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Worksheets

Midterm Review

Total questions: 173

Worksheet time: 2hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A covalent bond is formed between how many monomers

a)

6

b)

2

c)

4

d)

1

2.

Triglycerides need….

a)

3 glycol and 2 fatty acids

b)

1 glycerol and 3 fatty acid

3.

What are example of nucleic acids

a)

Adenine

b)

DNA

c)

Thymine

d)

RNA

4.

What doesn’t have monomers

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Amino acids

5.

What is dehydration synthesis

a)

A reaction where large molecules are made into small molecules by removing water

b)

A reaction where small molecules are made into large molecules by removing water

c)

A reaction where small molecules are made into large molecules by adding water

d)

A reaction where large molecules are made into large molecules by adding water

6.

What is hydrolysis reaction

a)

Splitting the bond using h2O

b)

Creating a polymer using h2O

7.

DNA are

a)

Single stranded

b)

Double stranded

8.

Polymers consisting of monomers are called

a)

nucleic acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

RNA

d)

DNA

9.

Hydrolysis is held together by

(a)  

10.

Protein monomers are called….

a)

Carbonyl

b)

Hydroxide

c)

Amino acids

d)

carbohydrates

11.

A polypeptide consist of a specific order of

(a)  

12.

Lipids are polar macromolecules

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The hydrophilic can interact with water

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The hydrophobic can interact with water

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Which of the following does not result from hydrogen bonding in water molecules?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Surface Tension

d)

Dissolving fats

16.

Why is water considered polar?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bonds in structure

b)

Ionic bonds in structure

c)

Polar covalent bonds in structure

d)

Hydrophobic interaction in structure

17.

Which macromolecule(s) have nitrogen?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Nucleic Acids & Proteins

18.

Which macromolecule(s) have phosphorus?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

19.

Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

20.

Describes the forming of a bond between monomers with the removal of a water molecule.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

21.

Describes the breaking of a bond within a polymer using water.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

22.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

pentose sugar

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

phosphate

d)

amino acid

23.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a protein?

a)

Amine Group

b)

R Group

c)

Carboxyl Group

d)

Nitrogenous Base

24.

Describe the orientation of the phospholipids in the membrane.

a)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophilic heads on exterior

b)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophilic head on extracellular

c)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophobic tails on exterior

d)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophobic tails on extracellular

25.

How is DNA/RNA synthesis directionally oriented?

a)

new nucleotides are added to 5' phosphate

b)

new nucleotides are added to 3' phosphate

c)

new nucleotides are added to 5' hydroxyl

d)

new nucleotides are added to 3' hydroxyl

26.

Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix

a)

A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds)

b)

A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds)

c)

A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds)

d)

A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)

27.

What component of the polypeptide is the next amino acid added forming the peptide bond?

a)

amino group

b)

hydrogen

c)

carboxyl group

d)

R groups

28.

Which protein involves R group bonding to form the final three dimensional structure?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

29.

Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

30.

DNA and RNA differ on many qualities, which of the following is NOT a difference?

a)

Sugar

b)

Nitrogenous Base

c)

Phosphate Group

d)

Strandedness

31.

What type of bond is found BETWEEN water molecules?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Nonpolar covalent bonds

d)

Polar covalent bonds

32.

Surface tension of water is the cohesive force between water molecules and other molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Cohesive force between water molecules and adhesive force between water molecules and other molecules enable this phenomenon to occur.

a)

Surface tension

b)

Capillary action

c)

Float on water

d)

Photosynthesis

34.

Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?

a)

The hydrogen end

b)

The oxygen end

c)

Both ends are slightly positive

d)

Neither end is positive

35.

What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Capillary action

d)

Surface tension

36.

When water molecules stick easily to other water molecules, this is called what?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Solution

d)

Polar molecule

37.

Water beads up on the surface of a penny because of what property?

a)

Adhesion

b)

High surface tension

c)

Universal solvent

d)

Changes in density

38.

The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that water's solid form is _____________ than its liquid form.

a)

Less polar

b)

More polar

c)

Less dense

d)

More dense

39.

The tightness across the surface of water that enables insects to walk on it is

a)

Adhesion

b)

Capillary action

c)

Surface tension

d)

Polarity

40.

