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Worksheets

Resource & Technology Grade 9

Total questions: 174

Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What color tags are on the rubber gloves with the highest level of protection?
a)
black
b)
red
c)
orange
d)
yellow
2.
Insulating gloves must be inspected by the user?
a)
before each use
b)
weekly
c)
monthly
d)
yearly
3.
The normal beating of a heart can be upset by an electrical current as small as?
a)
1mA
b)
30mA
c)
75mA
d)
1,000mA
4.
Which factor determines the outcome of an electrical shock?
a)
The amount of current
b)
Which phase is involved
c)
The raceway system
d)
The size of the electrical equipment being used
5.
A live-dead-live test is conducted in order to?
a)
disconnect switches and fuses
b)
verify the test instrument operation
c)
make sure the capacitors are discharged
d)
verify that a circuit is de-energized
6.
What must happen before any work may be performed in a confined space?
a)
Classification by a qualified individual
b)
Shut off and lock out power sources
c)
Entry and inspection of hazards
d)
Installation of additional ventilation
7.

It is a good idea to not plug too many things into one outlet, since there is a risk of overloading the circuit at that outlet.

a)

true

b)

false

8.

It is generally okay to use electrical devices around water if you use a good quality extension cord.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

An electrical ground provides a alternative path for current if something goes wrong in a circuit or device.

a)

true

b)

false

10.
Your body is a conductor of electricity.
a)
true
b)
false
11.
In the event that someone is being shocked by electricity you would never ________________.
a)

turn off the power source

b)

call 999

c)
touch them
d)
yell for help
12.
The fuse in a circuit melts when:
a)
An appliance isn't earthed
b)
Too much current flows
c)
Too much voltage flows
13.
What's the first thing you should do if someone is shocked electrically?
a)
Use the fire extinguisher
b)
Check for breathing and heartbeat
c)
Turn off the power source
d)
Remove the person from the power source
14.
It is much safer to pull an electrical cord by pulling the cord instead of the plug.  
a)
True
b)
False
15.

Select the correct statements about the neutral wire in a plug.

a)

It is brown

b)

It is blue

c)

It has green and yellow stripes

d)

It is at 0 V.

e)

It is at 230 V.

16.

Select the correct statements about the earth wire in a plug.

a)

It is brown

b)

It is blue

c)

It has green and yellow stripes

d)

It is at 0 V.

e)

It is at 230 V.

17.

In a plug, the fuse is connected to the (a)   wire.

18.

Select the correct advantages of circuit breakers over fuses.

a)

Circuit breakers can be reset.

b)

Circuit breakers are cheaper.

c)

Circuit breakers stop the current faster.

19.
It is always advisable to ask questions about the things you do not fully understand before doing electrical wiring work.  
a)
True
b)
False
20.
Never work on an electrical circuit until you have turned off the circuit breaker.  
a)
True
b)
False
21.
Cords and power tools should always be inspected for visual defects before using.  
a)
True
b)
False
22.
It is better to use electrical power tools that has a missing or damaged grounding prong.  
a)
True
b)
False
23.
Overloading a circuit with too many appliances could cause overheating and fire.  
a)
True
b)
False
24.
It is important to report accidents to your instructor, no matter how small they may seem to be.  
a)
True
b)
False
25.
It is unsafe for you to work with electricity when you are wet or standing in water.  
a)
True
b)
False
26.

What are the best ways to put out electrical fires? (more than one option)

a)

Using water

b)

Nothing. Just let it burn out

c)

Fire extinguisher

d)

Fire blanket

27.

Is this dangerous? Why?

a)

Yes. The fork is made of metal. The child can get electrocuted.

b)

No. The fork is made of metal. Nothing will happen.

c)

No. The child is an insulator so he can't be electrocuted.

d)

No. The switch is off. It is safe.

28.

Electricity is a form of _____.

a)

energy

b)

life

c)

food

d)

machine

29.

Which of these materials is a good conductor of electricity?

a)

Rubber

b)

Metal

c)

Newspaper

d)

Glass

30.

