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Dental Knowledge Quiz

Total questions: 46

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the diseases is deep caries differentiated with:

a)

Medium caries

b)

Fluorosis

c)

Getchinson's tooth

d)

Caries in the stain stage

2.

Deep caries is differentiated:

a)

Acute focal pulpitis

b)

Caries in the stain stage

c)

Superficial caries

d)

Pathologic erasure

3.

Which of the features refer to anatomical features of the teeth?

a)

A sign of crown curvature

b)

A sign of tooth cavity structure

c)

Number of bumps

d)

A sign of enamel shape

4.

Which of the features are anatomical characteristics of teeth?

a)

Root characteristic

b)

A sign of tooth cavity structure

c)

Number of bumps

d)

A sign of an indentation on the crown

5.

What surfaces are characteristic of a cutter?

a)

Vestibular

b)

Chewing

c)

Parietal

d)

Contact

6.

What surfaces can be distinguished in a cutter?

a)

Contact

b)

Chewing

c)

Parietal

d)

Sideways

7.

Anatomical features of the maxillary central incisor include:

a)

Chisel-shaped crown, well-developed cone-shaped root

b)

Lingual surface is concave, triangular in shape

c)

The vestibular surface has an elongated quadrangular shape

d)

There are two cusps on the chewing surface, the cheek and palatine cusps

8.

Anatomical features of the maxillary canine include:

a)

Crown is massive, cone-shaped

b)

The crown tapers to the cutting edge and ends in a single pointed cusp.

c)

Vestibular surface has an elongated quadrilateral shape

d)

There are two cusps on the chewing surface, the cheek and palatine cusps

9.

Which material is most suitable for permanent filling of class 2 cavities?

a)

Herculite

b)

Charisma

c)

Silicin

d)

Amalgam

10.

According to the chemical composition, glass ionomer cements are categorized into:

a)

Traditional

b)

Hybrid

c)

Aesthetic

d)

Basic

11.

What are the disadvantages of conventional glass ionomer cements?

a)

Hydrophilicity

b)

Final polishing after 24 hours

c)

Anticariasis effect

d)

Fast durability

12.

Glass ionomer cements do not include:

a)

Adhesor, Silicin

b)

Belocor, Fritex

c)

Aqua Meron, Fuji I

d)

Vertex, Daikal

13.

It does not belong to the group of zinc-phosphate cements:

a)

Cemion, Belacin

b)

Silicin, Charisma

c)

Adgesor, Tenet

d)

Zetapex, Dentalex

14.

By composition, therapeutic pads are divided into:

a)

Calcium hydroxide based

b)

Combined

c)

Secondary

d)

Kalium-containing

15.

Materials for therapeutic pads include:

a)

Calcimol, Calcicur

b)

Adhesor, Charisma

c)

Evicrol, Calcicur

d)

Gypsum, Dentalex

16.

Not used as therapeutic pads:

a)

Adhesor, Fritex

b)

Silicin, Unifas

c)

Daikal, Calcimol

d)

Evicrol, Remex

17.

Types of insulating gaskets:

a)

Basic

b)

Silicate

c)

Calcium-containing

d)

hydrophobic

18.

Insulating gaskets are:

a)

Adhesor, Cemion, Unifas

b)

Ketak Molar, Tenet, Unitzem

c)

Calcicur, Crezofen, Evicrol.

d)

Charisma, Daikal, Life

19.

Not used as insulating gaskets:

a)

Charisma, Daikal, Herculite

b)

Life, Evicrol, Calmecin.

c)

Cemion, Ketak Molar, Unitsem

d)

Unifas, Tenet, Adhesor

20.

The composition of artificial dentin includes:

a)

Zinc oxide

b)

Calcium oxide

c)

Magnesium oxide

d)

Silica component

21.

The dentin paste includes:

a)

ZnO

b)

Peach оil

c)

Calcium оxide

d)

Sodium fluоride

22.

The composition of zinc-phosphate cement powder includes:

a)

Zinc oxide, magnesium oxide

b)

Aluminum oxide, zinc oxide

c)

Kaolin, orthophosphoric acid

d)

Silicone, calcium carbonate

23.