Which statement explains why water molecules stick together?

a)

Both sides are negative

b)

One side has a positive charge and the other side has a negative charge

c)

One side has a negative charge and the other side has a neutral charge

d)

Both sides are positive

41.

Large bodies of water help to keep nearby climates from being too hot or too cold because they

a)

Absorb heat in the spring and slowly release that heat in the fall

b)

Absorb heat in the fall and slowly release that heat in the spring

c)

Absorb heat in the summer and slowly release that heat in the winter

d)

Absorb heat in the winter and slowly release that heat in the summer

42.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
43.
A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. 
a)
phospholipid 
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Cholesterol 
d)
Protein 
44.
Describes the arrangement of the cell membrane as bendable and made of many parts. 
a)
The Fluid Mosaic Model 
b)
The Major Mobility Model 
c)
The Crazy Cell Model
d)
The Maze Model
45.
___________ allow cells to recognize each other and act like ID tags. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
46.
___________ strengthens and stabilizes the cell membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
47.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in. 
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
48.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
49.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
50.
Food is moved into the cell by ________________________.
a)
endocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
51.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
52.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
53.
In what direction do particles naturally diffuse?
a)
Up the concentration gradient
b)
Down the concentration gradient
c)
Across the concentration gradient
d)
Over the river and through the woods
54.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
55.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E 
56.

When particles move from low to high concentration

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

57.
_______________  requires energy in the form of ATP
a)
Osmosis
b)
Active transport
c)
Facilitated diffusion
d)
Passive transport
58.
In facilitated diffusion, molecules will randomly move through the pores in ______________.
a)
Carrier proteins 
b)
Channel proteins
c)
Ion pumps
d)
All of the above
59.
Meaning "to drink"
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Phagocytosis
d)
Pinocytosis
60.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
61.

Your gums are swollen. How will rinsing with warm salt water help the swelling?

a)

swollen gums will absorb the salt

b)

salt lowers the temp

c)

salt goes against the concentration gradient

d)

water in the gums will diffuse out of the cells

62.
Which term is least closely related to the others?
a)
exocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
phagocytosis
63.
Using this image, what organelle is C?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Large Cell Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
64.
What is the function of the mitochondria?
a)
Structure that manufactures ribosomes
b)
Structures that converts nutrients to energy
c)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
d)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell
65.
What is the function of the vacuole?
a)
Sac that stores water, nutrients, and waste products
b)
Sac filled with digestive chemicals
c)
Jelly-like substance within the plasma membrane
d)
stack of membranes that packages chemicals
66.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
67.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
68.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
69.
Complex cell. Can be plant or animal. Contains membrane bound organelles. 
a)
Eukaryotic Cell
b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)
Bacteria
d)
Blood cell
70.
What does this organism use for movement?
a)
Pseudopod
b)
Cilia
c)
Flagella
d)
legs
71.
Where are ribosomes produced?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Golgi body
d)
Vessicle
72.
What is found in both plant and animal cells but is much larger in plant cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
73.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
74.
Using this image, what organelle is D?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Flagella
c)
Rough ER
d)
Smooth ER
75.
Plant cells have ___ for cell to cell communication.
a)
gap junctions
b)
plasmodesmata
c)
desmosomes
d)
tight junctions
76.
What is the function of nucleus?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
77.
What is the difference between rough and smooth ER?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
78.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
79.

Where are lipids formed?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

80.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
81.

The difference in electric potential between the interior and the exterior of a cell is called:

a)

Concentration Difference

b)

Membrane Potential

c)

Cotransport

d)

Concentration Potential

82.

The combination of an ion's concentration gradient and membrane potential is called

a)

action potential

b)

electrochemical potential

c)

electrochemical gradient

d)

action gradient

83.

Which kind of cell is prokaryotic, may or may not have a cell wall, and has no membrane bound organelles?

a)

Animal

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Plant

84.

Cell organelle found in all cells that manufactures proteins.

(a)  

85.

Major component of the lipid bilayer cell membrane.

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Channel Proteins

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Glycolipid/glycoprotein complexes

86.

The hydrophilic head of the phospholipid ___ to interact with water and is said to be ____.

a)

Loves, polar

b)

Loves, nonpolar

c)

Hates, polar

d)

Hates, nonpolar

87.

