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Worksheets

G12 USK PHY

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 27hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Loss of energy of an electron results in

a)

Absorption of photon

b)

Emission of photon

c)

Destruction of photon

d)

Formation of photon

2.

Wavelength of a 65 kg person running at a speed of 3 m/s through an opening of width 0.80 m is

a)

34 m

b)

35 m

c)

3.4×10-36m

d)

3.5 m

3.

According to Newton, the light travels as

a)

Particles

b)

Waves

c)

Both A and B

d)

Dust

4.

Energy of an electron in an atom is

a)

Quantized

b)

Continuous

c)

Radial

d)

Randomized

5.

An alpha particle moves at one-tenth the velocity of a beta particle. They move through the same uniform magnetic field at right angles to their motion. The magnitude of the ratio force on the alpha particle/force on the beta particle is

a)

1/4

b)

1/5

c)

1/10

d)

1/20

6.

Nuclear binding energy is

a)

The energy required to overcome the electrostatic force between the protons in the nucleus

b)

Energy equivalent of the mass of the protons in the nucleus

c)

The energy equivalent of the mass of all the nucleons in the nucleus

d)

The energy equivalent of the difference between the total mass of the individual nucleons and their mass when they are contained in the nucleus.

7.

The moderator in a nuclear reactor is sometimes made of graphite. What is the purpose of the graphite

a)

To absorb all the heat produced

b)

To decrease the neutron speeds

c)

To absorb the alpha and gamma radiations

d)

To prevent the reactor from going critical

8.

After 64 days, the activity of a radioactive nuclide has fallen to one sixteenth of its original value. The half-life of the radioactive nuclide is

a)

2 days

b)

4 days

c)

8 days

d)

16 days

9.

Which of the following best describes the decay constant for a radioisotope

a)

The reciprocal of the half-life of the radioisotope

b)

The rate of decay of the radioisotope

c)

The constant of proportionality which links half-life to the rate of decay nuclei

d)

The constant of proportionality which links rate of decay to the number of undecayed nuclei

10.

The gradual decrease in x-ray beam intensity as it passes through the material is called

a)

Attenuation

b)

Decay

c)

Radioactivity

d)

Imaging

11.

Bones look white in x-ray photographs because

a)

They are bad absorbers of x-rays

b)

They reflect x-rays

c)

They are good absorber of x-rays

d)

They are bad absorbers of ultraviolet rays

12.

If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate, then rays produced are

a)

Alpha rays

b)

Beta rays

c)

Gamma rays

d)

X-rays

13.

As the x-rays pass through matter, its intensity

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains constant

d)

May increase or decrease depending on the object

14.

Fatty tissues have…

a)

Relaxation time of several seconds

b)

Relaxation time of several hundred nanoseconds

c)

Intermediate relaxation times

d)

Relaxation times of several hundred milliseconds

15.

Change in speed of ultrasound causes

a)

Reflection

b)

Diffraction

c)

Refraction

d)

Image

16.

Contrast media for medical imaging consists of elements with

a)

Lower atomic number

b)

Higher atomic number

c)

Metalloids

d)

Inert gases

17.

Activity is proportional to the number of

a)

Daughter nuclei

b)

Decayed nuclei

c)

Undecayed nuclei

d)

Father nuclei

18.

Radioactive decay is a

a)

Random process

b)

Non-spontaneous process

c)

Regular process

d)

Massive process

19.

1 u is equal to

a)

1.66 ×10-27kg

b)

2 ×10-27kg

c)

3 ×10-27kg

d)

5 ×10-27kg

20.

In gamma emission, the change in nucleon number is

a)

Zero

b)

Definite

c)

Increased by 1

d)

Decreased by 1

21.

At higher energy, the bodies have

a)

Smaller mass

b)

Larger mass

c)

Zero mass

d)

Smaller weight

22.

The time taken by a radioactive substance to decay half is called

a)

Time delay

b)

Half life

c)

Time constant

d)

Half period

23.