Anatomical features of teeth include:

a)

Sign of crown curvature

b)

Sign of a dental cavity

c)

Sign of the number of bumps

d)

Sign of the crown angle

24.

What surfaces does the cutter have ?

a)

Vestibular

b)

Chewy

c)

Neck

d)

Oral

25.

Anatomical features of the maxillary central incisor:

a)

Chisel-shaped crown, well-developed cone-shaped root

b)

Vestibular surface has a quadrilateral elongated length

c)

There are two cusps on the chewing surface, cheek and palate

d)

The crown tapers towards the cutting edge and ends in a single pointed tubercle

26.

Choose the best permanent filling material for Class 2 restorations:

a)

Herculite

b)

Charisma

c)

Silicin

d)

Luxat

27.

Disadvantages of conventional glass ionomer cements include:

a)

Hydrophilicity

b)

Adhesion to tooth tissue

c)

Wear resistance

d)

Plasticity

28.

The disadvantages of amalgam include:

a)

Galvanism

b)

Thermal conductivity

c)

Bactericidal

d)

Plasticity

29.

A compomer filling is:

a)

Dyrect

b)

Herculite

c)

Unifas

d)

Admira

30.

Plastic non-hardening pastes for root canal filling include:

a)

Paste based on long-acting antiseptics

b)

Glass ionomer cements

c)

Zinc oxide and eugenol preparations

d)

Silicate cements

31.

There are the following methods of examining the patient:

a)

Objective

b)

Subjective

c)

Secondary

d)

Additional

32.

What conditions should caries in the stain stage be differentiated from?

a)

Fluorosis

b)

Emaline with lack of mineralization

c)

Superficial caries

d)

Enamel underdevelopment

33.

What changes are differentiated with which caries in the stain stage?

a)

Fluorosis

b)

Getchinson's Enamel

c)

Gastritis

d)

Initial stage of periodontitis

34.

What can caries in the stain stage be mistaken for?

a)

Fluorosis

b)

Dentin layer insufficiency

c)

Chronic inflammatory process

d)

Superficial caries

35.

What conditions are similar to tooth decay in the stain stage?

a)

Fluorosis

b)

Enamel with hypomineralization

c)

Enamel wear

d)

Disturbance of enamel formation

36.

What conditions are caries in the stain stage similar to?

a)

Fluorosis

b)

Insufficient mineralization

c)

Fournier's rare tooth.

d)

Disturbance of enamel structure

37.

What should be differentiated from caries in the stain stage?

a)

Fluorosis

b)

Chronic inflammation of the pulp

c)

Clear wear

d)

Enamel deficiency

38.

Where is the carious spot most often found?

a)

In fissure recesses

b)

On the cutting surface

c)

On the back surface

d)

In places of enamel disturbance

39.

Typical carious spot localization sites:

a)

Between the teeth

b)

U of the neck area

c)

On the front surface

d)

In areas with enamel defects

40.

The main sites of carious stain appearance:

a)

In fissure recesses

b)

Emaline border

c)

bump zone

d)

Locations with damaged enamel

41.

Hard tissue erosion most commonly affects the following teeth:

a)

11

b)

21

c)

37

d)

56

42.

What is the best gasket for insulation?

a)

Adhesor

b)

Mineralizing paste

c)

Evicrol Layer

d)

Medical pad

43.

Which of the following gaskets is not designed for insulation?

a)

Therapeutic Life

b)

Mineral Ketak Molar

c)

Unifas

d)

Calcimol

44.

Which of the pads has a therapeutic effect?

a)

Calcimol, Calcicur

b)

Evicrol, protective Adhesor

c)

Dyrekt, Healing Life

d)

Adhesor

45.

What material does composite belong to?

a)

Filled polymer

b)

Glass ionomer cements

c)

Epoxides

d)

Amalgam

46.

Which component is a component of the inorganic filler of composites?

a)

Crystalline quartz

b)

Bisphenolglycidyl methacrylate

c)

Calcicurus

d)

Resorcin