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WorksheetsNetwork Technology - Revision Quiz
Total questions: 115
Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which one of the following is an end device?
a)
IP Phone
b)
Layer 2 Switch
c)
Layer 3 Router
d)
Firewall Appliance
e)
Wireless Router
2.
Which one of the following is an intermediary device?
a)
Router
b)
IP Phone
c)
Wireless Tablet
d)
Desktop Computer
e)
Server
3.
Which of the following is INCORRECT about Topology diagram?
a)
Logical topology shows devices, ports and addressing scheme of the network
b)
Physical topology shows the physical location of the devices and cable installation
c)
Network diagram is often called as Topology diagram
d)
Network Topology diagram only consists of PCs and Servers on the network
4.
Which of the following is used by companies for fast speed and higher security?
a)
Dedicated Leased Line
b)
DSL
c)
Satellite
d)
Cellular
e)
Cable
5.
Network Convergence combines support for multimedia, telephone, and data all on a single network?
a)
True
b)
False
6.
Which are traits of a reliable network? (More than 1 answer)
a)
Fault Tolerance - limit impact of error
b)
Scalability - ability to add new users/devices
c)
Quality of Service - provide seamless quality of data
d)
Security - prevent unauthorized access to devices
e)
One or some of them is/are wrong
7.
A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?
a)
Quality of service (QoS)
b)
Scalability
c)
Security
d)
Fault tolerance
e)
Integrity
8.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement that computer protocols must agree on?
a)
Message encoding and decoding
b)
Message content
c)
Message format
d)
Message size and delivery option
9.
Open standards encourage which of the following?
a)
Interoperability
b)
Innovation
c)
Competition
d)
All of them
10.
What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?
a)
Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor
b)
A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data
c)
Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market
d)
Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products
11.
What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose 2)
a)
Assists in protocol design
b)
Speeds up packet delivery
c)
Prevents designers from creating their own model
d)
Ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer
e)
Prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers
12.
Which of the following are layers of the OSI reference model? (Choose 3)
a)
Application
b)
Session
c)
Presentation
d)
Network Access Layer
e)
Internet
13.
Which is the correct order for OSI reference model?
a)
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical
b)
Application
Session
Presentation
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical
c)
Application
Session
Presentation
Transport
Network
Physical
Data Link
d)
Application
Presentation
Session
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
14.
What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?
a)
Access control
b)
Decoding
c)
Encapsulation
d)
Flow control
15.
In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?
a)
Convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
b)
Break large messages into smaller frames
c)
Interpret information
d)
Negotiate correct timing for successful communication
16.
(a) removes header information from PDU when PDU travels up the layers
17.
(a) adds header information to a PDU when PDU travels down the layers
18.
Which of the following are software to connect to the networking devices?
a)
PuTTY
b)
Tera Term
c)
Terminal
d)
HTTP
19.
Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose 2)
a)
All router commands are available
b)
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command
c)
The device prompt for this mode ends with the “>” symbol
d)
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured
e)
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed
20.
Which command allows you to enter Privilege Exec mode?
a)
show
b)
ping
c)
enable
d)
configure terminal
21.
Which command allows you to enter into Global Config mode to configure the device as a whole?
a)
global config
b)
configure terminal
c)
enable
d)
hostname
22.
(a) command copies the current running configuration (in RAM) to startup configuration file (in NVRAM).
23.
(a) command sets the password for Privilege EXEC mode to ILOVEITE
24.
Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?
a)
RAM
b)
ROM
c)
Flash
d)
NVRAM
25.
Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config or copy start run ?
a)
Remove all configurations from the switch
b)
Copy an existing configuration from NVRAM into RAM
c)
Save an active configuration to NVRAM
d)
Make a changed configuration the new startup configuration
26.
A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
a)
Global Configuration Mode
b)
Privileged EXEC mode
c)
Setup Mode
d)
User EXEC mode
27.
