increases

c)

Total resistance decreases, so voltage decreases.

d)

Total resistance increases, so current decreases.

e)

Total resistance increases, so current increases.

147.

Select ALL of the items that are made of atoms:

a)

Desk

b)

Pencil

c)

Plants

d)

People

148.

What element or elements are present in the molecule: CO2 ? (use the periodic table in your folders to check)

a)

Cobalt

b)

Carbon and Oxygen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Chlorine

149.

Which of the following is not a molecule:

a)
b)
c)
150.

How many total atoms make up the molecule NaCl ?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

151.

How many Nitrogen atoms are in the molecule NH3 ?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

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