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WorksheetsSpring 2023 - Exam 1
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 3hrs 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A patient experiences a seizure as an adverse effect after taking a medication that was just released to the market a year ago. What organization should the patient report this side effect to?
a)
FDA
b)
DEA
c)
MedWatch
d)
Board of Pharmacy
2.
Which organization is responsible for overseeing the distribution, sale, regulation, and destruction of controlled substances?
a)
FDA
b)
DEA
c)
MedWatch
d)
Board of Pharmacy
3.
Fentanyl is classified as a C-II drug and Lyrica is classified as a C-V drug. A patient has stopped using Fentanyl and was prescribed Lyrica. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the categories and trends of controlled substances?
a)
C-II drugs have higher potential for abuse than a C-V
b)
C-V drugs have higher potential for abuse than a C-II
c)
C-II drugs have lower potential for abuse than a C-IV
d)
C-III drugs have lower potential for abuse than a C-IV
4.
What is the minimum number of pharmacists that must be working with 3 pharmacy technicians in the hospital pharmacy?
a)
3
b)
2
c)
6
d)
5
5.
Toradol is a medication that must be dispensed with a medication guide. What is true regarding medication guides?
a)
Medication guides only need to be dispensed on the first fill of the prescription
b)
Medication guides provide information to patients about adverse events and promote patient safety
c)
Medication guides help keep track of controlled substace sales
d)
Medication guides provide information to patients about therapeutic equivalence
6.
What is the purpose of a new drug application?
a)
It requires manufacturers to provide evidence of a drug's safety and efficacy before approval
b)
It provides information about the comparison of two different drugs in terms of safety and efficacy
c)
It allows manufacturers to compre information about drugs that are therapeutically equivalent
d)
It mandates that all over the counter medications and supplements must be FDA approved before sale
7.
A patient is enrolled in a clinical trail and is receiving a drug that is being tested for FDA apporval. What group is this patient in?
a)
Control group
b)
Intervention group
c)
Therapeutic group
d)
Prophylaxis group
8.
A patient brings a prescription for Ativan 1 mg tablets with directions to take 1 tablet three times daily as needed for anxiety. Ativan is C-IV medication. The quantity is for 90 tablets. How many times can this prescription be refilled?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
9.
How long must a pharmacy retain copies of DEA 222 forms?
a)
2 years
b)
1 year
c)
90 days
d)
6 months
10.
A patient brings a prescription for diazepam 5 mg tablets with directions to take 1 tablet every night at bedtime. Diazepam is a C-IV medication. The quantity is for 15 tablets. How many times can this prescription be refilled?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
11.
Under federal law and according to the DEA, which drug is classified as a C-I ?
a)
Marijuana
b)
Fentanyl
c)
Cocaine
d)
Morphine
12.
Which DEA for is used to document the destruction of controlled substances?
a)
DEA 106
b)
DEA 222
c)
DEA 45
d)
DEA 101
13.
Which organization has the authority to recall medications if deemed unsafe?
a)
DEA
b)
FDA
c)
ISMP
d)
Board of Pharmacy
14.
Which of the following is an example of complementary and alternative medicine? Select all that apply.
a)
Herbal supplements
b)
Acupuncture
c)
Dietary supplements
d)
Acetaminophen
15.
A patient brings in a prescription for a controlled substance prescribed by Dr. Arnold Palmer. Upon reviewing the prescription, the pharmacist asks you to check the DEA number. Which of the following DEA numbers is correct?
a)
JP3564297
b)
AC4485310
c)
RK2097441
d)
GB3976612
16.
There is currently 10 mg of drug A available in the patient's body. Only 2.5 mg remain in the patient's body after 12 hours. What is the half life of drug A?
a)
12 hours
b)
6 hours
c)
3 hours
d)
24 hours
17.
Which term best describes a drug that blocks the action of endogenous chemicals or other medications?
a)
Agoniost
b)
Antagonist
c)
Receptor
d)
Affinity
18.
Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the chemical conversion of drugs or food into other compounds?
a)
Absorption
b)
Distribution
c)
Elimination
d)
Metabolism
19.
Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the process from which a drug is administered to arriving at the circulatory system?
a)
Absorption
b)
Distribution
c)
Elimination
d)
Metabolism
20.
What is the primary site of absorption of oral medications in the body?
a)
Liver
b)
Kidneys
c)
Lungs
d)
Small intestines
21.
Which of the following can affect distribution of medications within the body? Select all that apply.
a)
Lipophilicity
b)
Acid-base characteristics
c)
Bioavailability
d)
Volume of distribution
22.
Two drugs are administered together. A blood sample from the patient reveals that the concentration of drug A is much lower than drug B. Neither drug A or drug B are prodrugs. Which of the following answers could potentially explain these results?
a)
Drug A is a strong inhibitor of drug B
b)
Drug A is a strong inducer of drug B
c)
Drug B is a strong inhibitor of drug A
d)
Drug B is a strong inducer of drug A
23.
A patient states that they are allergic to penicillin antibiotics and explains that they get nausea and vomitting after taking them. Which explanation best desribes what the patient is experiencing?
a)
The patient is describing an anaphylactic reaction and is truly allergic to penicillin
b)
The patient is describing common side effects associated with penicillin drugs
c)
The patient is describing a common drug interaction that occurs with penicillin medications
d)
The patient is describing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin drugs
24.
A patient's pain is normally well controlled after taking 1 tablet of Norco every 12 hours as prescribed. The patient starts to take 2 tablets every 12 hours because they like the feeling they get after taking more medication. Which two terms best describes this situation?
a)
Addiction
b)
Tolerance
c)
Drug abuse
d)
Drug dependence
25.
A pharmacist tells a patient that they will need to take their medication for 14 days total. Which term best describes the description above?
a)
Duration of action
b)
Onset of action
c)
Ceiling effect
d)
Duration of therapy
26.
What does the term clearance refer to?
a)
The rate at which a drug is eliminated from a specific volume with respect to time
b)
The maximum amount of drug that can be given before achieving a ceiling effect
c)
The total amount of time it takes for all of the medication to be eleiminated from the body
d)
The percentage of drug that is still available after it has been metabolized
27.
Which term or phrase best describes a situation where giving a drug would not be beneficial and may cause harm?
a)
Black boxed warning
b)
Contraindication
c)
Risk vs benefit
d)
Side effect
28.
Which scenario best describes a side effect of a medication? Select all that apply.
a)
A patient with swelling of the face and respiratory distress after taking penicillin
b)
A patient who gets nauseous after taking ibuprofen
c)
A patient who becomes drowsy after taking diphenhydramine
d)
A patient who gets itchy and watery eyes during spring time
29.
Which definition best describes bioavailability?
a)
The percentage of drug which reached systemic circulation and is available to reach the sit of action
b)
The amount of drug that is inactivated by first pass metabolism
c)
The likelihood of a drug being absorbed when drug interactions are prevalent
d)
The time it takes for a medication to be completely absorbed and elimninated from the body
30.
Which of the follow are considered phases of pharmacokinetics? Select all that apply.
a)
Absorption
b)
Distribution
c)
Elimination
d)
Metabolism
31.
What class of medication does loratadine belong to?
a)
H2 receptor antagonist
b)
H1 receptor antagonist
c)
H2 receptor agonist
d)
H1 receptor agonist
32.
Which of the following indications is famotadine used for? Select all that apply.
a)
Seasonal allergies
b)
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
c)
Cough and cold
d)
Stress ulcer prophylaxis
33.
A patient is taking prescription eye drops for an eye infection. Which route of administration best describes how eye drops are given?
a)
Parenteral
b)
Oral
c)
Subcutaneous
d)
Topical
34.
Which of the following are factors that can affect and influence the action of medication? Select all that apply.
a)
Drug interactions
b)
Cost of medication
c)
Allergies
d)
Disease states
35.