What supplies the energy or power in an electric circuit?

a)

light bulb

b)

wire

c)

battery

31.

Identify this tool

a)

Digital multimeter

b)

Digital therometer

c)

Digital pedometer

d)

Digital weight scale

32.

An electrical kettle is rated 500W. What physical quantity does 500W represent?

a)

Power

b)

Current

c)

Resistance

d)

Voltage

33.

Name this instrument.

a)

Ammeter

b)

Voltmeter

c)

Multimeter

34.

Name this instrument.

a)

Ammeter

b)

Voltmeter

c)

Multimeter

35.
Choose the true statement below concerning DC currents:
a)
DC stands for Direct Computing and electrons flow in multiple pathways
b)
DC stands for direct current and electrons flow in multiple directions
c)
DC stands for direct current and the electrons do not flow
d)
DC stands for direct current and the electrons flow in only one direction
36.
Current is measured in:
a)
Ohms
b)
Voltage
c)
Amperes
d)
Watts
37.
The symbol for voltage is: 
a)
Vo
b)
V
c)
W
d)
Amp
38.

What type of multimeter has a needle gauge?

a)

analog multimeter

b)

digital multimeter

c)

electrical multimeter

d)

mechanical dual multimeter

39.

What do you call that symbol?

a)

resistance

b)

current

c)

microfarad

d)

ohm

40.

Which of the following is the symbol for AC voltage?

a)

---

b)

u

c)

.)))

d)

~

41.

On a multimeter which wire is used for what?

a)

the red probe is used for positive, and the black probe is used for negative

b)

the red probe is used for negative, and the black probe is used for positive

42.

What is a multimeter?

a)

a tool used to estimate distance current travels

b)

a tool used to find a correct locaton

c)

a tool used to measure electricity

d)

a tool used to measure electronics

43.

An electrician taking a voltage reading, wearing all the correct PPE, stands no chance of getting injured.

a)

True

b)

False

44.
An epi pen is used for someone who is having
a)
heart attack
b)
stroke
c)
allergic reaction
d)
seizure
45.
What is the immediate care given until professional medical personnel arrive at the scene of an accident or sudden illness?
a)
help
b)
first aid
c)
CPR
d)
AED
46.
You should never move a victim unless they are in immediate danger.
a)
True
b)
False
47.
You may break ribs during CPR.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
To cool a person with heat stroke or heat exhaustion, where should an ice pack be placed?
a)
neck
b)
armpits
c)
groin
d)
all of them are good places
49.
What should a person do with a nose bleed?
a)
lean forward and pinch nose
b)
lean back and pinch nose
c)
lay face down
d)
lay down on their back
50.
An AED is used when someone is 
a)
who is having a stroke
b)
responsive
c)
having a bad day
d)
not breathing
51.
The cycle of chest compressions and rescue breaths in CPR is:
a)
15 compressions to 1 rescue breath
b)
15 compressions to 3 rescue breaths
c)
30 compressions to 1 rescue breath
d)
30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths
52.
When would you make someone vomit?
a)
Choking
b)
Bleeding
c)
Heat stroke
d)
Non-caustic poisoning
53.
What is a sign of a severe allergic reaction?
a)
trouble breathing
b)
sleepy
c)
high fever
d)
vomiting
54.
Person is awake and can talk, but may have pain or pressure in the chest
a)
stroke
b)
heart attack
c)
allergic reaction
d)
seizure
55.
What should you do if a person sprains their ankle?
a)
apply heat
b)
apply ice for 20 minutes
c)
apply ice directly on skin
d)
walk it off
56.
To give first aid for a small burn, you should
a)
put ice on it
b)
rub butter on it
c)
run cool lukewarm water over it
d)
run cold water over it
57.
What is the most important part of CPR?
a)
breaths
b)
head chin tilt
c)
holding the nose
d)
compressions
58.
A woman collapses in a front of you. You check the scene and the person and she is unconscious. What do you do next?
a)
check for breathing
b)
drive her to the hospital
c)
call 1-1-2
d)
give 2 rescue breaths
59.
If a choking adult stops responding, you should...
a)
check whether the person needs CPR.
b)
give 5 compression's and 5 back slaps. 
c)
give forceful breaths to push object down. 
d)
continue stomach thrusts until the object is removed. 
60.
Anyone that is bitten by a person or a wild or domestic animal should seek medical help:
a)
The next day
b)
As soon as possible
c)
In the next two days
d)
When they have time 
61.
Signs that a person has swallowed a poisonous substance include:
a)
Turning blue
b)
Sleepy
c)
Pain or a burning sensation 
62.

