WorksheetsModule 6 - Green PACOP MicroBio 100-200
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Aerobic, non-spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients.
a)
Meningococcus
b)
Gonococcus
c)
Bacillus antracis
d)
Clostridium tetani
e)
Listeria monocytogenes
2.
Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-D-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s disease.
a)
Meningococcus
b)
Gonococcus
c)
Bacillus antracis
d)
Clostridium tetani
e)
Listeria monocytogenes
3.
103. Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile.”
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Clostridium tetani
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e)
Clostridium dificile
4.
The causative agent of gas gangrene.
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Clostridium tetani
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e)
Clostridium dificile
5.
In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system.
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Clostridium tetani
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e)
Clostridium dificile
6.
Anaerobic, gram positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Clostridium tetani
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e)
Clostridium dificile
7.
The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods.
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Clostridium tetani
c)
Clostridium botulinum
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e)
Clostridium dificile
8.
A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.
a)
Escherichia coli
b)
Salmonella typhi
c)
Shigella dysenteriae
d)
Vibrio cholera
e)
Camphylobacter jejuni
9.
A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in Skirrow’s agar.
a)
Escherichia coli
b)
Salmonella typhi
c)
Shigella dysenteriae
d)
Vibrio cholera
e)
Camphylobacter jejuni
10.
Facultative gram negative rods, non-lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).
a)
Escherichia coli
b)
Salmonella typhi
c)
Shigella dysenteriae
d)
Vibrio cholera
e)
Camphylobacter jejuni
11.
Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travelers diarrhea” are the most common diseases caused by this gram negative, non-lactose fermenting bacilli.
a)
Escherichia coli
b)
Salmonella typhi
c)
Shigella dysenteriae
d)
Vibrio cholera
e)
Camphylobacter jejuni
12.
Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non-lactose fermenting, gram negative rod which is capable of producing H2S.
a)
Escherichia coli
b)
Salmonella typhi
c)
Shigella dysenteriae
d)
Vibrio cholera
e)
Camphylobacter jejuni
13.
Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis.
a)
Mycobacterium leprae
b)
Mycobactrium tuberculosis
c)
Borrelia burgdorferi
d)
Treponema pallidum
e)
Leptospira interrogans
14.
Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis.
a)
Mycobacterium leprae
b)
Mycobactrium tuberculosis
c)
Borrelia burgdorferi
d)
Treponema pallidum
e)
Leptospira interrogans
15.
Spirochete, which is the causative agent of Lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early stage and Pen G for late stages.
a)
Mycobacterium leprae
b)
Mycobactrium tuberculosis
c)
Borrelia burgdorferi
d)
Treponema pallidum
e)
Leptospira interrogans
16.
An acid-fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement.
a)
Mycobacterium leprae
b)
Mycobactrium tuberculosis
c)
Borrelia burgdorferi
d)
Treponema pallidum
e)
Leptospira interrogans
17.
An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and is capable of producing Niacin. It can be treated with Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH.
a)
Mycobacterium leprae
b)
Mycobactrium tuberculosis
c)
Borrelia burgdorferi
d)
Treponema pallidum
e)
Leptospira interrogans
18.
Gangcyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective.
a)
Herpes Simplex virus Type 1
b)
Varicella-Zoster virus
c)
Herpes simplex virus Type 2
d)
Cytomegalovirus
e)
Epstein-Barr virus
19.
The causative agent of Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease.
a)
Herpes Simplex virus Type 1
b)
Varicella-Zoster virus
c)
Herpes simplex virus Type 2
d)
Cytomegalovirus
e)
Epstein-Barr virus
20.
The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can then be treated with Acyclovir.
a)
Herpes Simplex virus Type 1
b)
Varicella-Zoster virus
c)
Herpes simplex virus Type 2
d)
Cytomegalovirus
e)
Epstein-Barr virus
21.
