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Horse Test Questions

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 6 year old gelding weighs 1000 lbs. How much total feed should you plan on feeding each day?

a)

5lbs

b)

10lbs

c)

15lbs

d)

30lbs

2.

Your feed 5 lbs of a 50/50 mix of oats and corn each day. If your oats are 10% protein and your corn is 5%, how many lbs of protein are you feeding each day?

a)

.375lbs

b)

.15lbs

c)

1.5lbs

d)

3.75lbs

3.

Your horse experiences some minor colic and the vet prescribes a medication for pain. Which drug might he prescribe?

a)

Nuflor

b)

Draxxin

c)

Banamine

d)

Panacur

4.

Banamine is typically injected by IM route. What does IM stand for?

a)

Intravenous Medication

b)

Intra-oral Medication

c)

Intramodified

d)

Intramuscular

5.

The top of your horse’s tail is full of broken hairs and sticks out everywhere. What should you suspect is causing the problem?

a)

Dry Skin

b)

Worms

c)

Pasture mate is chewing

d)

Caught tail in the fence

6.

This horseshoe is typically referred to as a ____________ shoe.

a)

Heartbar

b)

Eggbutt

c)

Correction

d)

Support

7.

A mature horse’s resting heart rate is typically_________.

a)

38-40 bpm

b)

20-22 bpm

c)

48-50 bpm

d)

28-40 bpm

8.

Normal body temperature for a horse is ___________.

a)

94-96 degrees

b)

99-101 degrees

c)

103-105 degrees

d)

90-92 degrees

9.

The most abundant ingredient in a feed will be listed ____ in the ingredients list.

a)

First

b)

Last

c)

Can't tell because it's alphabetical

10.

When it comes to parts of the horse, chestnuts are found...

a)

Only in stallions

b)

Behind the frog

c)

On the underline

d)

On the legs

11.

_____ colored horses have white hairs mingled with one or more other hair colors.

a)

Piebald

b)

Skewbald

c)

Roan

d)

Gray

12.

A horse with navicular disease will have pain in their ____

a)

Naval

b)

Hock

c)

Hoof

d)

Lungs

13.

A cantle is....

a)

Another name for lope

b)

Part of the saddle

c)

A sore in the mouth

d)

A type of bit

14.

 Which are the probable combinations of the following mating: EE x Ee?

a)

50% EE

50% Ee

b)

25% EE

25% ee

50% Ee

c)

100% EE

d)

100% ee

15.

HERDA is found in what breed of horses?

a)

Thoroughbred

b)

Appaloosa

c)

Shire

d)

Quarter Horse

16.

Which breeds are warmbloods?

a)

Arabian, QH, Paint

b)

Arabian, Morgan, Hackney

c)

Holsteiner, Thoroughbred, Oldenberg

d)

Oldenberg, Trakehner, Hanoverian

17.

Which of the following best describes the modern horse?

a)

non-ruminant, herbivore, odd-toed, warm blooded

b)

non-ruminant, omnivore, even-toed, hot blooded

c)

ruminant, milk giving, hoofed, grazer

d)

ruminant, omnivore, hot blooded, grazer

18.

The ______ is a two-beat, diagonal gait, where the opposite front feet and hind feet (Left front, Right Hind) leave and strike the ground at the same time.

a)

Pace

b)

Lope

c)

Trot

d)

Rack

19.

The gestation length of a mare is

a)

430 days

b)

396 days

c)

330 days

d)

250 days

20.

 Fever, depression, elevated heart rate, diarrhea, and death are signs of _____.

a)

Colic

b)

Swamp fever

c)

Sleeping sickness

d)

Founder

21.

 Approximately 65–70% of a healthy, mature horse’s weight consists of

a)

bone

b)

water

c)

muscle

d)

internal organs

22.

What does synovial fluid assist with?

a)

the digestion of fiber

b)

the reproductive cycle

c)

the elimination of wastes

d)

the smooth action of joints

23.

