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203 IFR Flight Environment

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What facility issues center weather advisories?

a)

The nearest flight service station

b)

An ARTCC

c)

All are correct

d)

A national weather service office

2.

How many feet from the end of runway remaining that the centerline lights change

from white to alternating red and white lights?

a)

3000 feet

b)

4000 feet

c)

1000 feet

d)

2000 feet

3.

How long IFR flight plans should be filed before departure?

a)

At least 30 minutes

b)

At least 60 minutes

c)

At least 15 minutes

d)

At least 45 minutes

4.

Which is not correct about a visual approach?

a)

May be initiated by the controller or the pilot

b)

The visibility is at least 3 statute miles

c)

The pilot has the airport or the aircraft to follow in sight

d)

The ceiling is at least 1500 feet

5.

“Controls all enroute IFR air traffic”

a)

Ground Control

b)

ATIS

c)

Control Tower

d)

ARTCC

6.

Where flight plans are processed in which the flight originates?

a)

The control tower, ground control

b)

Clearance delivery

c)

Approach and departure control

d)

Air route traffic control center (ARTCC)

7.

Which NOTAMs are disseminated for all navigational facilities which are part of the

National Airspace System, all public use airports, seaplane bases, and heliport listed in the A/FD?

a)

Advisor circulars (ACs)

b)

FDC NOTAMs

c)

NOTAM(L)s

d)

NOTAM(D)s

8.

Which is correct to operating in Class C airspace

a)

Must establish two-way radio communication with the ATC facility having

jurisdiction and maintain it while you are operating within the airspace

b)

You are required to obtain a clearance from ATC

c)

All are correct

d)

You must establish two-way communication with the tower prior to entering airspace and maintain radio contact during all operations to, from, or on that airport

9.

Regardless of weather conditions, you are required to file an IFR flight plan before legally fly within what class of airspace?

a)

Class A

b)

All controlled airspace

c)

Class C

d)

Class B

10.

Which marked is used by closed runways and closed taxiways?

a)

X

b)

R

c)

L

d)

Y

11.

Rewrite the following clearance using shorthand symbols? “CHARIOT 851, cleared to the KAMPEANGSEAN Airport (KPS) direct TAKLI (TL) NDB. Maintain 6000, report passing 8000 Depart TAKLI (TL) NDB heading 200 for vectors to Runway 21 ILS final approach course Landing Runway 03”

a)

851 C KPS A DR TL NDB M60 RP80 DP TL NDB HDG 200 RV RWY21 ILS FAP CRS LDG RWY 03

b)

851 C KPS A DR TL NDB M60 P80 DP TL NDB HDG 200 RV RWY21 ILS FAP CRS LDG RWY 03

c)

851 C KPS DR TL NDB M60 RP80 DP TL NDB HDG 200 RV RWY21 ILS FAP CRS LDG RWY 03

d)

851 C KPS A DR TL NDB M60 RP80 DP TL NDB HDG 200 RV RWY03 ILS FAP CRS LDG RWY 03

12.

What's significance of the following clearance " ...cruise 5000"

a)

You can fly at any altitude from 5000 feet MSL up to the base of Class A

airspace

b)

All are correct

c)

You can conduct your flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up

to and including 5000 feet MSL

d)

You can fly at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including

5000 feet MSL, but you must report leaving each altitude to ATC

13.

Which area is discontinued activity immediately when a spotter aircraft, radar, or

ground lookout personnel determine an aircraft might be approaching the area?

a)

Controlled firing area

b)

Alert areas

c)

Airport advisory areas

d)

Military operations area (MOA)

14.

Which runway is normally marked only with the runway number and a dashed white

centerline?

a)

Visual runway

b)

Non-precision approach runway

c)

Precision approach runway

d)

Instrument approach runway

15.

An ATC clearance is an authorization to proceed under specified conditions within

what type of airspace?

a)

Uncontrolled airspace

b)

Controlled airspace

c)

Non-controlled airspace

d)

All are correct

16.

