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Assessment 3_Preliminary Engagement/Audit Planning

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unqualified opinion has been issued is the:

a)

Acceptable Audit Risk

b)

Inherent Risk

c)

Financial Risk

d)

Statistical Risk

2.

A measure of the auditor's assessment of the likelihood that there are material misstatements in an account before considering the effectiveness of the client's internal control is called:

a)

Audit Risk

b)

Inherent Risk

c)

Control Risk

d)

Detection Risk

3.

When inherent risk is high, there will need to be:

a)

A lower assessment of audit risk: No

More evidence accumulated by the auditor: Yes

b)

A lower assessment of audit risk: Yes

More evidence accumulated by the auditor: Yes

c)

A lower assessment of audit risk: No

More evidence accumulated by the auditor: No

d)

A lower assessment of audit risk: Yes

More evidence accumulated by the auditor: No

4.

In what order should the following steps occur?

A. assess client business risk

B. understand the client's business and industry

C. perform preliminary analytical procedures

D. assess acceptable audit risk

a)

B, A, D, C

b)

A, B, C, D

c)

C, B, A, D

d)

B, D, A, C

5.

The auditor uses knowledge gained from the understanding of the client's business and industry to assess:

a)

client business risk

b)

financial capacity

c)

going concern

d)

audit report to issue

6.

One of the purposes of an engagement letter is to avoid misunderstandings with the client. This is important for:

a)

Good client relations: Yes

Facilitating high-quality work at a reasonable cost: Yes

b)

Good client relations: Yes

Facilitating high-quality work at a reasonable cost: No

c)

Good client relations: No

Facilitating high-quality work at a reasonable cost: Yes

d)

Good client relations: No

Facilitating high-quality work at a reasonable cost: No

7.

The auditor is likely to accumulate more evidence when the audit is for a company:

a)

Which has large amounts of debt: Yes

Which is to be sold in the near future: Yes

b)

Which has large amounts of debt: No

Which is to be sold in the near future: Yes

c)

Which has large amounts of debt: Yes

Which is to be sold in the near future: No

d)

Which has large amounts of debt: No

Which is to be sold in the near future: No

8.

Initial audit planning involves four matters. Which of the following is not one of these?

a)

Request that bank balances be confirmed.

b)

Identify the client’s reason for the audit

c)

Schedule engagement staff and audit specialists

d)

Develop an overall audit strategy

9.

Rodgers CPA has requested permission to communicate with predecessor auditor in order to review certain workpapers for high risk accounts for a new audit client. The new audit clients refusal to allow this communication to occur would impact Rodgers decision concerning:

a)

Inventory turnover

b)

Possible scope exception due to lack of access

c)

Integrity of management concerning possible accounting misstatements

d)

Document the terms of the engagement

10.

A successor auditor may perform which of the following for a new audit client?

a)

Speak to local attorneys, banks and other businesses regarding the company's reputation: Yes

Speak to the predecessor auditors about disagreements they had with management: Yes

b)

Speak to local attorneys, banks and other businesses regarding the company's reputation: Yes

Speak to the predecessor auditors about disagreements they had with management: No

c)

Speak to local attorneys, banks and other businesses regarding the company's reputation: No

Speak to the predecessor auditors about disagreements they had with management: Yes

d)

Speak to local attorneys, banks and other businesses regarding the company's reputation: No

Speak to the predecessor auditors about disagreements they had with management: No

11.

Which of the following is not correct regarding an auditor's decision that a lower acceptable audit risk is appropriate?

a)

Special care is required in assigning experienced staff

b)

Less evidence is accumulated

c)

Request that bank balances be confirmed

d)

Inherent risk

12.

A written understanding detailing what the auditors will do in determining if the financial statements are fair representations of the company's financial statements and what the auditor expects from the client in performing an audit will normally be expressed in the:

a)

Inherent Risk

b)

Engagement Letter

c)

Letter of Audit Inquiry

d)

Representation Letter

13.

If an auditor is requested to perform nonaudit services for a public company audit client, who is responsible for agreeing to those services with the audit firm?

a)

the client’s management

b)

the client’s chief executive officer

c)

the client's audit committee

d)

the client’s chief financial officer

14.

The purpose of an engagement letter is to:

a)

document the terms of the engagement

b)

issue audit report

c)

the client’s audit committee

d)

document the CPA firm’s ability to external users of the audited financial statements

15.

Written communication that the auditor will provide reasonable assurance for the detection of fraud is found in:

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Representation letter

c)

Letter of audit inquiry

d)

Engagement letter

16.

Which of the following normally signs the engagement letter for an audit of a private company?

a)

Management

b)

Employees

c)

Board of Directors

d)

Auditor

17.

Jennings and Company has repositioned the firm's business strategy from the basis of competing on costs to competing on product differentiation. All the following will increase, except:

a)

Client business risk

b)

Audit risk

c)

Detection risk

d)

Inherent risk

18.

Early appointment of the independent auditor will enable:

a)

a more thorough examination to be performed

b)

inherent risk

c)

a more efficient examination to be planned.

d)

a proper study and evaluation of internal control to be performed

19.