It is critical that CPR is performed in what order?

a)

Compression Airway Breaths

b)

Airway Breaths Compression

c)

The order does not matter

d)

Compression Breaths Airway

63.

What is a sign of giving effective breaths?

a)

the chest rises

b)

air comes out of nose

c)

no physical change

d)

their face gets red

64.

What is the first step in CPR?

a)

check for signs of life

b)

check the scene

c)

start compressions

d)

call 911

65.

When do you perform CPR?

a)

when the person is unresponsive

b)

when the person is asleep

c)

when the person is talking

d)

when the person is coughing

66.

How many sets of CPR complete one cycle?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

10

d)

3

67.

What does AED stand for?

a)

annual edited documents

b)

actual emergency device

c)

automated external defibrillator

d)

always extending diaphragm

68.

What are signs of life?

a)

shallow gasping and turning blue

b)

chest rising and pulse

c)

chest rising and no pulse

d)

pulse and shallow gasping

69.

What do you do if the scene is not safe?

a)

stand back and call 911

b)

go ahead and do CPR

c)

only do compressions

d)

tell another person to do compressions

70.

What records of minor accidents or injuries should be kept ?

a)

Memo ?

b)

Email ?

c)

Fax ?

d)

Accident Book ?

71.

It is important to report accidents because ?

a)

It could prevent one happening again ?

b)

It could reduce the risk one happening again ?

c)

It could persuade one happening again ?

d)

It could purport one happening again ?

72.

What does the O in OSHA stand for?

a)

Orientation

b)

Occupational

c)

Optional

73.

Who must comply with OSHA?

a)

Only teachers and doctors.

b)

Everyone who works at a job that requires health and safety.

74.

What does the S in OSHA stand for?

a)

Sounds

b)

Simple

c)

Safety

75.

Why is workplace safety important?

a)

It's not important.

b)

It keeps workers and customers safe.

c)

Only managers need to worry about workplace safety.

76.

Only companies with over 100 employees need OSHA training.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

A company with only 1 employee still needs OSHA training.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which is an example of being healthy at work?

a)

Never making a mistake at work.

b)

Working everyday of the week.

c)

Washing your hands after using the bathroom.

79.

Which is NOT a right workers have under OSHA?

a)

The right to a safe and healthful workplace

b)

The right to information on injuries or illnesses in the work place

c)

The right to industry specific training

d)

The right to guaranteed wage raises

80.

Which is NOT an employer's main responsibility under OSHA?

a)

Monitor hazards

b)

Provide lunch for employers weekly

c)

Keep records of workplace injuries

d)

Provide personal protective equipment (PPE)

81.

Who is responsible to provide you with training required by OSHA standards?

a)

The employer

b)

The union

c)

The government

d)

The worker/employee

82.

What year was the OSH Act signed by President Nixon of the USA?

a)

2006

b)

1990

c)

1970

d)

2021

83.

When dealing with warning symbols, which set of symbols represent the NEW labeling system?

a)
b)
84.

What is the importance of dress code in the work place?

a)

can dress however you want in a workplace

b)

used to ensure that workers are safe and dressed appropriately

c)

factory workers can dress as they please

d)

everyone should wear a uniform

85.

Department of Labor, OSHA and EEOC are what type of agencies?

a)

Labor Laws

b)

Regulatory

c)

Standard

d)

State

86.

Occupational Safety and Health Administration is known as

a)

SOAH

b)

OSHHA

c)

SHA

d)

OSHA

87.