What does the palatability of a particular feed refer to?

a)

Shelf life

b)

Oil content

c)

Nutritional value

d)

Acceptability to horses

24.

____ is a condition in which horses do not sweat normally.

a)

Anthrax

b)

Anhydrosis

c)

Azoturia

d)

Colic

25.

________ is not a specific disease, but a disease complex encompassing a wide range of conditions that affect the horse’s digestive tract.

a)

Anthrax

b)

Anhydrosis

c)

Azoturia

d)

Colic

26.

______ is caused by viruses. Symptoms include a high temperature, lack of appetite, and a watery nasal discharge.

a)

Anthrax

b)

Influenza

c)

Azoturia

d)

Colic

27.

  __________ is a nutritional disorder that affects the respiratory system. It often occurs when moldy or dusty hay is fed.

a)

Heaves

b)

Anthrax

c)

Azoturia

d)

Colic

28.

__________ is caused by a virus.  The horse drools and blisters form in the mouth.

a)

Azoturia

b)

Vesicular Stomatitis

c)

Heaves

d)

Strangles

29.

Which is NOT a common external parasite of horses?

a)

Flies

b)

Fleas

c)

Ticks

d)

Lice

30.

______________ is the art of riding a horse.

a)

Mounting

b)

Western Equitation

c)

Horsemanship

d)

Hunter Under Saddle

31.

Which is NOT a basic aid in controlling the horse?

a)

Sight

b)

Voice

c)

Hands

d)

Legs

32.

   ________ is a coiled rope.

a)

Bosal

b)

Riata

c)

Reins

d)

Steward

33.

________ is when the rider rises and sits in the saddle.

a)

Posting

b)

Mounting

c)

Demounting

d)

Diagonal

34.

One of the most popular activities involving the use of horses is _____________.

a)

Western Equitation

b)

English Equitation

c)

Trail Riding

d)

Roping

35.

Which is a gymkhana?

a)

Pole Bending

b)

Rescue Race

c)

Keyhole Race

d)

All of the Above

36.

The American Paint horse originated in the United States from the descendants of horses brought to the Americas by who?

a)

Polish

b)

Spanish

c)

English

d)

French

37.

Which breed did not originate in the United States?

a)

POA

b)

Quarter Horse

c)

Pinto

d)

Paso Fino

38.

Which breed of horse is considered a draft breed?

a)

Suffolk

b)

Welsh

c)

Andalusian

d)

American White

39.

Which choice is not a common horse color pattern?

a)

Bay

b)

White

c)

Brown

d)

Chesnut

40.

A disease of the frog of the foot is called?

a)

Coggins

b)

Lameness

c)

Thrush

d)

Stifled

41.

Which is considered the best pasture choice for horses?

a)

Bermuda

b)

Alfalfa

c)

Fescue

d)

Kentucky Bluegrass

42.

Which is not a form of a legume?

a)

Fescue

b)

Alfalfa

c)

Clover

d)

Lespedeza

43.

Which grain is considered to be the best for horses?

a)

Barley

b)

Oats

c)

Corn

d)

Soybean

44.

The national average mare conception rate is?

a)

10-15%

b)

20-35%

c)

50-60%

d)

80-90%

45.

Weaning foals should be done at how many months?

a)

2-3mo

b)

4-6mo

c)

7-9mo

d)

12mo

46.

The Jockey Club is the association for what breed of horse?

a)

Peruvian Paso

b)

Trakehner

c)

Paso Fino

d)

Thoroughbred

47.

Mosquitoes are responsible for the transmission of what equine disease?

a)

Borreliosis

b)

Encephalomyelitis

c)

Influenza

d)

Rhinopneumonitis

48.

A horse that has a body color of yellowish gold, mane and tail may be black, brown, red, yellow, or white mixed, usually has a dorsal stripe, zebra stripes on legs, and transverse stripe over withers is what color?

a)

Dun

b)

Grullo

c)

Buckskin

d)

Roan

49.