An official record of meetings of the board of directors and stockholders is included in the corporate:

a)

minutes

b)

 nanometers

c)

hours

d)

license

20.

Related party transactions may be indicated when another company:

a)

Subsidizes certain operating expenses of the company

b)

Loans to company at market rates

c)

through the date of the audit report

d)

Purchases its securities at their fair value

21.
An auditor has withdrawn from an audit engagement of a publicly held company after finding fraud that may materially affect the financial statements. The auditor should set forth the reasons and findings in correspondence with the 
a)
SEC
b)
Client's legal counsel
c)
Stock exchanges where the company's stock is traded
d)
Audit committee of the board of directors
22.
When a CPA is approached to perform an audit for the first time, the CPA should make inquiries of the predecessor auditor. This is a necessary procedure because the predecessor may be able to provide the successor with information that will assist the successor in determining 
a)
Whether the predecessor's work should be utilized.
b)
Whether, in the predecessor's opinion, the financial statements are materially correct
c)
Whether, in the predecessor's opinion, the company's internal controls have been satisfactory
d)
Whether the engagement should be accepted
23.
Which of the following should an auditor obtain from the predecessor auditor prior to accepting an audit engagement? 
a)
Analysis of balance sheet accounts
b)
Analysis of income statement accounts
c)
All matters of continuing accounting significance
d)
Facts that might bear on management integrity
24.
A successor auditor should request the new client to authorize the predecessor auditor to allow a review of the predecessor's 
a)
Engagement letter
b)
Audit working papers
c)
Engagement letter and audit working papers
d)
It would not be typical to allow a review of either the engagement letter or the audit working papers.
25.
An auditor is required to establish an understanding with a client regarding the responsibilities for each engagement. This understanding generally includes 
a)
Management's responsibility to guarantee that there are no material misstatements due to fraud
b)
The auditor's responsibility to plan and perform the audit to provide reasonable, but not absolute, assurance of detecting material errors or fraud.
c)
Management's responsibility for providing the auditor with an assessment of the risk of material misstatement due to fraud.
d)
The auditor's responsibility for the fairness of the financial statements
26.
Which of the following is not a concern as to whether a misstatement is qualitatively material? 
a)
The misstatement hides a failure to meet analysts' expectations
b)
The misstatement is less than 5% of pretax income
c)
The misstatement increases management's compensation
d)
The misstatement changes a small amount of profit to a small reported loss
27.
In assessing the competence of the internal audit function, an independent CPA most likely would obtain information about the 
a)
Quality of the work of the internal audit function
b)
Organization's commitment to integrity and ethical values
c)
Influence of management on the scope of the internal audit function duties
d)
Organizational levels to which the internal audit function reports
28.
Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely include in the initial planning of a financial statement audit? 
a)
Perform detailed testing of the individual balance sheet accounts
b)
Examining documents to detect illegal acts having a material effect on the financial statements.
c)
Considering whether the client's accounting estimates are reasonable in the circumstances
d)
Determining the extent of involvement of the client's internal audit function
29.
The in-charge auditor most likely would have a supervisory responsibility to explain to the staff assistants 
a)
That immaterial fraud is not to be reported to the client's audit committee
b)
How the results of various auditing procedures performed by the assistants should be evaluated.
c)
How the overall audit strategy will allow the firm to reach a sufficiently low level of audit risk
d)
How overall materiality was selected.
30.
Which of the following relatively small misstatements most likely would have a material effect on an entity's financial statements? 
a)
An illegal payment to a foreign official that was not recorded
b)
A piece of obsolete office equipment that was not retired
c)
A petty cash fund disbursement that was not properly authorized
d)
An uncollectible account receivable that was not written-off
31.
Which of the following is the most important qualitative factor that auditors should consider when making materiality judgments? 
a)
A misstatement exceeded five percent of net income
b)
The auditor also provides consulting services to the audit client
c)
The misstatement will cause the client to fail to meet an earnings forecast
d)
  D.  The audit committee is not well-educated about the accounting principle in question.
32.

Which of the following is not one of the three main reasons why the auditor should properly plan engagements?

a)

To help keep audit costs reasonable.

b)

To enable the auditor to obtain sufficient competent evidence.

c)

To avoid misunderstandings with the client.

d)

To enable proper on-the-job training of employees.

33.

Which of the following is not typically included in initial audit planning?

a)

Client acceptance or continuation decisions.

b)

Determination of the purpose of the audit.

c)

Perform preliminary analytical procedures.

d)

Schedule engagement staff and audit specialists.

34.

Which of the following factors partially explains the increased importance of understanding the client's business?

a)

Increased connectedness of clients with their suppliers and customers via information technology.

b)

Increased importance of human capital and other intangible assets.

c)

Expansion of operations to have a global reach.

d)

All of the above.

35.

An understanding of a client's external environment includes

a)

Regulatory requirements.

b)

General economic conditions.

c)

The extent of competition within the industry.

d)

All of the above.

36.