The hydrophobic tails of the phospholipid ___ to interact with water and is said to be ____.

a)

Loves, polar

b)

Loves, nonpolar

c)

Hates, polar

d)

Hates, nonpolar

88.

Because the cell membrane is composed of many small parts that move together as a system, it is said to be _____ _____ (two words).

(a)  

89.

Select any substances that can simply diffuse through the cell membrane.

a)

Oxygen gas

b)

Sugar

c)

Charged ions

d)

Small

e)

Charged

90.

The diffusion of water through the cell membrane along its own concentration gradient is known as (a)   .

91.

Select all forms of cell transport that require ATP energy.

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Active Transport

92.

The use of a protein pump (ions like Na+, K+, H+, etc.) is an example of ___ because ___.

a)

exocytosis; ions are moved out of the cell

b)

active transport; ATP is required

c)

facilitated diffusion; a protein is needed for transport

d)

endocytosis; ions are moved into the cell

93.

Because cell membranes only allow certain substances to pass through them, they're said to be (a)   .

94.

This cell is experiencing which kind of situation?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

95.

In this kind of situation, the *initial* concentration of water is greatest _____________ the cell.

a)

Inside of

b)

Outside of

96.

In this kind of situation, water will move _____ the cell, causing it to ___________.

a)

into, swell

b)

out of, swell

c)

into, shrink

d)

out of, shrink

97.

In this kind of situation, the solutes will move _____ the cell, causing it to ___________.

a)

into, swell

b)

out of, swell

c)

into, shrink

d)

out of, shrink

e)

TRICK QUESTION Mrs. J! You almost got me. I know the membrane is IMPERMEABLE to the solutes, so they stay put while the WATER moves!

98.

Because cell function is so heavily dependent on effectively transporting materials across the cell membrane, cell size is limited due to the need for a (a)   ratio of surface area to volume.

99.

The point of organelles such as the mitochondria, golgi, ER, etc. all having membranes is to ...

a)

Provide extra protection to those critical organelles

b)

Increase surface area for materials transport

c)

Prevent hazardous materials from escaping the organelles and damaging the rest of the cell

d)

All of the above

100.

Which organelle uses digestive enzymes to break down old cellular components and/or invading bacteria/virsus and recycles those components to other organelles for use in building new macromolecules?

a)

Gap junction

b)

Nucleus

c)

Golgi Body

d)

Lysosome

101.

This theory states that membrane bound organelles evolved from once free-living prokaryotes that were engulfed to compose the eukaryotic cells that we observe today.

(a)  

102.

Who is the (ATP producing, glycolysis/krebs cycle running) powerhouse of the cell?

(a)  

103.

Select all forms of passive transport below.

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

e)

Osmosis

104.

Facilitated diffusion occurs when what kind(s) of molecules require a channel or carrier protein to enter the cell membrane?

a)

small, non-polar

b)

large, non-polar

c)

small, polar

d)

large, polar

105.

Which substance would most easily pass through the cell membrane?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

Sodium ions

d)

Water

106.

During osmosis, water always moves from an area of ____ solute concentration to ____ solute concentration.

a)

high, high

b)

high, low

c)

low, low

d)

low, high

107.

Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?

a)

active site

b)

allosteric site

c)

C-terminus

d)

N-terminus

108.

Describe the effect on the free energy of doubling the amount of enzyme.

a)

double the free energy

b)

half the free energy

c)

triple the free energy

d)

no effect on free energy

109.

Which structure is unaffected by denaturation?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

110.

Which environmental conditions can cause denaturation of the enzyme?

a)

slight increase in temperature

b)

extreme increase in temperature

c)

decrease in temperature

d)

extreme increase in temperature and pH changes

111.

Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?

a)

increase product

b)

increase substrate

c)

increase inhibitor

d)

increase enzyme

112.

Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.

a)

increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles

b)

increase in temperature activates more enzyme to increase the rate

c)

increase in temperature results in increase in substrate available

d)

increase in temperature allows for a tighter fit in the active site

113.

Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.

a)

noncompetitive binds to active site and competitive binds to other site

b)

competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site

c)

competitive is irreversible and noncompetitive is reversible binding

d)

noncompetitive is irreversible and competitive is reversible binding

114.