Two stars have the same surface temperature but different sizes. Star X has twice the diameter of star Y. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Star X has twice the luminosity of star Y

b)

Star X has four times the luminosity of star Y

c)

Star X has eight times the luminosity of star Y

d)

Star X has sixteen times the luminosity of star Y

24.

Two distant stars are observed through a telescope. Star A is observed to be half as bright as star B. Star A is calculated to be twice as far away as star B. Which of the following is correct?

a)

Star A has half the luminosity of star B

b)

Star A has the same luminosity of star B

c)

Star A has twice the luminosity of star B

d)

Star B has 8 times the luminosity of star B

25.

On a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram our Sun is located on the main sequence. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

All giant stars are larger and cooler than our sun

b)

All giant stars are larger and hotter than our sun

c)

All white dwarf stars are smaller and hotter than our sun

d)

All white dwarf stars are hotter and brighter than our sun

26.

The most stable isotope in nature is of

a)

Iron- 56

b)

Carbon-12

c)

Uranium-235

d)

Uranium-238

27.

Activity of one decay per second is equal to

a)

1 Bq

b)

1 atm

c)

1 mol

d)

1 Cd

28.

This is the process by which energy is released in the sun

a)

Fission

b)

Haber’s process

c)

Fusion

d)

Radioactivity

29.

Minimum energy required to pull nucleus apart is called

a)

Ionization energy

b)

Electron affinity

c)

Chemical energy

d)

Binding energy

30.

Waves associated with electrons are referred to as 

a)

Plasma waves

b)

UV waves

c)

Gamma rays

d)

Matter waves

31.

Frequency below which no electrons are emitted from the metal surface is 

a)

Minimum frequency

b)

Angular frequency

c)

Maximum frequency

d)

Threshold frequency

32.

Loss of energy of an electron results in

a)

Absorption of photon

b)

Emission of photon

c)

Destruction of photon

d)

Formation of photon

33.

What is the wavelength of a 65 kg person running at a speed of 3 meters per second through an opening of width 0.80 m

a)

34 m

b)

35 m

c)

3.4 ×10-36m

d)

3.5 m

34.

According to Newton, the light travels as

a)

Particles

b)

Waves

c)

Both particles and waves

d)

Dust

35.

Diffraction of slow-moving electrons is used to estimate 

a)

Arrangement of atoms in metals

b)

Nature of atoms

c)

Number of atoms in metals

d)

Position of atoms in metalloids

36.

Energy of photon is directly related to the

a)

Wavelength

b)

Wave number

c)

Frequency

d)

Amplitude

37.

When white light is passed through cool gases, the spectra observed is called 

a)

Line spectra

b)

Continuous spectra

c)

Emission line spectra

d)

Absorption line spectra

38.

Quantum of electromagnetic energy is called

a)

Particles

b)

Photons

c)

Waves

d)

Energy

39.

In photoelectric effect, electrons should be removed from the

a)

Inner shells

b)

Surface

c)

From core

d)

The nucleus

40.

When white light is passed through cool gases, the spectra observed is called 

a)

Line spectra

b)

Continuous spectra

c)

Emission line spectra

d)

Absorption line spectra

41.

Most energetic photons are

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

d)

X-rays

42.

Radioactive decay is a 

a)

Random process

b)

Non-spontaneous process

c)

Regular process

d)

Massive process

43.

1 u is equal to

a)

1.660×10-27kg

b)

2×10-27kg

c)

3×10-27kg

d)

5×10-27kg

44.

In gamma emission, the change in nucleon number is

a)

Zero

b)

Definite

c)

Increased by 1

d)

Decreased by 1

45.

The time taken by a radioactive substance to decay half is called

a)

Time delay

b)

Half life

c)

Time constant

d)

Half period

46.

As the x-rays pass through matter, it’s intensity

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains constant

d)

May increase or decrease depending on the object

47.

A sound wave which has frequency higher than the upper limit of the human hearing is

a)

Infrasonic

b)

Ultrasonic

c)

Supersonic

d)

Megasonic

48.

Standard candles are stars for which we know the

a)

Brightness

b)

Colour when observed from Earth

c)

Distance from the observer

d)

Luminosity

49.