The chemicals that pose a hazard to health or the environment.

a)

toxic wastes

b)

reactive wastes

c)

chemical waste

d)

wastes management

88.

It refers to devices worn by workers to protect them against hazards in the work environment.

a)

UCHP

b)

PPS

c)

PDF

d)

PPE

89.

The continuous, systematic use of routinely collected health data.

a)

OSH training

b)

occupational health service

c)

mitigation activities

d)

occupational hazard

90.

It refers to various environmental factors or stresses that can cause sickness, impaired health, or significant discomfort in workers.

a)

biological hazard

b)

chemical hazard

c)

ergonomic hazard

d)

occupational hazard

91.

It is intended to ensure by means of training and rehearsal, that in the event of fire.

a)

earthquake drills

b)

fire safety

c)

first aid

d)

fire drills

92.

It refers to plant equipment which by their very nature has the potential of causing severe or fatal injury to the worker or operator.

a)

hazardous tools

b)

hazardous equipment

c)

hazardous paraphernalia

d)

hazardous chemical

93.

PPE stands for ____________

a)

Professional Protective Equipment

b)

Primary Protective Equipment

c)

Personal Protective Equipment

d)

Personal Professional Equipment

94.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about personal protective equipment (PPE)?

a)

PPE eliminates all job site hazards

b)

PPE must be provided by all employers

c)

PPE should be routinely inspected

d)

PPE should be comfortable to wear

95.

This sign represents that eye protection must be worn? Tick one answer

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which of these is responsible for the highest percentage of work-related accidents?

a)

Electric shocks

b)

Office chairs

c)

Slips, trips and falls

d)

Exposure to hazardous substances

97.

What is energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

stored energy

c)

renewable energy

d)

The ability to do work.

98.

What is potential energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

stored energy

c)

renewable energy

d)

non renewable energy

99.

What is kinetic energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

potential energy

c)

stored energy

d)

renewable energy

100.

Which of these things is an example of potential energy?

a)

a car motor

b)

firewood

c)

Roller Coaster

d)

a fan

101.

What is given off from energy?

a)

water

b)

heat

c)

smoke

d)

ash

102.
According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy cannot be _________ or ____________. 
a)
destroyed, destroyed
b)
created, saved
c)
created, destroyed
d)
lost, found
103.
Can you create energy?
a)
Yes
b)
No
104.

Potential energy depends on ______ and _______.

a)

height, mass

b)

weight, mass

c)

speed, mass

d)

height, speed

105.

Kinetic energy depends on_________ and _________.

a)

speed and mass

b)

speed and height

c)

height and mass

d)

energy and height

106.

Which of the following is NOT an example of potential energy?

a)

A diver on the edge of a diving board

b)

A parachute falling to the ground

c)

A pencil sitting on a desk

d)

A car parked in the parking lot of a mall

107.
Energy can be _____________ or changed from one type to another.
a)
destroyed
b)
transferred
c)
created
d)
ignored
108.

True or False. Renewable sources will never run out.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Which form of energy uses water moving through a dam?

a)

Geothermal

b)

Nuclear

c)

Solar

d)

Hydropower

110.

Energy that uses heat from within the earth is ____.

a)

Nuclear

b)

Geothermal

c)

Wind

d)

Solar

111.

What is one advantage of using hydroelectricity as an energy source?

a)

Heat is captures under the earth

b)

It might change the migration patterns of salmon

c)

Reservoirs can be used to irrigate crops

d)

It doesn't need motion to turn turbines.

112.

Why is it helpful to use natural gas even though it's nonrenewable?

a)

there is a limited supply

b)

it releases less pollution than any other fossil fuel

c)

It takes a while to make

d)

We have an endless supply

113.

What is a disadvantage of using coal as an energy source?

a)

There is lots of it everywhere

b)

It releases radiation as a byproduct

c)

It is inexpensive

d)

Mining can damage the environment

114.

What is a disadvantage of using nuclear power?

a)

It releases radiation as a byproduct

b)

It produces a lot of energy really fast

c)

It needs motion to turn turbines

d)

It is dependent on weather

115.