The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis.
a)
Herpes Simplex virus Type 1
b)
Varicella-Zoster virus
c)
Herpes simplex virus Type 2
d)
Cytomegalovirus
e)
Epstein-Barr virus
22.
The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults.
a)
Herpes Simplex virus Type 1
b)
Varicella-Zoster virus
c)
Herpes simplex virus Type 2
d)
Cytomegalovirus
e)
Epstein-Barr virus
23.
Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal cells?
a)
Human cells undergo mitosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do.
b)
Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains peptidoglycan.
c)
Human and bacterial cells have plasmids, whereas fungal cells do not have.
d)
Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.
24.
The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except:
a)
They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins.
b)
They are more heat stable than exotoxins.
c)
They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.
d)
They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not.
25.
The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:
a)
Activated macrophages secreting proteases
b)
IgG and IgM antibodies
c)
Helper-T cells
d)
Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
26.
The following events involve recombination of DNA, except:
a)
Transduction of a chromosomal gene
b)
Transposition of a mobile genetic element
c)
Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
d)
Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor
27.
The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except:
a)
The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis.
b)
Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat.
c)
Colon is the major site where Bacteroides fragilis can be found.
d)
Nose is one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus aureus can be found.
28.
Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defenses against bacteria?
a)
Activation of the lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
b)
Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
c)
Facilitation of phagocytosis
d)
Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
29.
Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
a)
Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
b)
Inactivates elongation factor-2
c)
Blocks release of acetylcholine
d)
Causes the release of necrosis factor
30.
The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
a)
Capsule
b)
Flagella
c)
Cell wall
d)
Ribosomes
31.
Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine
a)
Diphtheria toxin
b)
Tetanus toxin
c)
Botulinum toxin
d)
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
32.
Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor-2
a)
Diphtheria toxin
b)
Tetanus toxin
c)
Botulinum toxin
d)
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
33.
Stimulates T cells to produce cytokines
a)
Diphtheria toxin
b)
Tetanus toxin
c)
Botulinum toxin
d)
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
34.
Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP-ribose to a G protein
a)
Diphtheria toxin
b)
Tetanus toxin
c)
Botulinum toxin
d)
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
e)
Cholera toxin
35.
Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms
a)
Diphtheria toxin
b)
Tetanus toxin
c)
Botulinum toxin
d)
Toxic shock syndrome toxin
36.
An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occured in the newborn nursery. You are called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the norma flora , what is the most likely source of the bacteria?
a)
Colon
b)
Nose
c)
Throat
d)
Vagina
37.
The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except:
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Streptococcus fecalis
c)
Escherichia coli
d)
Vibrio cholerae
38.
A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridans group of Streptococcus. Which one of the following sites is most likely to be the source of the organism?
a)
Skin
b)
Colon
c)
Oropharynx
d)
Urethra
39.
The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish:
a)
Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus faecalis
b)
Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
c)
Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
d)
Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
40.
Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?
a)
Clostridium perfringens
b)
Bacillus cereus
c)
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
d)
Salmonella typhi
41.
Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector?
a)
Plague
b)
Lyme disease
c)
Brucellosis
d)
Epidemic typhus
42.
. Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
a)
Salmonella typhi
b)
Rickettsia typhi
c)
Haemophilus influenzae
d)
Coxiella burnetii
43.
The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except:
a)
Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize sufficient ATP.
b)
Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall.
c)
Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. psittaci has only one serotype.
d)
Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods.
44.
A 55-year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram-negative rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non-lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of swarming motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent of his urinary tract infection?
a)
Streptococcus faecalis
b)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c)
Proteus vulgaris
d)
Escherichia coli
45.
Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following organisms?
a)
Streptococcus faecalis
b)
Streptococcus pyogenes
c)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
d)
Streptococcus agalactiae
46.
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent patient?
a)
Nocardia asteroides
b)
Serratia marcescens
c)
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d)
Legionella pneumophila
47.
Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
a)
Passive immunity
b)
Passive-active immunity
c)
Active immunity
d)
Cell-mediated immunity
48.
The following statements concerning Interferon are correct, except:
a)
Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses.
b)
Interferon is induced by double-stranded DNA.
c)
Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species.
d)
Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.
49.
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct, except:
a)
Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell.
b)
Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell.
c)
Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides.
d)
Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.
50.
The following statements about lysogeny are correct, except:
a)
Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes.
b)
Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed.
c)
Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.
d)
Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that cause human diseases.
51.
The following viruses possess an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:
a)
Varicell-zoster virus
b)
Papillomavirus
c)
Influenza virus
d)
HIV virus
52.
The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
a)
Hepatitis A virus
b)
Smallpox virus
c)
Mumps virus
d)
Rotavirus
53.
The following viruses possess double-stranded DNA as its genome, except:
a)
Coxsackie virus
b)
Herpes simplex virus
c)
Rotavirus
d)
Adenovirus
54.
Which of the following statements best describe a viriod?
a)
It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
b)
It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
c)
It causes tumor in experimental animals.
d)
It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
55.
The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except:
a)
They are enveloped RNA viruses.
b)
Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
c)
They each have a single antigenic type.
d)
They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
56.
The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except:
a)
They are enveloped RNA viruses.
b)
Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
c)
Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses.
d)
They each have a single antigenic type.
57.
The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except:
a)
They are non-enveloped RNA viruses.
b)
They each have multiple antigenic types.
c)
Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
d)
They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell.
58.
Herpes simplex virus
a)
DNA enveloped virus
b)
DNA non-enveloped virus
c)
RNA enveloped virus
d)
RNA non-enveloped virus
59.
Human Tcell leukemia virus
a)
DNA enveloped virus
b)
DNA non-enveloped virus
c)
RNA enveloped virus
d)
RNA non-enveloped virus
60.
Human papillomavirus
a)
DNA enveloped virus
b)
DNA non-enveloped virus
c)
RNA enveloped virus
d)
RNA non-enveloped virus
61.
Rotavirus
a)
DNA enveloped virus
b)
DNA non-enveloped virus
c)
RNA enveloped virus
d)
RNA non-enveloped virus
62.
The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except:
a)
Cytomegalovirus
b)
Hepatitis A virus
c)
Hepatitis B virus
d)
Herpes simples virus
63.
Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus?
a)
Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine
b)
Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin
c)
Parenteral administration of live vaccine
d)
Oral administration of live vaccine
64.
The following clinical syndromes are associated with infection by picornavirus, except:
a)
Myocarditis/Pericarditis
b)
Hepatitis
c)
Mononucleosis
d)
Meningitis
65.
The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except:
a)
The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus.
b)
If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given.
c)
When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given.
d)
The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis
66.
The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except:
a)
The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract.
b)
Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children.
c)
Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.
d)
Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons.
67.
It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix.
a)
Hepatitis C virus
b)
Cytomegalovirus
c)
Human papilloma virus
d)
Dengue virus
e)
St. Louis encephalitis virus
68.
Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus.
a)
Hepatitis C virus
b)
Cytomegalovirus
c)
Human papilloma virus
d)
Dengue virus
e)
St. Louis encephalitis virus
69.
It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients.
a)
Hepatitis C virus
b)
Cytomegalovirus
c)
Human papilloma virus
d)
Dengue virus
e)
St. Louis encephalitis virus
70.
Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus ahould not be used for transfusion.
a)
Hepatitis C virus
b)
Cytomegalovirus
c)
Human papilloma virus
d)
Dengue virus
e)
St. Louis encephalitis virus
71.
It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening.
a)
Hepatitis C virus
b)
Cytomegalovirus
c)
Human papilloma virus
d)
Dengue virus
e)
St. Louis encephalitis virus
72.
Bacteria lack all of the following organelles,except:
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitotic apparatus
d)
DNA
e)
Nuclear membrane
73.
