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Microbiology and Public Health Part II

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following would be found growing in a Petri plate?

a)

An anaerobe

b)

Viruses on an agar surface

c)

A colony on an agar surface

d)

Barophiles

2.

The systemic infection associated with microrganisms multiplying in circulating blood is:

a)

Bacteremia

b)

Septicemia

c)

Viremia

d)

None of the above

3.

Virulence factors include:

a)

Toxins

b)

Capsules

c)

Enzymes

d)

All of the above

4.

Infectious diseases acquired during a hospital stay are known as:

a)

Nosocomial infections

b)

Superficial infections

c)

Systemic infections

d)

Any of the above

5.

The term defined as the ability of a microorganism to cause disease is:

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Pathogenicity

c)

Virulence

d)

All of the above

6.

The best descriptive term for the resident flora is

a)

Commensals

b)

Pathogens

c)

Parasites

d)

Mutualists

7.

A disease producing organism is termed as:

a)

Vector

b)

Antigen

c)

Pathogen

d)

Antibody

8.

The MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe

a)

Largest concentration

b)

Smallest concentration

c)

Standard dose

d)

Lowest dilution

9.

In a broth dilution method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, the tube with the lowest concentration of antimicrobial in which there is no visible growth is the minimal:

a)

Antimicrobial concentration

b)

Inhibitory concentration

c)

Bactericidal concentration

d)

Lethal concentration

10.

Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic?

a)

Interrupting ribosomal function

b)

Preventing cell wall synthesis

c)

Dissolving the cell membrane

d)

Inhibiting DNA replication

11.

An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause

a)

The teeth to turn down

b)

A superinfection

c)

Aplastic anemia

d)

Hepatotoxicity

12.

When a patient’s immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of:

a)

Superinfection

b)

Allergy

c)

Drug resistance

d)

Toxicity

13.

Anti-infective agents should only be used when:

a)

A significant infection has been diagnosed or is strongly suspected

b)

An established indication for prophylactic therapy exists

14.

Poor clinical results in antimicrobial chemotherapy may be due to:

a)

Choice of an effective antibiotic

b)

Giving an inadequate or excessive doses

c)

Continuing use after bacterial resistance has developed

d)

All of the above

15.

Metronidazole is active against

a)

Facultatively anaerobic bacteria

b)

Obligately anaerobic bacteria

c)

Neisseria meningitidis

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Aerobic bacteria

16.

The source of the antibiotic streptomycin is

a)

Streptomyces aureofaciens

b)

Streptococcus lactis

c)

Streptomyces griseus

d)

Streptococcus faecalis

17.

The active antimicrobial agent in bleach is:

a)

Phenol

b)

Iodine

c)

Hydrochloride

d)

Bromide

e)

Hypochlorite

18.

Betadine is an antimicrobial product containing:

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Calcium hydroxide

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Iodine

19.

In the clinical situation, silver nitrate is sometimes used:

a)

To prevent gonorrhea in the eyes of newborns

b)

To prevent passage of streptococci into the blood after a strep throat

c)

To sterilize the intestine before surgery

d)

To flush out the respiratory tract of tubercle bacilli

20.

The gas that is used in gas sterilization is:

a)

Ethylene oxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

None of the above

21.

The primary action of nonionizing radiation is to

a)

Produce superoxide ions

b)

Denature proteins

c)

Make pyrimidine dimers

d)

Break disulfide bonds

22.

Ionizing radiation acts by

a)

Thymine dimerization

b)

Oxidation

c)

Formation of highly reactive radicals

d)

Protein denaturation

23.

The primary effect of ultraviolet radiations is on microbial

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Nucleic acids

c)

Enzymes

d)

Cell walls

24.

Dry heat is often used to sterilize:

a)

Saline solutions

b)

Oily materials

c)

Bacterial media

d)

Hospital blankets

25.

A process widely used in the dairy industry that destroys a very high percentage of undesirable microbial population by heating at a certain temperature is known as:

a)

Tyndallization

b)

Dry-heat sterilization

c)

Pasteurization

d)

Moist-heat sterilization

26.

The difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is that:

a)

A disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while an antiseptic is used on skin surface

b)

A disinfectant kills bacterial spores, while an antiseptic does not

c)

A disinfectant does not achieve sterilization, and an antiseptic does

d)

Disinfectants are chemical substances, while antiseptics are not chemical substances

27.