Which two energy sources require open space?

a)

Biomass and natural gas

b)

Wind and Hydropower

c)

Wind and Solar power

d)

Solar power and Nuclear power

116.

Biomass is created from ______.

a)

Plants, animal waste, and garbage

b)

Splitting atoms

c)

The energy rays of the sun

d)

Moving turbines

117.

Which energy source depends on the weather?

a)

Hydropower

b)

Solar

c)

Wind

d)

Geothermal

118.

Which energy source uses turbines that spin in open air?

a)

Nuclear

b)

Hydropower

c)

Wind

d)

Geothermal

119.

Which fossil fuel produces the least amount of carbon dioxide when burned?

a)

Coal

b)

Oil

c)

Nuclear

d)

Natural Gas

120.

Which of these is NOT a fossil fuel?

a)

Natural gas

b)

Nuclear

c)

Oil

d)

Coal

121.

What do geothermal and solar energy have in common?

a)

Both rely on the movement of turbines

b)

Neither is expensive

c)

Neither produces greenhouse gases

d)

Sunlight is needed for both

122.

Energy transfer when fuel is burnt in a thermal power station.

a)

Kinetic --> heat

b)

Heat --> chemical

c)

Chemical --> Heat

d)

Electric --> Light

123.

The _______________ is transformed into electrical energy inside the battery.

a)

Chemical energy

b)

Sound energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Sun energy

124.

Mechanical energy is the sum of what two energies?

a)

Thermal and Radiant

b)

Chemical and Electric

c)

Potential and Kinetic

d)

Nuclear and Sound

125.

Moving electrons is an example of which form of energy?

a)

Thermal energy

b)

Electrical energy

c)

Chemical energy

d)

Mechanical energy

126.

What type of energy is stored in the bonds between atoms

a)

Electrical energy

b)

Thermal energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Chemical energy

127.

What kind of energy makes the microwave work?

a)

Light energy

b)

Heat energy

c)

Electrical energy

d)

Chemical energy

128.

What type of energy allows you to see the images and texts on your cell phone screen?

a)

Sound energy

b)

Heat energy

c)

Chemical energy

d)

Light energy

129.
Which object requires only mechanical energy to perform its main function?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
130.
A student uses a set of headphones to listen to music. Which of these objects uses the same source of energy as the headphones?
a)
A flute using wind energy
b)
A piano using mechanical energy
c)
A keyboard using electrical energy
d)
A teapot using thermal energy
131.
__________ energy is released from a substance when transformed into a new substance.
a)
chemical
b)
radiant
c)
mechanical 
d)
heat
132.
Which type of energy does the battery produce?
a)
sound
b)
light
c)
mechanical
d)
electrical
133.
What type of energy is used to cook food in an oven?
a)
heat
b)
solar
c)
nuclear
d)
mechanical
134.

What are some things you can do to conserve energy and help protect our environment?

a)

leave water on, leave TV on, run dishwasher with 1 plate

b)

run the washing machine with 1 shirt

c)

leave the refrigerator door open

d)

turn off water, turn off lights, turn off TV

135.

Which one is an example of recycling? 🌟

a)

Reusing a paper bag for lunch.

b)

Using less water to take a bath.

c)

Making new glass bottles from old ones.

d)

Using plastic cups instead of paper cups.

136.
To help our environment, you should
 
 
  
a)
recycle, remember, and reduce.
b)
reduce, reuse, and recycle.
c)
reduce, repair, and recycle. 
d)
  reuse, replace, and recycle. 
137.
Why is it important that people conserve, or  save, resources?
 
 
  
a)
They will become renewable.
b)
They will be used up quickly. 
c)
Their supplies will increase. 
d)
They will last longer.
138.

To save energy you should: (check 2)

a)

Take a cooler shower

b)

Take a warmer shower

c)

Take a shorter shower

d)

Take a longer shower

139.

To save energy we should:

a)

use energy-saving bulbs

b)

Use larger tv's

c)

Avoid turning lights on and off

d)

Keep the TV on

140.