Minimum energy required to pull nucleus apart is called

a)

Ionization energy

b)

Electron affinity

c)

Chemical energy

d)

Binding energy

50.

If energy is released from a system, it’s mass

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Constant

d)

Zero

51.

New nucleus after alpha particle decay is called

a)

Parent nucleus

b)

Daughter nucleus

c)

Decayed nucleus

d)

Undecayed nucleus

52.

Bones look white in x-ray photograph because

a)

They are bad absorbers of x rays

b)

The reflect xrays

c)

They are good absorbers of xrays

d)

They are bad absorbers of ultraviolet rays

53.

T tauri stars are very young low mass stars, still in the process of gravitational contraction. The Hertsprun-Russell diagram below shows data for a range of stars.

Identify in which area A, B, C, or D on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram T tauri stars are likely to be found?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

54.

In which of the following situations would a blue shift be observed?

a)

Source and observer moving with the same velocity

b)

Source moving along a circular path around an observer

c)

Source moving away from a stationary observer

d)

Source moving towards a stationary observer

55.

When light from a distant star reaches us on earth, its wavelength appears shifted towards the red end of the spectrum. This is because

a)

The distance travelled by each successive wave has increased

b)

The frequency of the light emitted has decreased

c)

The speed of the star has increased

d)

The star is emitting longer wavelengths

56.

Two stars with the same luminosity might produce different radiation fluxes at Earth. This is primarily due to the stars having different

a)

Diameters

b)

Distances from the earth

c)

Motions through the universe

d)

Surface temperatures

57.

Radioactive decay is said to be a spontaneous process. This means that

a)

We cannot know when a nucleus will decay

b)

We cannot know which nucleus will decay next

c)

We cannot know how many nuclei will decay

d)

We cannot influence when a nucleus will decay

58.

A radioactive source is placed 2 cm from a detector. The count rate decreases slightly if a sheet of paper is placed between the source and the detector. It is reduced to background radiation level when the paper is replaced with a 1 cm thickness of aluminium. The correct conclusion is that the source emits

a)

Alpha radiation only

b)

Alpha and beta radiation

c)

Beta and gamma radiation

d)

Gamma radiation only

59.

The ionising properties of radiations determine their penetrating power. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Alpha particles are not very ionising so they are stopped by thin paper

b)

Alpha particles are very ionising so can only travel a few centimetres in air

c)

Gamma radiation is very penetrating because it is very ionising

d)

Gamma radiation is not very penetrating because it is very ionising

60.

A radioactive source is placed a few centimetres away from a detector. There is no change in the count rate when a thin aluminium foil is placed between the source and the detector, but the count rate is reduced to the background rate when a 0.5cm aluminium plate is introduced. These observations show that the source must be emitting 

a)

Alpha and beta radiation

b)

Beta and gamma radiation

c)

Beta radiation only

d)

Gamma radiation only

61.

Fission and fusion are both nuclear processes. Which of the following statements is correct for both processes?

a)

Neutrons are released

b)

No harmful radiation is produced

c)

The binding energy per nucleon increases

d)

The total mass increases

62.

The table shows the masses of three particles. What is the mass difference of a 37Li nucleus?

a)

4.99841u

b)

0.04216u

c)

0.04147u

d)

0.04077u

63.

A deuterium nucleus and a tritium nucleus fuse together to form a helium nucleus and a particle X. The equation for this process is

12H + 13H -> 24He + X

What is X?

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Positron

d)

Proton

64.

The Rutherford scattering experiment led to

a)

The discovery of the electron

b)

The quark model of hadrons

c)

The discovery of the nucleus

d)

Evidence for wave-particle duality

65.

A pure sample of nuclide X containing N nuclei has an activity A.  The half-life of X is 6000 years. A pure sample of nuclide Y containing 3N nuclei has an activity 6A. What is the half-life of nuclide Y?

a)

1000 years

b)

3000 years

c)

12 000 years

d)

18 000 years

66.

Uranium 236 undergoes nuclear fission to produce barium 144, krypton 89 and three free neutrons. 