While troubleshooting a network problem, a network administrator issues the show version command on a router. What information can be found by using this command?
a)
Amount of NVRAM, DRAM, and flash memory installed on the router
b)
Bandwidth, encapsulation, and I/O statistics on the interfaces
c)
Differences between the backup configuration and the current running configuration
d)
Version of the routing protocol that is running on the router
28.
What are TRUE about the Physical Layer? (Select 3)
a)
Accepts frame from the Data Link layer and encodes it as a series of signals to transmit
b)
Transports bits across the network media
c)
It is the 2nd layer in the OSI reference model
d)
It is the 1st layer in the OSI reference model
29.
Physical Layer standards address which 3 functional areas?
a)
Encoding
b)
Signalling
c)
Data
d)
Physical Components
30.
_________ converts the stream of bits into a format that can be recognized by the next device in the network path.
a)
Encoding
b)
de-encapsulation
c)
Encapsulation
d)
Decoding
31.
Select 3 examples of encoding methods
a)
Manchester Encoding
b)
4B/5B
c)
8B/10B
d)
11B/12B
32.
Signaling method is how bit values, “1” and “0” are represented on the medium. It varies based on the type of medium used. Which are the mediums? (Select 3)
a)
Electrical Signal
b)
Light Signal
c)
Microwaves
d)
Ultraviolet
33.
Which of the following measures the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time. i.e. bits/sec
a)
Bandwidth
b)
Latency
c)
Goodput
d)
Throughput
34.
Which of the following refers to amount of time (include delays) for data to travel from 1 point to another
a)
Latency
b)
Throughput
c)
Goodput
d)
Bandwidth
35.
Which of the following refers to the usable data transferred over given period of time?
a)
Latency
b)
Throughput
c)
Goodput
d)
Bandwidth
36.
Which of the following are characteristics of copper media?
a)
Cheap
b)
Easy to install
c)
Limited in distance
d)
Cannot be affected by interference
37.
(a) refers to loss of signal strength
38.
Which of the following could affect Copper medias?
a)
EMI - Electromagnetic Interference
b)
Crosstalk
c)
RFI - Radio Frequency Interference
d)
Ultraviolet Ray
39.
When do you use cross over cable? (Select 3)
a)
Connect Switch to Router
b)
Connect Switch to Switch
c)
Connect Router to Router
d)
Connect Host to Host
40.
Which cable is created when one end is T568A and the other end is T568B?
a)
Crossover Cable
b)
Straight-through Cable
41.
Which cable is created when one end is T568A and the other end is T568A?
a)
Straight-through cable
b)
Crossover Cable
42.
Which cable is created when one end is T568B and the other end is T568B?
a)
Straight-through cable
b)
Crossover Cable
43.
(a) refers to the spreading out of a light pulse over time. Increased dispersion means increased loss of signal strength.
44.
A group of newly hired entry-level network engineers are talking about the network cabling they are going to have to install as a team. What is a characteristic of Ethernet straight-through UTP cable?
a)
It can only use the T568A standard at both ends of the cable.
b)
It can be used to connect two network hosts.
c)
It is susceptible to interferences from EMI and RFI.
d)
It is Cisco proprietary.
45.
Which wireless technology is used on smart phones to transmit data to another device within only very close proximity?
a)
NFC
b)
Wi-Fi
c)
3G/4G
d)
Bluetooth
46.
Which type of cable connection would be used in Packet Tracer to connect a FastEthernet port on a PC to a switch port?
a)
Console Cable
b)
Fiber
c)
Crossover Cable
d)
Straight-through Cable
47.
IP packet will be examined by Layer 3 devices as it traverses the network. Which of the following are Layer 3 devices? (Select 2)
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
NIC
48.
Which of the following are characteristics of IP Protocol? (Select 3)
a)
Connectionless - no connection is established before sending data packets
b)
Best effort delivery - does not guarantee packet delivery
c)
Stateful - information about connection is retained for future use
d)
Media independent - operates independently of the medium carrying the data
49.
Network layer receives segment from transport layer and the resulting PDU is called ______
a)
Packet
b)
Segment
c)
Data
d)
Frame
50.