The following are true about prokaryotes, except:
a)
They are relatively small.
b)
Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only.
c)
They lack autonomous organelles.
d)
Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.
74.
Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission:
a)
Bacteria
b)
Fungi
c)
Protozoa
d)
Helminths
75.
Phylogenetic classifications are based on:
a)
Shared morphologic attributes
b)
Evolutionary relationships
c)
Shape
d)
Unusual growth characteristics
76.
The peptidoglycan of gram-negative bacteria probably is:
a)
20 layers thick
b)
40 layers thick
c)
10 layers thick
d)
80 layers thick
e)
1 layer thick
77.
Porins are:
a)
Cytoplasmic membrane proteins
b)
Periplasmic proteins
c)
Outer membrane proteins
d)
Inclusion bodies
78.
Gram-negative bacterial cell wall contains the following components, except:
a)
Lipoproteins
b)
Lipotechoic acid
c)
Lipopolysacchatide
d)
Phospholipid
79.
This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the DNA.
a)
Nucleoid
b)
Plasmids
c)
Mesosomes
d)
Transposons
80.
The bacterial organelle that is used for motility:
a)
Flagella
b)
Pili
c)
Cilia
d)
Pseudopods
81.
An intracytoplasmic granule may contain:
a)
Nucleic cids
b)
Glycogen
c)
Steroids
d)
Spindle fibers
82.
The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores:
a)
Polymerized d-glutamic acid
b)
Flagellin
c)
Dipicolinic acid
d)
Techoic acid
83.
This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms:
a)
Flagella
b)
Fimbriae
c)
Capsule
d)
Endospores
84.
This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and even catheters:
a)
Capsule
b)
Slime layer
c)
Pili
d)
Flagella
85.
The following are true for endospores, except:
a)
Highly resistant to disinfectants
b)
Can survive for many years, especially in soil
c)
Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation
d)
Killed by heating at 100oC
86.
A rod-like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and is killed by the presence of oxygen is best described as:
a)
Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
b)
Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacilli
c)
Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic streptobacillus
d)
Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
87.
Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as:
a)
Heterotrophs
b)
Autotrophs
c)
Chemoautotrophs
d)
Photoautotrophs
88.
The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity occurs but cells do not divide is the:
a)
Stationary phase
b)
Log phase
c)
Lag phase
d)
Death phase
89.
The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as:
a)
Thermal death time
b)
Growth rate constant
c)
Generation time
d)
Thermal death point
90.
Which of the following organisms is a predatory bacterium?
a)
Salmonella thypinurium
b)
Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
c)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d)
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
91.
Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by:
a)
Activated transport
b)
Facilitated diffusion
c)
Carrier-mediated transport
d)
Any of the above
92.
Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called:
a)
Heterofermenters
b)
Homofermenters
c)
Glyoxalate shunt fermenters
d)
Oxidative fermenters
93.
The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:
a)
Carbohydrates/Nucleic acids/Steroids
b)
Nucleic acids/Chitin/Peptidoglycans
c)
Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids
d)
Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin
94.
Which of the following statements is true about drug-resistant plasmids?
a)
Found only in gram-negative bacteria
b)
Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic
c)
May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant
d)
Two of the above
95.
Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation?
a)
It requires the F factor
b)
It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
c)
It is mediated by a bacterial virus
d)
It is found only in gram-negative bacteria
96.
It is the relationship between the host and the normal microbiota:
a)
Disease
b)
Infection
c)
Symbiosis
d)
Parasitism
97.
It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria:
a)
Disease
b)
Infestation
c)
Infection
d)
Syndromes
98.
Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
a)
Acute
b)
Subacute
c)
Chronic
d)
Latent
99.
This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease:
a)
Decline phase
b)
Prodormal stage
c)
Illness stage
d)
Convalescence stage
100.
The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is described as:
a)
Endemic
b)
Epidemic
c)
Pandemic
d)
Acute
100 %