If you depart from an airport in Class G airspace in less than VFR conditions, when must you file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance?

a)

Before takeoff

b)

Before entering controlled airspace

c)

Before Taxi

d)

Before entering IFR conditions

17.

Which airspace class that typically extends from the surface to 700 or 1200 feet AGL and ATC normally does not exercise control in this airspace?

a)

Class F airspace

b)

Class G airspace

c)

Class D airspace

d)

Class E airspace

18.

What is the name of the facility that allows you to receive an IFR clearance before you contact ground control for taxi?

a)

The control tower, ground control

b)

Approach and departure control

c)

Air route traffic control center (ARTCC)

d)

Clearance delivery

19.

Select the information which you can obtain by referencing the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)?

a)

ATC procedures, a description of the airspace system, and flight safety information

b)

All are correct

c)

Information regarding specific airports, including runway lengths,

communication frequencies, and airport services

d)

The official text of regulations issued by the agencies of the Federal

government

20.

If an ATC provides you with priority service because of an emergency, you may be

required to submit a written report to the manager of that ATC facility within what time frame?

a)

Within 24 hours after landing

b)

Immediately after landing

c)

As soon as possible

d)

Within 48 hours after landing

21.

In the event you deviate from a clearance due to an emergency, when must you notify ATC?

a)

Within 48 hours after landing

b)

As soon as possible

c)

Immediately after landing

d)

Within 24 hours after landing

22.

Which area is often having invisible hazards to aircraft, such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or flight of guided missiles?

a)

Warning areas

b)

Alert areas

c)

Prohibited areas

d)

Restricted areas

23.

“Issues IFR clearance at large airports”

a)

Clearance Delivery

b)

Ground Control

c)

Flight Service Station

d)

Approach/Departure Control

24.

Which is not the main purpose of airport lighting systems?

a)

Particular at night and in low visibility conditions

b)

Aid the pilot in identifying the airport environment

c)

Establish and maintain a safe descent path to the runway

d)

All are correct

25.

How long are IFR flight plans usually deleted from the system if they are not activated within the proposed departure time?

a)

At least 60 minutes

b)

At least 15 minutes

c)

At least 45 minutes

d)

At least 30 minutes

26.

When an ATC issues a clearance void time in conjunction with a departure clearance, in what time frame must you depart?

a)

No later than the clearance void time

b)

30 minutes or later after the clearance void time

c)

60 minutes or later after the clearance void time

d)

No later than 30 minutes after the clearance void time

27.

Which is not the terminal facility in the ATC environment?

a)

Approach and departure control

b)

Clearance delivery

c)

Air route traffic control center (ARTCC)

d)

The control tower, ground control

28.

A tower enroute control clearance (TEC) is intended to be used by non-turbo jet

aircraft at altitude less than 10000 feet MSL, how long is the duration of the flight

a)

Less than 30 minute

b)

Less than 1 hours

c)

Less than 2 hours

d)

Less than 3 hours

29.

How many basic types of airport signs are there?

a)

5 basic types

b)

4 basic types

c)

6 basic types

d)

7 basic types

30.

If a control tower and a flight service station are on the same airport, what type of advisor service is provided by selected flight service stations when the tower is closed?

a)

Local airport advisory

b)

Approach/Departure Control

c)

Clearance Delivery

d)

Flight Service Station

31.

Decipher the following clearance: (CYS is Cheyenne Airport) “C CYS A AF M 80 DPC 120.9 SQ 5417”

a)

“... cleared to Cheyenne Airport as filed. Climb and maintain 8000 feet. Departure control frequency is 120.9 Squawk 5417

b)

“... cleared to Cheyenne Airport as filed. Maintain 8000 feet. Departure control frequency is 120.9 Squawk 5417

c)

“... cleared to Cheyenne Airport as filed. Climb and maintain 8000 feet. Departure control is 120.9 Squawk 5417

d)

“... cleared to Cheyenne as filed. Climb and maintain 8000 feet. Departure control frequency is 120.9 Squawk 5417

32.