What are the advantages of IPv6 over IPv4?
a)
Increased address space - 128 bits instead of 32 bits
b)
Eliminate the needs of NAT - since there is huge amount of addressing
c)
Improved Packet Handling - simplified header with fewer fields
d)
Requires NAT to use private addressing internally and mapped to shared public address
51.
What are the features of a default gateway?
a)
It has an IP address in the same range as other hosts in the local network
b)
It accepts data into the local network and forwarding data out of the local network
c)
It can route to the other networks
d)
It cannot be routed to another router
52.
What are the some of the fields in the IPv4 Packet?
a)
Source IP address
b)
Destination IP address
c)
Protocol
d)
Time-to-live
e)
ID
53.
Default Gateway is configured on the host
a)
Statically
b)
Through DHCP
c)
Both Statically and through DHCP
d)
Either statically or through DHCP
54.
Which layer is Data Link layer in the OSI model?
a)
Layer 2
b)
Layer 3
c)
Layer 4
d)
Layer 5
55.
Which of the following is/are TRUE about the sub-layers in Data Link layer?
a)
Logical Link Control (LLC) sub-layer handles communication between the upper layer and the lower layer
b)
Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer is responsible for data encapsulation and flow control
c)
Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer is responsible for data encryption
d)
Logical Link Control (LLC) sub-layer handles communication with only the Physical layer
56.
Which is/are correct about Duplex? (Select 3)
a)
Duplex refers to the capability to send and receive data
b)
Half-duplex allows only 1 device to send and receive at a time on a shared medium
c)
Full-duplex allows only both devices to send and receive at at the same time
d)
Semi-duplex allows some devices to send and receive at the same time
57.
What is/are correct about CSMA/CD? (Select 3)
a)
Operates in half-duplex mode where only 1 device can send and receive at a time
b)
Used by legacy Ethernet LANs
c)
On detecting collision, devices will wait a random period of time before retransmitting
d)
Device will wait for their time to send and receive on the network medium
58.
What is/are correct about CSMA/CA? (More than 1 answer)
a)
Used by Wireless LAN
b)
Operates in half-duplex mode where only 1 device can send and receive at a time
c)
When transmitting, the device will include the duration it needed for transmission.
d)
Other devices on the network will receive the duration information and know how long the medium would be unavailable
59.
Which fields are in the Datalink header?
a)
MAC address
b)
Control
c)
Type
d)
Data
e)
Frame Start
60.
Which statement describes an extended star topology?
a)
End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device.
b)
End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices.
c)
All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
d)
Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
61.
Ethernet operates in which 2 layers?
a)
Data Link
b)
Network
c)
Physical
d)
Transport
62.
Which of the following is/are correct? (Select 3)
a)
LLC Sublayer handles communication between Network and Physical layers
b)
MAC Sublayer handles encapsulation and Media access control
c)
LLC Sublayer adds information which identifies the network layer protocol being used
d)
MAC Sublayer does not provide flow control
63.
What is/are right about MAC Sublayer? (Select 3)
a)
Forms an Ethernet frame
b)
The Ethernet frame includes Source and Destination MAC addresses
c)
The Ethernet frame includes Frame Check Sequence (FCS) for error detection
d)
MAC Sublayer DOES NOT include specifications for different Ethernet communications standards over various types of media
64.
Hexadecimal number for 10 is _______
a)
A
b)
X
c)
B
d)
C
65.
Hexadecimal number for 32 is _______
a)
20
b)
30
c)
10
d)
23
66.
What is/are TRUE about MAC address? (Select 3)
a)
It has 48-bit
b)
First 24 bits is known as OUI and it is unique to the manufacturer
c)
Represented with 12 hexadecimal digits
d)
There is only 1 way to writing MAC address
67.
While MAC address does not change, the IP address changes according to the network the device is in.
a)
True
b)
False
68.
While MAC addresses on the frame will change as it moves from one network segment to the next network segment, IP addresses will not change.
a)
True
b)
False
69.
For ARP request - If the destination IPv4 host is on the local network, the frame will use the MAC address of this device as the destination MAC address.
a)
True
b)
False
70.