In order to maintain order and power cellular processes,

a)

energy input must exceed energy loss

b)

energy input equals energy loss

c)

energy loss must exceed energy input

d)

energy loss equals energy input

115.

What is the process of an endergonic reaction being fueled by an exergonic reaction called?

a)

second law of thermodynamics

b)

energy coupling

c)

first law of thermodynamics

d)

endergonic/exergonic switch

116.

Where did photosynthesis first evolve?

a)

prokaryotic organisms

b)

alien organisms

c)

eukaryotic organisms

d)

abiotic processes

117.

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP & NADH

b)

CO2 & H2O

c)

NADPH & ATP

d)

Organic Compounds & O2

118.

What is the function of the electron transport chain between Photosystem II and Photosystem I?

a)

establish electrochemical gradient of protons

b)

to funnel electrons into photosystem I for the Calvin cycle

c)

transport electrons to oxygen to make water

d)

to synthesize ATP using ATP synthase

119.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

cristae

c)

stroma

d)

matrix

120.

Where does the electron transport chain take place?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

prokaryotic plasma membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

all of the choices

121.

Which of the following are electron carriers for the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?

a)

NADPH

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

NADH & FADH2

122.

Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Fermentation

123.

What is oxidation?

a)

loss of electrons

b)

loss of water

c)

gain of electrons

d)

gain of water

124.

In the electron transport chain of cellular respiration, where is the electrochemical gradient of protons generated?

a)

cytosol

b)

cristae

c)

matrix

d)

intermembrane space

125.

Which process does NOT require oxygen?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Aerobic respiration

126.

Describe the pathway of electrons in the light reactions.

a)

H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADPH

b)

H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADPH

c)

H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADH

d)

H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADH

127.

Which of the following is NOT a part of photosynthesis?

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Light reactions

c)

Light independent reactions

d)

Krebs cycle

128.

Where do the light reactions take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Thylakoid membrane

c)

Stroma

d)

Mitochondrial matrix

129.

What is the input for the light reactions?

a)

Light energy

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

H2O

130.

What is the output for the light reactions?

a)

Light energy

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

H2O

131.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Thylakoid membrane

c)

Stroma

d)

Mitochondrial matrix

132.

What is the input for the Calvin cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

NADPH

d)

ATP

e)

G3P

133.

What is the output for the Calvin cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

NADPH

d)

ATP

e)

G3P

134.

How many CO2 molecules are needed to make 1 G3P?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

135.

How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required for 1 G3P to be synthesized?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

136.

How many NADPHs are required for the Calvin cycle?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

9

137.

How many ATPs are required for the Calvin cycle?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

9

138.

Which of the following describes the pathway of electrons in the light reactions? 

a)

O2 →\rightarrow   PS II →\rightarrow  

PS I →\rightarrow   NADH

b)

O2 →\rightarrow   PS II →\rightarrow  

PS I →\rightarrow   NADPH

c)

O2 →\rightarrow   PS I →\rightarrow  

PS II →\rightarrow   NADPH

d)

O2 →\rightarrow   PS I →\rightarrow  

PS II →\rightarrow   NADH

139.

The delta G of a catalyzed reaction is 30 kJ/mol. If you double the reaction, what would be the delta G of the catalyzed reaction?

a)

0 kJ/mol

b)

15 kJ/mol

c)

30 kJ/mol

d)

60 kJ/mol

140.

What is the function of an enzyme?

a)

To speed up a chemical reaction

b)

To provide additional energy

c)

To inhibit a cellular process

d)

To increase absorption of a molecule

141.

Which of the following would NOT denature an enzyme?

a)

HIGH temperature

b)

LOW pH

c)

HIGH pH

d)

LOW temperature

142.

What happens to the reaction rate if an enzyme is denatured or nonfunctional?

a)

No change in the reaction rate

b)

Increase in reaction rate

c)

Decrease in reaction rate

d)

Decrease then increase in reaction rate

143.

Which of the following is NOT a way that enzymes speed up chemical reactions?

a)

Strain bonds in the structure

b)

Orient reacting molecules

c)

Provide favorable environment

d)

Increase required energy of activation

144.