Which is not an additional marking used for instrument approaches to the runway?

a)

Blastpad/stopway markings

b)

Touchdown zone markings

c)

Threshold markings

d)

Aiming point markings

33.

Which is not correct about Federal airways?

a)

Extend up to and including 18000 feet MSL

b)

Extend up to but not including 18000 feet MSL

c)

Normally 8 nautical miles wide

d)

Begin at 1200 feet AGL

34.

“Relays IFR clearances to pilots departing uncontrolled airports”

a)

All are correct

b)

Approach/Departure Control

c)

Clearance Delivery

d)

Flight Service Station

35.

Generally, military training routes (MTRs) are established below 10000 feet MSL, what are the operation speeds in this route?

a)

Excess of 150 knots

b)

Excess of 250 knots

c)

Excess of 200 knots

d)

Excess of 300 knots

36.

Which is not correct to operating within Class A airspace?

a)

Be operating under an IFR flight plan

b)

Have aircraft transponder equipped

c)

Be instrument-rated and commercial license

d)

Controlled by ATC

37.

Which is the name of the high intensity white strobe lights located laterally, one on each side of the runway threshold?

a)

Runway alignment indicator lights

b)

Sequenced flashing light

c)

Visual approach slope indicator lights

d)

Runway end identifier lights

38.

Excluding the airspace at and below 2500 feet AGL, transponders with altitude encoding capability are required in all airspace (controlled or uncontrolled) of the contiguous 48 states and the District of Columbia at and above what altitude?

a)

10000 feet MSL

b)

10000 feet AGL

c)

18000 feet MSL

d)

14500 feet MSL

39.

Which aircraft’s heading is based on the position of traffic relative to you when an ATC advises?

a)

Aircraft’s compass heading

b)

Aircraft’s magnetic heading

c)

Aircraft’s true heading

d)

Aircraft’s track heading

40.

“Controls traffic on and in the vicinity of a controlled airport”

a)

ATIS

b)

Control Tower

c)

Ground Control

d)

ARTCC

41.

Which airspace class used flight levels instead of MSL altitudes?

a)

Class A airspace

b)

Class C airspace

c)

Class D airspace

d)

Class B airspace

42.

Which services are included in basic radar service for VFR aircraft?

a)

All are correct

b)

Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited radar vectoring

c)

Safety alerts, traffic advisories, sequencing, and separation

d)

Separation, limited radar vectoring, amd traffic advisories

43.

Within plan?

a given area, what facility is the central authority for processing an IFR flight

a)

Air route traffic control center

b)

Air traffic control tower

c)

Clearance delivery

d)

Flight service station

44.

Before a contact approach is approved, what is the minimum reported ground visibility must be?

a)

One NM

b)

One SM

c)

Two NM

d)

THree SM

45.

Select the true statement when cleared to fly VFR on top on an IFR flight

a)

You may fly below the minimum enroute altitude prescribed for the route

segment you are flying as long as you remain VFR

b)

Your IFR flight plan is automatically cancelled

c)

All are correct

d)

You are required to comply with VFR cruising altitude rules

46.

What

is the objective of hold lines?

a)

All are correct

b)

For making before take-off check

c)

Keep aircraft clear of the runways

d)

Separates the responsibilities of ground control from those of the tower

47.

Which are the elements of an ATC clearance?

a)

All are correct

b)

Aircraft identification, clearance limit

c)

Altitude/flight level to be flown and transponder code

d)

Departure procedure and route "of flight

48.

what is correct about vfr-on-top clearance

a)

allow you fly fir condition

b)

prohibit in class a space

c)

At the appropriate VFR cruising altitudes of your choice

d)

all are collect

49.

Which is not correct about special VFR clearance must be obtained from ATC?

a)

The cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet AGL

b)

All are correct

c)

To operate within the surface areas of Class A,B,C,D or E airspace

d)

The ground visibility is less than 3 statute miles

50.

Air traffic control centers (ARTCCs) were established to provide ATC service to aircraft operating on what type of flight plan?

a)

Both IFR and VFR

b)

IFR

c)

Special VFR

d)

VFR