WorksheetsMCB block 3
Total questions: 44
Worksheet time: 22mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What ultimate conclusion do the authors conclude about their study?
a)
Anti-GA1 anti-glycolipid antibody is single most convenient biomarker to use
b)
Anti-GM2 anti-glycolipid antibody is single most convenient single biomarker to use
c)
anti-GalNAc-GD1a anti-glycolipid antibody is single most convenient biomarker to use
d)
Plasma Neurofilament Light Chain is single most convenient biomarker to use
2.
What do the authors of the study state in the discussion about using the biomarker to rule out the disease state?
a)
negative test for biomarker is completely effective at ruling out the disease state
b)
negative test for biomarker does not categorically rule out the disease state
c)
positive test for the biomarker is completely effective at ruling out the disease state
d)
positive test for the biomarker does not categorically rule out the disease state
3.
From which tissue source were the biomarkers obtained?
a)
Blood
b)
Plasma
c)
Serum
d)
Urine
4.
What factor was significantly associated the biomarkers?
a)
age
b)
coat color
c)
gender
d)
geography
5.
What was the main goal of the study?
a)
to determine the biomarkers that were least expensive
b)
to determine the biomarkers with best sensitivity/specificity
c)
to determine the biomarkers that were easiest to measure
d)
to determine the biomarkers that were most non-invasive
6.
According to the published study, what proportion of collected samples were maintained at optimal temperature conditions?
a)
None
b)
Few
c)
Majority
d)
all
7.
How were the samples for this study acquired?
a)
Samples were obtained from animal show participants while at the events
b)
Samples were obtained from owners leaving their animals in a boarding facility
c)
Samples were obtained from animals prior to cremation at a pet crematorium
d)
Samples were obtained from animals by veterinarians across multiple countries
8.
What species and characteristics of the sample were described in the study abstract?
a)
Study species is cats, sample size is about 100, about half neurological disease, half normal
b)
Study species is cats, sample size about 400, all positive for neurological disease
c)
Study species was dogs, sample size about 400, about half neurological disease, half normal
d)
Study species was dogs, sample size about 100, all positive for neurological disease
9.
Which biomarker was identified more frequently in study members that were unable to walk?
a)
Anti-GA1 anti-glycolipid antibodies
b)
Anti-GM2 anti-glycolipid antibodies
c)
anti-GalNAc-GD1a anti-glycolipid antibodies
d)
Plasma Neurofilament Light Chain
10.
What do the authors of the paper state about their study?
a)
Their report is the first time these biomarkers have been discovered and reported
b)
Their report is a validation in a larger sample size of a previously reported pilot study
c)
Their report is a continuation of a series of studies investigating the role of these biomarkers
d)
The authors do not mention how their study fits into the framework of previous studies
11.
What molecular mechanism is involved in SARM1 regulation of NAD+?
a)
It undergoes posttranslational modification after activation
b)
It binds a receptor and leads to activation of NAD+
c)
Activated SARM1 N terminus interaction with TIR is disrupted
d)
It binds NAD+ and prevents it from leaving the cell
12.
What signatures are recognized by Schwann cell receptors resulting in immune responses in case of nerve injury?
a)
Pathogen associated molecular patterns
b)
Damage associated molecular patterns
c)
Antigens
d)
Epitopes
13.
What type of receptor is expressed on Schwann cells capable of recognizing tissue injury?
a)
Toll-like receptor
b)
Chemokine receptor
c)
Cytokine receptor
d)
Growth factor receptor
14.
Why is the SARM1 pathway relevant to neurodegenerative conditions?
a)
SARM1 pathway can be targeted therapeutically
b)
SARM1 absence is profoundly neuroprotective in a number of models of neurodegeneration
c)
Loss of SARM1 is protective in models of diabetic neuropathy
d)
All answers are correct
15.