What is the energy released in this process?

a)

84 MeV

b)

106 MeV

c)

191 MeV

d)

3730 MeV

67.

After 64 days the activity of a radioactive nuclide has fallen to one sixteenth of its original value. The half-life of the radioactive nuclide is

a)

2 days

b)

4 days

c)

8 days

d)

16 days

68.

Nuclear binding energy is

a)

The energy required to overcome the electrostatic force between the protons in the nucleus

b)

Energy equivalent of the mass of the protons in the nucleus

c)

The energy equivalent of the mass of all the nucleons in the nucleus

d)

The energy equivalent of the difference between the total mass of the individual nucleons and their mass when they are contained in the nucleus

69.

The actinium series of radioactive decay starts with an isotope of uranium, nucleon (mass) number 235, proton (atomic) number 92.

Which line in the table shows the nucleon number and proton number of the isotope after the emission of 5 alpha particles and 2 beta particles?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

70.

In a thermal reactor, induced fission caused by the 92235U nucleus capturing a neutron, undergoing fission and producing more neutrons. Which one of the following statements is true?

a)

To sustain the reaction a large number of neutrons is required per fission

b)

The purpose of the moderator is to absorb all the heat produced

c)

The neutrons required for induced fission of 92235U should be slow neutrons

d)

The purpose of the control rods is to slow down neutrons to thermal speeds

71.

A radioactive substance contains a number of identical nuclei that emit beta particles. 

Which property of these nuclei remains unaltered by the emission?

a)

Charge

b)

Neutron number

c)

Nucleon number

d)

Proton number

72.

A neutral atom has a nucleus given by the symbol 55133Cs

How many protons, neutrons and electrons are in this atom?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.

The nucleus of a radioactive isotope of an element emits an alpha particle. The daughter nucleus then emits a beta particle and then the daughter nucleus of that reaction emits another beta particle.

Which statement describes the final nuclide that is formed?

a)

It is different isotope of the original element

b)

It is a nuclide of a different element of higher proton number

c)

It is a nuclide of the same element but with different proton number

d)

It is identical to the original nuclide

74.

A nuclear reaction is shown

92238U + 24He -> 94241Pu+ X

What is product X?

a)

An alpha particle

b)

An electron

c)

A neutron

d)

A proton

75.

An isotope of thorium has a nucleon number of 232 and a proton number of 90. It decays to form another isotope of thorium with a nucleon number of 228. 

How many alpha particles and beta particles are emitted by a nucleus of thorium during this decay?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.

When alpha particles are fired at a thin metal foil, most of the particles pass straight through but a few are deflected by a large angle.

Which change would increase the proportion of alpha particles deflected by a large angle?

a)

Using alpha particles with greater kinetic energy

b)

Using a foil made of a metal with fewer protons in its nuclei

c)

Using a double thickness foil

d)

Using an alpha source with higher activity

77.

Which pair of nuclei are isotopes of one another?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.

Scientists investigating the count rate from a radioactive source observed that the count rate fluctuates. What do these fluctuations imply about the nature of radioactive decay?

a)

It involves atomic nuclei

b)

It is predictable

c)

It is random

d)

It is spontaneous

79.

__________ should have enough gravitational force to pull in light

a)

Stars

b)

Black holes

c)

Red giants

d)

Supernovae

80.

The star at the center of the solar system that supplies heat and light to earth; its enormous gravity keep the solar system in orbit

a)

Satellite

b)

Sun

c)

Craters

d)

Moon

81.

The ___________ has planets, moons, comets, and asteroids

a)

Solar system

b)

Earth

c)

Rotation

d)

United States

82.

What holds the planets in their orbits around the sun?

a)

Gravity

b)

Speed

c)

String

d)

Air currents

83.

A small hot star near the end of its life is a star called a

a)

White dwarf

b)

Red dwarf

c)

Supergiant

d)

Protostar

84.

The color of a star depends on its

a)

Size

b)

Temperature

c)

Shape

d)

Magnitude

85.