It is very cool outside an you feel very hot inside, what should you do?

a)

Turn on the air- conditioner

b)

Open the windows

c)

Turn on the air conditioner and open the windows

d)

Go out for a walk

141.

Electricity is another word for moving __________.

a)

electrons

b)

move

c)

circuits

142.

Electricity is the __________ of electrons.

a)

flow

b)

change

c)

light

143.

_____________ can be made from moving water or wind.

a)

Electricity

b)

Friction

144.

________________ such as oil, goal and natural gas need to burn to make electricity.

a)

fossil fuels

b)

movement

145.

Fossil fuels such as oil, goal and natural gas need to __________ to make electricity. They are not good for the air.

a)

burn

b)

drink

c)

sleep

146.

The ___________ of electricity is where it comes from.

a)

source

b)

power

147.

Fossil fuels are __________ because they pollute the air.

a)

good

b)

not good

148.

Renewable energy from sources like solar, wind, and geothermal keep the air ___________.

a)

dirty

b)

clean

149.

Renewable energy comes from sources like ____________ that are better for the environment.

a)

coal

b)

solar or wind

150.

Which of the following describes a battery as a source?

a)

Chemical action

b)

Magnetomotive

c)

Triboelectric

d)

Photo Voltaic

151.

A network of electrical cables and electrical substations is known as an electric ............................

a)

battery

b)

grid

c)

line

d)

wire

152.

The occurrence wherein things are rubbed together; oldest electrical phenomenon

a)

Friction

b)

piezoelectric

c)

thermocouple

d)

chemical action

153.

It is the center of an atom

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

nucleus

d)

electron

154.

Part of nucleus that is positively charge.

a)

nucleus

b)

proton

c)

atom

d)

electron

155.

Part of an atom that is neutrally charged

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

d)

shell

156.

Smallest particle of an element; means invisible

a)

matter

b)

atom

c)

molecules

157.

It is made up of molecules

a)

atom

b)

matter

c)

nucleus

d)

proton

158.

It is the smallest particle of matter, made up of atoms

a)

atom

b)

molecules

c)

proton

d)

shell

159.
Elements are made of 
a)
many types of atoms 
b)
the periodic table
c)
one type of atom 
d)
molecules 
160.

Which one is the smallest subatomic particle?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Atom

161.
The positively charged particles of an atom are the ________.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
162.
What does the nucleus of an atom contain?
a)
Electrons and neutrons
b)
Protons and neutrons
c)
Neutrinos and positrons
d)
DNA and RN
163.

__________ are negatively charged particles that are in the orbitals around the nucleus.

a)

protons

b)

nucleus

c)

neutrons

d)

electrons

164.

A proton has a ___________ charge.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

massive.

165.

An electron has a _________ charge

a)

positive

b)

neutral

c)

negative

d)

massive

166.

The negatively charged particles in an atom

a)

Proton

b)

Electron

c)

Neutron

d)

Electron Cloud

167.

What are valence electrons?

a)

The total number of electrons in an atom

b)

The number of electrons in the outermost shell

c)

The number of electrons in the second shell

d)

The number of protons in the outermost shell

168.

According to Coulomb's Law, when the distance increases, the electrostatic force ____________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains unchanged

d)

has no relationship to distance

169.

The Coulomb is the unit for:

a)

Charge

b)

Force

c)

Distance

d)

Mass

170.

What is the unit for electrostatic charge?

a)

Coulombs

b)

Newtons

c)

Meters

d)

Joules

171.

Select all answer that apply:


What kinds of particles do Coulomb's Law apply to?

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

neutral atoms

172.

A repulsive force exists between which two particles?

a)

Two neutrons

b)

An electron and a neutron

c)

An electron and a proton

d)

Two protons

173.

The variable "r" in Coulomb's Law would have what units?

a)

Joules

b)

Coulombs

c)

Newtons

d)

Meters

174.

Coulomb's Law is __________ proportional.

a)

directly

b)

inversely

c)

polymetrically

d)

exponentially