How does SARM1 regulate NAD+?
a)
It acts as an enzyme cleaving NAD+
b)
It activates the enzyme cleaving NAD+
c)
It increases NAD+ via enzymatic activation
d)
It acts as NAD synthetase
16.
Which discovery lead to understanding the role of SARM1 in axon degeneration?
a)
Loss of SARM1 in fruit flies and mice resulted in axon protection
b)
Loss of SARM1 in several species led to axon death
c)
Overexpression of SARM1 was associated with increased levels of NAD+
d)
SARM1 is not playing a role in axon degeneration
17.
Which protein was found to convey axon protection in a specific mouse strain?
a)
SARM1
b)
Wlds/NMNAT1
c)
TIR
d)
TLR
18.
What is Wallerian degeneration?
a)
Fragmentation of the axon distal to a site of injury
b)
It is an overall term for neuropathic diseases such as Parkinson's or ALS
c)
It is degeneration of the nerve proximal to the site of injury
d)
It is a disease named after Augustus Volney Waller, who described it first
19.
What maintains axonal integrity absent injury or disease?
a)
Overexpression of NMNAT protein
b)
Reduced SARM1 expression
c)
Balance by the opposing actions of survival factors and pro-degenerative molecules
d)
Activation of STMN2 to prevent NAD+ degradation
20.
What type of protein/s is/are associated with immune function as well as neuropathic pain?
a)
Only proinflammatory cytokines
b)
Only anti-inflammatory chemokines
c)
pro-inflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokines/chemokines
d)
Growth hormone
21.
What molecular mechanism is involved in SARM1 regulation of NAD+?
a)
A. It undergoes posttranslational modification after activation
b)
B. It binds a receptor and leads to activation of NAD+
c)
C. Activated SARM1 N terminus interaction with TIR is disrupted
d)
D. It binds NAD+ and prevents it from leaving the cell
22.
The lipophilicity of an anesthetic, as proposed by the lateral pressure hypothesis, enables it to interact with the lipid membrane environment that houses protein receptors, thus resulting in a disturbance of receptor activity and inhibitory neurotransmission.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
What neuroimaging technique utilizes the optimal wavelength to measure changes in oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin concentrations within the brain during neurovascular coupling?
a)
Functional computed tomography (fCT)
b)
Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
c)
Functional near-infrared spectroscopy (fNIRS)
d)
Functional ultrasonography (fUS)
24.
What are the mechanisms of Axonal Self-destruction
a)
Self-destruction corresponds with the loss of an essential energy molecule, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
b)
Self-destruction corresponds with the loss of Sterile Alpha and TIR Motif-containing 1 (SARM1)
c)
Self-destruction corresponds with overexpression of NMANT2, a NAD biosynthetic enzyme
25.
What is the host-derived mechanism to prevent the spread of the RABV?
a)
Elevated levels of NO produced by iNOS leads to mitochondrial dysfunction and as a result, axonal swelling.
b)
large-scale neuronal cell death
c)
Axonal self-destruction
26.
Which of the RABV proteins are involved in immune evasion?
a)
Viral proteins - P, G and N
b)
Viral proteins - M
c)
Viral proteins - L
27.
The majority of rabies infections are classified as.
a)
Encephalitic and paralytic rabies
b)
Encephalitic rabies
c)
Paralytic rabies
28.
Which of the following the transport mechanism is RABV spreads from neuronal to non-neuronal organs.
a)
Retrograde transport
b)
Anterograde transport
c)
Anterograde transport and retrograde transport.
29.
What are the myelin-forming glia associate the peripheral nervous system and central nervous system?
a)
Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes
b)
Schwann cells and satellite cells
c)
Astrocyte and satellite cells
30.
Neuron has _____.
a)
A cell body and dendrites
b)
A cell body, dendrites and axon.
c)
Dendrites and axon.
31.
RABV can replicate in ____.
a)
Neurons
b)
Muscle cells
c)
Neurons and muscle cells
32.