Which resource or organization provides information regarding best practice recommendations on medication safety issues?
a)
ISMP
b)
DEA
c)
FDA
d)
CDC
36.
Interpret the following sig: Take 1-2 caps PO q12 hrs PRN HA
a)
Take 1 to 2 capsules by mouth every 12 hours as needed for headache
b)
Take 1 to 2 capsules by mouth every 1 to 2 hours as needed for heart failure
c)
Take 1 to 2 capsules by mouth every 12 hours for headache
d)
Take 1 to 2 capsules by mouth every 12 hours for heart failure
37.
A patient comes to the pharmacy to pick up a prescription for insulin pens to be given subcutaneously. The sig reads to inhale 12 units every night at bedtime. Which of the following "rights" was incorrectly communicated on the label?
a)
Right drug
b)
Right time
c)
Right route
d)
Right strength
38.
What types of dosage forms are examples of orally administered drugs? Select all that apply.
a)
Tablets
b)
Inhaler
c)
Suspension
d)
Lozenges
39.
Which of the following would likely cause a decrease in patient compliance? Select all that apply.
a)
Taking a medication three times a day instead of twice a day
b)
Placing medications in weekly pill boxes
c)
Increasing the amount of medication to take on a daily basis
d)
Combining two medications into one combination pill
40.
What is one major difference in dosing medication for pediatric patients versus dosing medication in adults?
a)
Medications tend to have more side effects with pediatric patients
b)
Medications are often dosed based on the patient's weight in pediatric patients
c)
Medciations will usually have more drug interactions with pediatric patients
d)
Medications are more effective when used in the pediatric population
41.
Which term best describes the substance created by the immune system to help fight infections?
a)
Antigen
b)
Antibody
c)
Antidote
d)
Allergen
42.
What is the name of the chemical released by mast cells which stimulates the allergic reponse pathway?
a)
Histamine
b)
Epinephrine
c)
Antigen
d)
Allergen
43.
What is one major reason why medication reconciliation is important?
a)
Helps to identify duplication of therapy
b)
Reduces patient compliance
c)
Increases the amount of medications a patient can take
d)
Provides safety recommendations to patients about high risk medication
44.
What is the abbreviation that means to be given "by mouth?"
a)
PO
b)
SubQ
c)
IV
d)
IM
45.
Why are auxiliary labels important?
a)
They help improve patient compliance
b)
They help educate patients on important points regarding their medications
c)
All of these are correct
d)
They promote medication safety
46.
Which of the following medications are considered fluoroquinolones? Select all that apply.
a)
Levofloxacin
b)
Cipro
c)
Flagyl
d)
Macrobid
47.
A patient comes to the pharmacy and has reported an anaphylactic reaction with penicillins. Which medications could potentially cross react based on this patients penicillin allergy? Select all that apply.
a)
Unasyn
b)
Rocephin
c)
Cefepime
d)
Keflex
48.
Which of the following medications are antifungal drugs? Select all that apply.
a)
Abelcet
b)
Nystatin
c)
Diflucan
d)
Erythromycin
49.
Which medications are associated with hepatotoxicity? Select all that apply.
a)
Amphotericin B
b)
Ketoconazole
c)
Vancomycin
d)
Ancef
50.
Which of the following medications has a black boxed warning for causing tendon rupture?
a)
Levaquin
b)
Bactrim
c)
Zosyn
d)
Gentamicin
51.
Which medication is associated with causing urine discoloration?
a)
Flagyl
b)
Azithromycin
c)
Nitrofurantoin
d)
Zyvox
52.
Which medications can cause QTC prolongation? Select all that apply.
a)
Fluconazole
b)
Erythromycin
c)
Metronidazole
d)
Azithromycin
53.
Which medication is considered an echinocandin?
a)
Caspofungin
b)
Amphotericin B
c)
Minocycline
d)
Vancomycin
54.
What kind of infection is syphillis associated with?
a)
Viral
b)
Bacterial
c)
Fungal
d)
Protozoan
55.