An enzyme can make an endergonic reaction into an exergonic reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

Which of the following is a way to overcome competitive inhibition of an enzyme?

a)

Increase product concentration

b)

Increase substrate concentration

c)

Decrease enzyme concentration

d)

Decrease environmental temperature

146.

Where does a substrate bind to an enzyme?

a)

Active site

b)

Allosteric site

147.

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease reaction rates?

a)

Binds to the active site

b)

Binds to the allosteric site

c)

Increases the free energy

d)

Increases the substrate concentration

148.

The decreased production of enzyme Trp-T would have which of the following responses?

a)

Decrease in Tryptophan concentration

b)

Increase in I3PA concentration

c)

Increase in IAA concentration

d)

Decrease in I3PA & IAA concentration

149.

Where does glycolysis take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Mitochondrial cristae

d)

Thylakoid

150.

Glycolysis requires oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

What is the starting material for glycolysis?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Acetyl CoA

c)

Glucose

d)

G3P

152.

What is the main function of glycolysis?

a)

To rearrange the glucose molecule to be broken down

b)

To split the glucose molecule to release energy

c)

To recreate acetyl CoA for the Krebs cycle

d)

To absorb and store energy in ATP molecules

153.

What process takes place if NADH is unable to be oxidized?

a)

Krebs cycle

b)

Electron transport chain

c)

Chemiosmosis

d)

Fermentation

154.

There are 10 steps in glycolysis, how many enzymes catalyze these steps?

a)

8

b)

9

c)

10

d)

11

155.

What are the products of glycolysis?

a)

2 ATP, 2 NADPH, 2 pyruvate

b)

2 ADP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate

c)

2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate

d)

2 ADP, 2 NADPH, 2 pyruvate

156.

How does glycolysis lead to ATP synthesis?

a)

Glucose provides the phosphate for ADP to synthesize ATP

b)

Glycolysis splits the glucose molecule to create G3P

c)

High energy electrons are stored in NADH for the ETC

d)

Acetyl CoA is synthesized for the Krebs cycle

157.

Justify that glycolysis evolved before oxygen was present in the atmosphere.

a)

Glycolysis does not require oxygen which represents that it evolved prior to free oxygen in the atmosphere

b)

Glycolysis does not take place in the mitochondria and thus does not require oxygen

c)

Glycolysis splits a glucose molecule into 2 pyruvate molecules which does not require oxygen

d)

Glycolysis takes place in all living organisms which means it evolved prior to free oxygen in the atmosphere

158.

Justify that glycolysis evolved prior to the mitochondria.

a)

Glycolysis takes place in the cytosol

b)

Glycolysis does not require a membrane which represents that it evolved prior to membrane bound organelles

c)

Glycolysis has instructions in the nuclear DNA

d)

Glycolysis does not require mitochondrial DNA which represents that it evolved prior to membrane bound organelles

159.

Which of the following is NOT a step in cellular respiration?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

d)

Calvin Cycle

160.

Where does glycolysis take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Mitochondrial cristae

d)

Stroma

e)

Thylakoid membrane

161.

What is the input of glycolysis?

a)

Glucose

b)

Pyruvate

c)

NADH

d)

G3P

162.

What is the output of glycolysis?

a)

Glucose

b)

2 pyruvate

c)

2 NADH

d)

2 ATP

e)

2 FADH2

163.

What is the main function of glycolysis?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

164.

Where does the Krebs Cycle take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Mitochondrial cristae

d)

Stroma

e)

Thylakoid membrane

165.

What is the input of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Acetyl CoA

c)

Glucose

d)

NADH

166.

What is the output of the Krebs Cycle (one turn)?

a)

3 NADH

b)

1 FADH2

c)

1 ATP

d)

2 CO2

e)

Acetyl CoA

167.

What is the main function of the Krebs Cycle?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

168.

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Mitochondrial cristae

d)

Stroma

e)

Thylakoid membrane

169.

What is the input of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

Pyruvate

d)

Glucose

e)

ATP

170.

What is the output of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

Glucose

171.

What is the main function of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

172.

Which step of cellular respiration REQUIRES oxygen?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

d)

Calvin Cycle

173.

Which step can be performed by prokaryotes AND eukaryotes?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

d)

Calvin Cycle

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