A horse is seen rubbing its tail excessively and missing a large about of hair in the tail head region. He likely has what internal parasite?

a)

Roundworms

b)

Strongyles

c)

Pinworm

d)

Bots

50.

What is the normal heart rate of an adult horse?

a)

16bpm

b)

36bpm

c)

56bpm

d)

76bpm

51.

As a horse ages, the shape of the tooth surface changes. A 20 year old horse would have what shape of tooth/table surface?

a)

Round

b)

Flattened

c)

Triangular

d)

Oval

52.

What breed of horse originated from East Prussia in 1732?

a)

Trakehner

b)

Lipizzan

c)

Exmoor Pony

d)

Arabian

53.

What type of hay shouldn't be fed to pregnant mares due to issues including agalactia, retained placentas, and weak foals?

a)

Bermuda

b)

Fescue

c)

Orchard Grass

d)

KY Bluegrass

54.

Approximately how many teeth does a mature horse have?

a)

26

b)

30

c)

36

d)

46

55.

Streptococcus equi is the bacteria responsible for which equine disease?

a)

Colic

b)

Strangles

c)

Heaves

d)

Tetanus

56.

TRUE or FALSE: Chestnut horses do indeed carry either black or bay determining genes, but these cannot be visually expressed in the face of the ee.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

An adult horse weighing 1,000lbs contains approximately how many liters of blood?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

100

d)

150

58.

According to the AQHA Rule book, what faults would encounter a 0 score?

a)

Breaking of Gait

b)

Spurring in front of the cinch

c)

More than 1 finger between the reins

d)

Holding saddle with either hand

59.

How many cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrate does the horse have?

a)

13,15,6

b)

7,18,6

c)

9,14,5

d)

6,15,9

60.

A horse with a long shoulder and forearm will most likely have what kind of stride?

a)

A short, choppy stride

b)

A short, hard hitting gait

c)

A long, ground covering stride

d)

A tendency towards lameness

61.

What is NOT a accessory sex gland of the stallion?

a)

Vesicular

b)

Ampullae

c)

Bulnourehtral

d)

Epididymis

62.

The oribatid mite is the intermediate host to what internal parasite?

a)

Roundworm

b)

Tapeworm

c)

Pin-worm

d)

Stomach Bots

63.

A black horse with a Dun dilution is (aaE-Dn-) result in a what colored horse?

a)

Cremello

b)

Gray

c)

Roan

d)

Grullo

64.

A conformation fault, where the knee is behind the vertical in its leg is what defect?

a)

Bench kneed

b)

Calf kneed

c)

Buck kneed

d)

Knock Kneed

65.

What definitive diagnosis of this disease is determined through a Coggins's Test which detects antibodies to the disease in the horse's serum?

a)

Influenza

b)

Venezuelan Encephalomyelitis

c)

Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

d)

Rhinopneumonitis

66.

TRUE or FALSE: All horses, regardless of housing or work load, require roughage?

a)

True

b)

False

67.

All of the following are considered legumes except for....

a)

Lespedeza

b)

Alfalfa

c)

Timothy

d)

Red Clover

68.

Which part of the digestive system is the main area of nutrient absorption?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small Intestine

c)

Cecum

d)

Large Colon

69.

When walking, a horse that has hooves that move in a wide outward arcs is

a)

Base Wide

b)

Sickle Hocked

c)

Pigeon Toed

d)

Bow Legged

70.

In general, how long can a laceration be present before it can no longer be sutured closed?

a)

30 Minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

6 hours

d)

12 hours

71.

A broodmare should be vaccinated for what disease at 5,7,&9 months of pregnancy?

a)

Influenza

b)

Botulism

c)

Deslorelin

d)

Rhinopneumonitis

72.

Destruction of the frog is caused by anaerobic bacteria is called:

a)

White Line Disease

b)

Thrush

c)

An abscess

d)

Navicular disease