Which medication is associated with potentially contributing to serotonin syndrome?
a)
Linezolid
b)
Daptomycin
c)
Avycaz
d)
Itraconazole
56.
Which auxiliary label(s) should go on a prescription for doxycycline? Select all that apply.
a)
Avoid sun exposure
b)
Do not take with antacids
c)
May cause QTC prolongation
d)
Do not take with diary products
57.
Which medication is considered a carbapenem? Select all that apply.
a)
Doripenem
b)
Meropenem
c)
Ertapenem
d)
Aztreonam
58.
What are the components in Zosyn? Select all that apply.
a)
Ampicillin
b)
Sulbactam
c)
Piperacillin
d)
Tazobactam
59.
What is the drug of choice for treating MRSA infections?
a)
Vancomycin (IV)
b)
Vancomycin (PO)
c)
Bactrim
d)
Doxycycline
60.
Which side effects are associated with Bactrim? Select all that apply.
a)
Steven's Johnson Syndrome
b)
Jaundice
c)
Photosensitivity
d)
Nephrotoxicity
61.
Which of the following are examples of virus or vial infections? Select all that apply.
a)
Covid-19
b)
Herpes simplex virus
c)
MRSA
d)
Influenza
62.
A patient comes to the pharmacy and picks up a prescription for oseltamivir. What auxiliary label should be placed on this presctiption?
a)
Do not refrigerate
b)
Take with food
c)
Avoid sun exposure
d)
Do not take with antacids
63.
A patient comes to the pharmacy and picks up a prescription for Tamiflu. What is this medication typically used for?
a)
To treat patients with influenza
b)
To treat patients with HIV
c)
To treat patients with shingles
d)
To treat patients with Herpes simplex virus
64.
Which of the following medications are currently used to treat patients with Covid-19? Select all that apply.
a)
Dexamethasone
b)
Remdesivir
c)
Paxlovid
d)
Plaquenil
65.
You are compounding an IV solution of acyclovir in the sterile compounding room. What auxiliary label should be placed on this presctiption?
a)
Do not refrigerate
b)
Protect from light
c)
Chemotherapy
d)
Do not take with antacids
66.
Which of the following antivirals can be used to treat patients with herpes simplex virus?
a)
Zovirax
b)
Remdesivir
c)
Oseltamivir
d)
Relenza
67.
Which of the following medications is a fusion inhibitor used to treat HIV?
a)
enfuvirtide
b)
dalutegravir
c)
indinavir
d)
nevirapine
68.
Which of the following medications can be used to treat HIV and hepatitis B?
a)
Vemlidy
b)
Viread
c)
Retrovir
d)
Viramune
69.
A patient is picking up a prescription for tenofovir disoproxil fumarate. What is this medication used to treat?
a)
Hepatitis B
b)
HIV
c)
Influenza
d)
HSV-1
70.
Which auxiliary label should be placed on a prescription for indinavir?
a)
Do not take with antacids
b)
Do not take with grapefruit juice
c)
Refrigerate
d)
Take with food
71.
Which medication is often paired with other antiretrovirals to boost or enhance the effectiveness of them?
a)
Ritonavir
b)
Raltegravir
c)
Maraviroc
d)
Emtracitabine
72.
Which of the following is an example of active immunity? Select all that apply.
a)
A patient who recieves immunoglobulin infusions
b)
A mother's antibodies that are transferred to the baby
c)
A patient who recieves an influenza vaccine
d)
A patient who gets sick with covid and makes a full recovery
73.
Which of the following enzymes helps HIV with viral replication amongst host cells?
a)
HIV protease
b)
HIV reverse transcriptase
c)
HIV integrase
d)
HIV alteplase
74.
Which medication can be used to help treat and prevent influenza infections?
a)
Flomax
b)
Oseltamivir
c)
Acyclovir
d)
Truvada
75.
Which medication is a controlled substance?
a)
Morphine
b)
Acetaminophen
c)
Ibuprofen
d)
Diphenhydramine
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