How dose RABV entry to the central nervous system (CNS)?
a)
Through the injection of virus-containing saliva into the muscle tissue by the bite of an infected animal.
b)
Through the respiratory system.
c)
Through circulatory system.
33.
What kind of genome dose rabies lyssavirus (RABV) has?
a)
Negative sense RNA genome
b)
Positive sense RNA genome
c)
DNA genome
34.
Which of the following is NOT a consequence of Acute Kidney Injury?
a)
Return to normal renal function
b)
Development of Chronic Kidney Disease
c)
Blockage of the urinary tract by kidney stones
d)
Worsening of underlying Chronic Kidney Disease
35.
In a dog or cat suffering from chronic loss of muscle mass but with normal kidney function, we expect the levels of creatinine to:
a)
Progressively increase over time
b)
Progressively decrease over time
c)
Sharply increase within few days
d)
Sharply decrease within few days
36.
When measuring creatinine in the serum, the presence of HEMOLYSIS or LIPEMIA will cause:
a)
Falsely high and falsely low reading, respectively
b)
Falsely high readings in both cases
c)
Falsely low readings in both cases
d)
Falsely low and falsely high readings, respectively
37.
After eating trash, a dog is presented with acute vomiting and diarrhea with many episodes per day for the last 2 days. He hasn't been drinking or eating during this time. There is NO previous history of kidney disease, but the creatinine level is increased. The best possible reason why is:
a)
Pre-renal azotemia due to decrease renal perfusion
b)
Renal azotemia due to nephrotoxic agent(s)
c)
Post-renal azotemia due to decrease excretion of urine
d)
Extra-renal azotemia due to increase myocyte breakdown
38.
You prescribe corticosteroid therapy to a cat with inflammatory bowel disease. On the next follow-up weeks later, creatinine levels are higher than before, but still within the reference range. If SDMA and urinalysis remain normal, the probable reason for the creatinine increase is:
a)
Increase in muscle catabolism
b)
Underlying Chronic Kidney Disease
c)
Development of Acute Kidney Injury
d)
Decrease secretion through the proximal tubules
39.
There is an urban legend where both kidneys of a person are stolen to be sold on the black market. In such a hypothetical scenario, what would you expect to see in the victim's blood work?
a)
Decrease of both SDMA and creatinine
b)
Decrease of SDMA and increase of creatinine
c)
Increase of SDMA and decrease of creatinine
d)
Increase of both creatinine and SDMA
40.
In an old cat presented with normal levels of creatinine but increased levels of SDMA, it is correct to assume that:
a)
The glomerular filtration rate is decreased*
b)
The glomerular filtration rate is normal
c)
The glomerular filtration rate is increased
d)
Glomerular filtration rate cannot be estimated.
41.
Which of the following frequently affect the serum levels of SDMA in dogs and cats?
a)
High oral doses of L-arginine
b)
Liver disease
c)
Cardiac disease
d)
None of the options listed here
42.
A patient with severe bacterial infection is receiving aminoglycosides intravenously. If the plasma level of creatinine remains within normal range, but the urine level of neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin (NGAL) is higher than before the antibiotic treatment, it is correct to assume that:
a)
The patient has an aminoglycoside-resistant urinary tract infection
b)
The glomerular filtration rate is increased
c)
The renal tubules have been damaged
d)
This is an normal kidney response to aminoglycosides
43.
If the plasma levels of creatinine and SDMA are normal in a patient but γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) is markedly elevated in the urine, the most likely location of the injury is at:
a)
Glomerulus
b)
Proximal convoluted tube
c)
Loop of Henle
d)
Distal convoluted tube
44.
According to Meyer-Overton theory, the potency of anesthetics (Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, and Desflurane) is related to their affinity for the lipid phase. Specifically, the more potent an anesthetic (as measured by its lower Minimum Alveolar Concentration, or MAC), the higher its oil-gas partition coefficient, and thus the more potent its vapor.
a)
true
b)
false
100 %