MAC address table is sometimes referred to as (a)
71.
Which of the following is NOT correct about Autonegotiation?
a)
Autonegotiation is an optional function found on most Ethernet switches
b)
Autonegotiation enables 2 devices to automatically negotiate the best speed
c)
Autonegotiation enables 2 devices to automatically negotiate the duplex capabilities
d)
Autonegotiation enables 2 devices to automatically negotiate the distance between the 2 devices
72.
Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?
a)
the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
b)
the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
c)
the use of CSMA/CA
d)
the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds
73.
What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?
a)
The frame is dropped.
b)
The frame is returned to the originating network device.
c)
The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.
d)
The frame is sent to the default gateway.
74.
The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
a)
Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
b)
Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address
c)
Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address
d)
Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address
75.
Which type of wireless networks has the shortest range?
a)
Wireless Personal-Area Network
b)
Wirelss LAN
c)
Wireless MAN
d)
Wirelss WAN
76.
Which type of wireless networks has the widest range?
a)
Wireless Personal-Area Network
b)
Wirelss LAN
c)
Wireless MAN
d)
Wirelss WAN
77.
Which wireless technology carry more voice and data. Used by phnes, automobiles, tablets, and laptops.
a)
Bluetooth
b)
WiMAX
c)
Cellular Broadband
d)
Satellite Broadband
78.
Which of the following is/are correct about Wireless Access Point? Expect more than 1 answer.
a)
Autonomous Aps are standalone AP configured through a command line interface or GUI.
b)
Controller-based APs are also known as lightweight APs and they are managed by Wirelss LAN Controller.
c)
Wireless NIC is required to discover nearby access points
d)
Network connectivity will be available after successful authentication
79.
Which of the following functions is/are performed by Wireless routers? Expect more than 1 answer.
a)
Provide wires access
b)
Interconnect wired devices
c)
Provide default gateway to other networks and Internet
d)
Provide bluetooth access
80.
Which of the following is/are TRUE about wireless topology modes? Expect more than 1 answer.
a)
Ad hoc mode - clients connect to each other wirelessly in peer-to-peer manner
b)
Infrastructure mode - clients connect to the network using AP
c)
Tethering - Smart phone with cellular data access acts as AP to provide personal hotspot
d)
Satellite mode - connect via satellite
81.
Which of the following is/are the stages to associate with an AP?
a)
Discovery > Authenticate > Associate
b)
Discovery > Associate > Authenticate
c)
Associate > Authenticate > Discovery
d)
Authenticate > Associate > Discovery
82.
Which of the following is/are the paramters that wireless client and AP must agree on to achieve successful association?
a)
SSID
b)
Password
c)
Security Mode
d)
Channel setting
e)
Protocol
83.
SSID Cloaking involves disabling of the SSID broadcast
a)
True
b)
False
84.
MAC Address Filtering involves permitting or denying clients wireless access based on their MAC address
a)
True
b)
False
85.
Open System Authentication requires password
a)
True
b)
False
86.
Shared Key Authentication provides security mechanisms such as WEP, WPA, WPA2 and WPA3 to authenticate and encrypt data between wireless client and AP
a)
True
b)
False
87.
What is the name of the PDU at the Transport Layer?
a)
Segment
b)
Packet
c)
Frame
d)
Data
e)
Bits
88.
A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?
a)
FTP
b)
TCP
c)
UDP
d)
DHCP
e)
ICMP
89.
What is a responsibility of transport layer protocols?
a)
Providing network access
b)
Tracking individual conversations
c)
Determining the best path to forward a packet
d)
Translating private IP addresses to public IP addresses
90.
Which two operations are provided by TCP but not by UDP? (Choose two.)
a)
Identifying the applications
b)
Acknowledging received data
c)
Tracking individual conversations
d)
Retransmitting any unacknowledged data
e)
Reconstructing data in the order received
91.
What type of applications are best suited for using UDP?
a)
Applications that are sensitive to delay
b)
Applications that need reliable delivery
c)
Applications that require retransmission of lost segments
d)
Applications that are sensitive to packet loss
92.