A tour of the client's facilities is helpful in obtaining an understanding of the client's operations because

a)

The auditor may be better able to assess certain inherent risks.

b)

The auditor will be able to assess the physical safeguards over assets.

c)

The auditor obtains a broader perspective about the company as a whole.

d)

All of the above.

37.

The corporate minutes are the official record of the meetings of the board of directors and stockholders. The minutes typically include authorizations related to which of the following?

a)

Dividend payments.

b)

Corporate officer compensation.

c)

Significant acquisitions of property, plant and equipment.

d)

All of the above.

38.

The engagement letter

a)

Affects the CA firm's responsibility to external users of audited financial statements.

b)

Is useful only if it is an audit engagement, but has no effect for review or compilation services.

c)

Can be used to alter the auditor's responsibilities under generally accepted auditing standards.

d)

Can affect legal responsibilities to the client.

39.

Which of the following would not usually be included in the minutes of the board of directors or shareholders?

a)

Authorization of long-term loans.

b)

Declaration of dividends.

c)

Authorization of individuals to sign checks. .

d)

The duties and powers of the corporate officers

40.

_________ is the risk that an auditor expresses an inappropriate opinion on the financial statements.

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Audit risk

c)

Control risk

d)

Detection risk

41.

Factor that in assessing inherent risk, exclude:

a)

Nature of client

b)

Client motivation

c)

Integrity of management

d)

Nature of audit test

42.

The risk of material misstatement refers to:

a)

control risk and acceptable audit risk

b)

combination of control risk and inherent risk

c)

inherent risk

d)

none of the above

43.

Auditors are responsible for determining whether financial statements are materially misstated. Upon discovering a material misstatement they must bring it to the attention of:

a)

audit firm's managing partner

b)

audit firm's manager

c)

client's management

d)

regulators

44.

The auditor’s preliminary judgment about materiality is the maximum amount by which the auditor believes the financial statements could be misstated and still not affect the decisions of reasonable users.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

If an auditor establishes a relatively high level for materiality, then the auditor will accumulate...

a)

more evidence than if a lower level had been set.

b)

lesser evidence than if a lower level had been set.

46.

If planned detection risk is reduced, the amount of evidence the auditor accumulates will be...

a)

increased

b)

decreased

c)

unchanged

47.

Auditor will make use of analytical review to identify any strange movements in balances indicating risk areas and to identify anomalous figures indicating potential misstatements.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which THREE of the following are objectives of audit planning?

a)

To ensure appropriate attention is devoted to the important areas of the audit

b)

To assign work to members of the audit team

c)

To determine the scope of the engagement

d)

To identify potential problems and resolve them on a timely basis

49.

Which THREE of the following would normally be included in the overall audit strategy?

a)

Details of economic factors and industry conditions

b)

Confirmation of management's responsibility for the financial statements

c)

Identification of specific audit risks

d)

The results of initial analytical procedures

50.

Type of risk?

The organisation has a high turnover of staff in the accounts department.

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

51.

Type of risk?

The organisation has a number of estimates in its financial statements.

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

52.

Type of risk?

The organization has few employees in its accounting department.

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

53.

Type of risk?

The organisation operates in a fast-moving, high-tech environment.

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

54.

Audit strategy?

The audit of a new client, recently started up, with few employees in its accounting department.

a)

Tests of control only

b)

Substantive procedures only

c)

Tests of control and substantive procedures

55.

Information / facts that are used as a basis for drawing conclusions are the meaning of...

a)

Inspection

b)

Confirmation

c)

Audit evidence

d)

Observation

56.

Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus on identifying...

a)

The various assertions that are embodied in the financial statement

b)

Material weaknesses in internal control

c)

The predictability of financial data from individual transaction

d)

Areas that may represent specific risks relevant to the audit

57.

In minimizing the risk of litigation, which precaution can help minimize the risk of misunderstanding about the contractual obligations?...

a)

Use engagement letters

b)

Comply with professional pronouncements

c)

Thoroughly investigate clients

d)

Emphasize quality rather than growth

58.

WHICH IS NOT THE MEANING OF MATERIALITY?

a)

TRANSACTIONS, ITEM S, EVENTS THAT MATERIAL IN FS IF THEIR OMISSION, MISSTATEMENT, MISCLASSIFICATION OR NON-DISCLOSURE WOULD DISTORT THE VIEW GIVEN BY THE FS

b)

MISSTATEMENTS OR OMISSIO THAT COULD INFLUENCE THE ECONOMICSDECISIONS OF USERS TAKEN ON THE BASIS OF FS

c)

EFFECT RISK EVALUATION.

59.

An assurance engagement that provides a high level of assurance that the financial statements are free from of material misstatements is known as?

a)

Review

b)

Independent Financial Statements Audit

c)

Information Reliability Services

d)

Agreed-upon procedures

60.

The concept of materiality as it applies to a financial statement audit:

a)

Is determined, in part, based on how financial statement users may be influenced in making decisions.

b)

Relates primarily to the audit fees involved.

c)

Generally involves less professional judgment for public companies.

d)

Relates primarily to the quantity of audit procedures performed.