The moist heat of sterilization employing 15 lbs of pressure psi in a temperature of steam at 121°C is called:

a)

Autoclaving

b)

Membrane-filter method

c)

Fractional sterilization

d)

Any of the above

28.

For purposes of microbial control, the term sterilization implies:

a)

The removal of pathogenic forms of microorganisms

b)

The lowering of the microbial count

c)

The destruction of all forms of life

d)

The destruction of microorganisms only on body surface

29.

The part of the bacterial growth curve that reflects an adjustment to the media and a replenishment of the pools of metabolic intermediates is the:

a)

Stationary phase

b)

Death phase

c)

Exponential phase

d)

Interphase

e)

Lag phase

30.

Bacterial growth is expressed mathematically as ______, and this is a reflection of their growth by ________.

a)

Linear/budding

b)

Exponential fusion

c)

Linear/binary fission

d)

Exponential/binary fission

31.

The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the

a)

Exponential growth rate

b)

Generation time

c)

Growth curve

d)

Lag period

32.

During the stationary phase of growth of microorganisms:

a)

The rate of cell division increases

b)

The rate of cell division decreases

c)

The population is at its most vigorous state

d)

The population is at its least vigorous state

33.

The process of binary fission proceeds most frequently in

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Protozoa

d)

Fungi

34.

An obligate halophile requires high

a)

pH

b)

Salt

c)

Temperature

d)

Pressure

35.

Microorganisms that survive in moisture-free environments do so because they

a)

Form spores

b)

Have no cell membranes

c)

Metabolize glucose molecules only

d)

Have no chromosomes

36.

Psychrophilic bacteria are those that grow best

a)

In oxygen-free environments

b)

At cold temperatures

c)

At pH levels of 8 or above

d)

Only in the presence of viruses

37.

Superoxide ion is to toxic to strict anaerobes because they lack

a)

Catalase

b)

Dismutase

c)

Peroxidase

d)

Oxidase

38.

A laboratory medium for bacteria can be enriched by:

a)

Adding ATP

b)

Including salt in the medium

c)

Adding blood

d)

Increasing the level of potassium

39.

An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from carbon dioxide using energy from the sun is a

a)

Photoautotroph

b)

Chemoautotroph

c)

Photoheterotroph

d)

Chemoheterotroph

40.

A cell exposed to a hypertonic environment will _________ by osmosis

a)

Gain water

b)

Neither gain nor lose water

c)

Lose water

d)

Burst

41.

Active transport of a substance across the membrane requires

a)

A gradient

b)

Water

c)

The expenditure of ATP

d)

Diffusion

42.

Motility is observed best with a

a)

Hanging drop preparation

b)

Streak plate

c)

Negative stain

d)

Flagellar stain

43.

Which type of anthrax is more common in animals than humans?

a)

Cutaneous anthrax

b)

Gastrointestinal anthrax

c)

Inhalation anthrax

d)

Mucoid anthrax

44.

A bacterium associated with bacteremia, meningitis, and pneumonia in newborns is

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococci pyogenes

c)

Staphylococcus epidermitis

d)

Streptococcus agalactiae

45.

Which of the following condition is a “systemic disease” caused by Staphylococcus?

a)

Impetigo

b)

Carbuncle

c)

Folliculitis

d)

Toxic shock syndrome

46.

Which of the following vaccine types is commonly given with an adjuvant?

a)

Attenuated vaccine

b)

An immunoglobulin

c)

A modified live vaccine

d)

A chemically killed vaccine

e)

An agglutinating antigen

47.

An autoantigen is

a)

An antigen from bacteria

b)

Any carbohydrate antigen

c)

A normal body component

d)

A nucleic acid

e)

An artificial agent

48.

Interferons

a)

Do not protect the cell that secretes them

b)

Stimulate the activity of neutrophils

c)

Cause muscle aches, chills and fever

d)

All of the above

49.

The type of interferon present late in an infection is

a)

Alpha-interferon

b)

Gamma-interferon

c)

Beta-interferon

d)

Delta-interferon

50.