What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?
a)
The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery method.
b)
The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host.
c)
The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.
d)
The entire FTP message is re-sent.
93.
Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)
a)
ACK
b)
FIN
c)
PSH
d)
SYN
e)
URG
94.
Which number or set of numbers represents a socket?
a)
01-23-45-67-89-AB
b)
21
c)
192.168.1.1:80
d)
10.1.1.15
95.
What is the purpose of using a source port number in a TCP communication?
a)
To notify the remote device that the conversation is over
b)
To assemble the segments that arrived out of order
c)
To keep track of multiple conversations between devices
d)
To inquire for a nonreceived segment
96.
Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)
a)
FTP
b)
DNS
c)
HTTP
d)
POP3
e)
VoIP
97.
How does a networked server manage requests from multiple clients for different services?
a)
The server sends all requests through a default gateway.
b)
Each request is assigned source and destination port numbers.
c)
The server uses IP addresses to identify different services.
d)
Each request is tracked through the physical address of the client.
98.
What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?
a)
0 to 255
b)
0 to 1023
c)
256 – 1023
d)
1024 – 49151
99.
Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?
a)
UDP ACK flag
b)
TCP 3-way handshake
c)
UDP sequence number
d)
TCP port number
100.
Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP at the transport layer?
a)
The client sets the window size for the session.
b)
The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake.
c)
The client randomly selects a source port number.
d)
The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.
101.
Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)
a)
Email
b)
Web
c)
FTP
d)
Voice
e)
Video
102.
Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP two-way handshake to terminate session between two network devices? (Choose two.)
a)
ACK
b)
FIN
c)
PSH
d)
SYN
e)
URG
103.
What is a characteristic of UDP?
a)
UDP datagrams take the same path and arrive in the correct order at the destination.
b)
Applications that use UDP are always considered unreliable.
c)
UDP reassembles the received datagrams in the order they were received.
d)
UDP only passes data to the network when the destination is ready to receive the data.
104.
What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific application?
a)
Registered port
b)
Private port
c)
Dynamic port
d)
Source port
105.
Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
a)
SMTP
b)
FTP
c)
SNMP
d)
HTTP
e)
TFTP
106.
Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
a)
UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
b)
UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
c)
UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
d)
UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
e)
UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
107.
Which two fields are included in the TCP header but not in the UDP header? (Choose two.)
a)
Window
b)
Checksum
c)
Source Port
d)
Destination Port
e)
Sequence number
108.
Which field in the TCP header indicates the status of the three-way handshake process?
a)
Window
b)
Reserved
c)
Checksum
d)
Control bits
109.
What are three responsibilities of the transport layer? (Choose three.)
a)
Meeting the reliability requirements of applications, if any
b)
Multiplexing multiple communication streams from many users or applications on the same network
c)
Identifying the applications and services on the client and server that should handle transmitted data
d)
Directing packets towards the destination network
e)
Conducting error detection of the contents in frames
110.
Which of the following layer(s) in OSI 7-layer model correspond with the layer in TCP/IP model?
a)
Application,
Presentation,
Session
to
Application
b)
Transport
to
Internet
c)
Network
to
Internet
d)
Data Link,
Physical
to
Network Access
111.
Which of the following PDUs correspond to the OSI 7-layer
a)
Application Layer
=>
Data
b)
Network Layer
=>
Segment
c)
Transport Layer
=>
Segment
d)
Data Link Layer
=>
Frame
112.
Which of the following correctly match the Destination MAC address for different delivery method?
a)
Unicast =>
MAC address of receiver
b)
Multicast =>
Starts with 01-00-5E
c)
Broadcast =>
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
113.
What is the name of this cable?
a)
Shielded Twisted Paired (STP) cable
b)
Coaxial cable
c)
Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) Cable
114.
What is the name of this cable?
a)
Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable
b)
Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable
c)
Coaxial
115.
What is the problem?
a)
The entire command, configured terminal, must be used
b)
Administrator is already in global configuration mode
c)
Administrator must first enter Privileged EXEC mode before issuing this command
d)
Administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode
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