The alternate pathway

a)

Is also called the Properdin pathway

b)

Involves the cleavage of C5 to form C9

c)

Is more efficient than the classical pathway

d)

Involves recognition of antigens bound to specific antibodies

51.

Fixed phagocytes of the epidermis are called:

a)

Lysozymes

b)

Kupffer cells

c)

Goblet cells

d)

Dendritic cells

52.

A patient contracted athlete’s foot after long-term use of a medication. His physician explained that the malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed:

a)

Nosocomial infections

b)

Iatrogenic infections

c)

Exogenous infection

d)

Endogenous infections

53.

Consider the ff. case, an animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector?

a)

Animal

b)

Mosquito

c)

Virus

d)

Person

54.

Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease?

a)

It normally occurs in a given geographic area

b)

It is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical

area/group/population

c)

It occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population

d)

It is an epidemic that occurs on more than 1 continent at the same time

55.

A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is termed a(n)

a)

Subacute disease

b)

Chronic disease

c)

Acute disease

d)

Latent disease

56.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases?

a)

Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence

b)

Incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence

c)

Prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence

d)

Convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline

57.

When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesins, they

a)

Become virulent

b)

Absorb endotoxin

c)

Produce endotoxin

d)

Increase in virulence

58.

The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is

a)

Infection

b)

Disease

c)

Contamination

d)

Adhesion

59.

The most frequent portal of entry of pathogens is

a)

The respiratory tract

b)

The conjunctiva

c)

The skin

d)

A cut or wound

60.

An axenic environment is one that

a)

Exist in the human mouth

b)

Is free of microbes

c)

Exist in the human colon

61.

In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Pathogenesis

62.

The motile feeding stage of protozoan is called

a)

An apicomplexa

b)

A cyst

c)

A gametocyte

d)

A trophozoite

63.

Carrageenan is found in the cell walls of which group of algae?

a)

Red algae

b)

Dinoflagellates

c)

Green algae

d)

Yellow-green algae

64.

The stemlike portion of a seaweed is called its

a)

Thallus

b)

Stipe

c)

Holdfast

d)

Blade

65.

A phycologist study which of the following?

a)

Classification of eukaryote

b)

Alternation of generations in algae

c)

Rusts, smuts and yeasts

d)

Parasitic worms

66.

Branched, tubular filaments with crosswalls found in large fungi are

a)

Septate hyphae

b)

Aseptate haustoria

c)

Aseptate hyphae

d)

Dimorphic mycelia

67.

Multiple nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic divisions result in cells called

a)

Myoses

b)

Haustoria

c)

Coenocytes

d)

Pseudohypa

68.

Which of the following sequences reflects the correct order of events in mitosis?

a)

Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

b)

Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

c)

Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase

d)

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

69.

Which genus is the most common anaerobic human pathogen?

a)

Bacteriodes

b)

Chlamydias

c)

Spirochetes

d)

Methanopyrus

70.

Endospores

a)

Can remain alive for decades

b)

Can remain alive in boiling water

c)

Live in a state of suspended animation

d)

All of the above

71.

Which of the following terms best describes stiff, spiral-shaped prokaryotic cell?

a)

Cocci

b)

Spirilla

c)

Bacilli

d)

Spirochetes

72.

The thick-walled reproductive spores produced in the middle of cyanobacterial filaments are called

a)

Akinetes

b)

Metachromatic granules

c)

Terminal enospores

d)

Myxospores

73.

The type of reproduction in prokaryotes that results in a palisade of cells is called

a)

Pleomorphic division

b)

Snapping division

c)

Endospore formation

d)

Binary fission

74.

Drugs that act against protein synthesis include

a)

Beta-lactams

b)

Polymyxin

c)

Trimethoprim

d)

Aminoglycosides

75.

Which of the following is most closely associated with a B-lactam ring?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Isoniazid

76.

The key to successful chemotherapy is

a)

Selective toxicity

b)

The minimum inhibitory concentration

c)

The diffusion test

d)

The spectrum of action

77.

In Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing antimicrobial agents indicates

a)

That the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents

b)

That the microbe grows well in the presence of the agents

c)

The smallest amount of the agent that will inhibit the growth of the microbe

d)

The minimum amount of an agent that kills the microbe in question

78.

A sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time and 90% of the cells have been destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event?

a)

Thermal death point

b)

Decimal reduction time

c)

Thermal death time

d)

None of the above

79.

Which of the following adjectives best describes a surgical procedure that is free of microbial contaminants?

a)

Disinfected

b)

Degermed

c)

Sanitized

d)

Aseptic

80.

Which of the following substances would most effectively inhibit anaerobes in a deep wound?

a)

Phenol

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Hexachlorophene

d)

Isopropanol

81.

The spores of which organisms are used as biological indicator of sterilization?

a)

Bacillus staerothermophilus

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Salmonella typhi

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

82.

Which of the following items functions most like an autoclave?

a)

A boiling pan

b)

A dessicator

c)

An incinerator

d)

A pressure cooker

83.

Which of the following statements is true concerning the selection of an antimicrobial agent?

a)

An ideal antimicrobial agent is stable during storage

b)

An antimicrobial agent is fast acting

c)

Ideal microbial agents do not exist

d)

All of the above

84.

The microbial death rate is used to measure

a)

The efficiency of a detergent

b)

The efficiency of sanitization techniques

c)

The efficiency of antiseptic

d)

All of the above

85.

Which of the following terms best describes the disinfecting of cafeteria plates?

a)

Pasteurization

b)

Sterilization

c)

Antisepsis

d)

Sanitization

86.

Which of the following substances or processes kills microorganisms on laboratory surfaces?

a)

Antiseptics

b)

Degermers

c)

Disinfectants

d)

Paseurization

87.

Which of the following is a true statement concerning prokaryotic chromosomes?

a)

They typically have two or three origins of replications

b)

The contain single-stranded DNA

c)

They are located in the cytosol

d)

They are associated in linear pairs

88.

Quorum sensing is

a)

The ability to respond to changes in population density

b)

A characteristic of most bacteria

c)

They are located in the cytosol

d)

They are associated in linear pairs

89.

Lyophilization is best described as

a)

Freeze-drying

b)

Refrigeration

c)

Deep-freezing

d)

Pickling

90.

A Coulter counter is

a)

A statistical estimation using five dilution tubes and a table of numbers to estimate the

number of bacteria per milliliter.

b)

An indirect method of counting microorganisms.

c)

A device that directly counts microbes as they pass through a tube in front of an electronic

detector.

d)

A device that directly counts microbes that are differentially stained with fluorescent dyes.

91.

Which of the following methods is best for counting fecal bacteria from a stream to determine the safety of the water for drinking?

a)

Dry weight

b)

Viable plate counts

c)

Turbidity

d)

Membrane filtration

92.

In a defined medium

a)

The exact composition of the medium is known

b)

Agar is available for microbial nutrition

c)

Blood may be included

d)

Organic chemicals are excluded

93.

This statement, “In the laboratory, a sterile inoculating loop moved across the agar surface in a culture dish, thinning a sample and isolating individuals,” describes which of the following

a)

Broth culture

b)

Streak plate

c)

Pour plate

d)

Dilution plate

94.

Barophiles

a)

Cannot cause diseases in humans

b)

Die if put under high pressure

c)

Live at normal barometric pressure

d)

Thrive in warm air

95.

Organisms that may be found thriving in icy waters are described as

a)

Barophiles

b)

Mesophiles

c)

Thermophiles

d)

Psychrophiles

96.

Which of the following is not a growth factor for various microbes?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Vitamins

c)

Water

d)

Heme

97.

Microaerophiles that grow best with a high concentration of carbon dioxide in addition to a low level of oxygen are called

a)

Aerotolerant

b)

Facultative anaerobes

c)

Capnophiles

d)

Fastidious

98.

The most reactive of the four toxic forms of oxygen is the

a)

Hydroxyl radical

b)

Superoxide radical

c)

Peroxide anion

d)

Singlet oxygen

99.

Superoxide dismutase

a)

Causes hydrogen peroxide to become toxic

b)

Detoxifies superoxide radicals

c)

Neutralizes singlet oxygen

d)

Is missing in aerobes

100.

Which of the following terms best describes an organism that cannot exist in the presence of oxygen?

a)

Obligate aerobe

b)

Obligate anaerobe

c)

Facultative aerobe

d)

Facultative anaerobe

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