Which statement about alpha, beta, and gamma radiation is correct?

a)

Alpha radiation has the greatest ionising power

b)

Beta radiation has the greatest ionising power

c)

Gamma radiation has the greatest ionising power

d)

Alpha, beta, and gamma radiation have nearly equal ionising powers

86.

What remains constant during beta emission from a number of identical nuclei in a substance?

a)

Energy of the beta particles

b)

Neutron number of the nuclei 

c)

Nucleon number of the nuclei

d)

Proton number of the nuclei

87.

Which statement concerning alpha particles is correct?

a)

An alpha particle has charge +4

b)

An alpha particle is a Helium atom

c)

When alpha particles travel through air, they cause ionisation

d)

When alpha particles travel through a sheet of gold foil, they make the gold radioactive

88.

A counter recording radioactive decays from a radioactive source gives the following counts in equal intervals of time. What can be deduced from these readings

a)

That radioactivity is random and that the half-life is 90 minutes

b)

That radioactivity is random and that the half-life is uncertain

c)

That radioactivity is spontaneous and that the half-life is 90 minutes

d)

That radioactivity is spontaneous and that the half-life is uncertain

89.

Which of the following describes the lifecycle of a star about the size of the Sun? 

a)

Interstellar hydrogen clouds🡪 protostar 🡪 main sequence star 🡪 re supergiant 🡪 black hole

b)

Interstellar hydrogen clouds 🡪 planetary nebula 🡪 main sequence star 🡪 red giant 🡪 protostar 🡪 white dwarf

c)

Interstellar hydrogen clouds 🡪 protostar 🡪 main sequence star 🡪 red giant 🡪 planetary nebula 🡪 white dwarf

d)

Interstellar hydrogen clouds 🡪 protostar 🡪 main sequence star 🡪 red supergiant 🡪 neutron star

90.

Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does the Sun radiate most of its energy in?

a)

 Radio, visible and gamma

b)

Infrared, visible and ultraviolet

c)

Infrared, x-rays and gamma

d)

Infrared, visible and gamma

91.

Which of the planets listed is the gaseous planet which is closest to the Sun?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mars

c)

Saturn

d)

Uranus

92.

What creates the periodic nature of the seasons?

a)

The tilting of the earth’s axis

b)

The orbiting of the earth around the sun

c)

The combination of the orbiting of the earth around the sun and the earth’s tilting axis

d)

The change in temperature of the sun

93.

What provides the force needed to keep a satellite in its orbit?

a)

Friction

b)

Gravity

c)

Tension

d)

Happiness

94.

Which of the following is the largest?

a)

Planet

b)

Galaxy

c)

Satellite

d)

Comet

95.

What is the reason a main sequence star is so stable?

a)

The number of atoms remain the same

b)

The radiation pressure balances the pressure of weight

c)

Magnetic forces within it hold it together

d)

It has plenty of emotional support from its friends

96.

The time required for earth to rotate once on its axis?

a)

Day

b)

Month

c)

Week

d)

Year

97.

A massive and dense object from which not even light can escape

a)

Black hole

b)

Supernova

c)

pulsar

d)

red giant

98.

What color are the hottest stars?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Orange

d)

Blue

99.

All stars begin their life in a

a)

Main sequence

b)

Nebula

c)

Protostar

d)

Black dwarf

100.

Our sun is currently in what star stage?

a)

Protostar

b)

Nebula

c)

Main sequence

d)

Red giant

101.

An object’s acceleration and centripetal force are

a)

At right angles to each other

b)

Anti-parallel to each other

c)

Making acute angles with each other

d)

In the same direction

102.

When a body is moving along a circular path, its velocity is directed towards the

a)

Center

b)

Normal

c)

Tangent

d)

Parallel to circle

103.

Centripetal force is directed towards the

a)

Tangent of the circle

b)

Center

c)

Normal to circle

d)

Parallel to circle

104.

Another name for the force of gravity acting on an object is

a)

Friction

b)

Air resistance

c)

Weight

d)

Mass

105.

The gravitational force acting on two-point masses is directly proportional to

a)

The sum of the masses

b)

Difference of masses

c)

Distance between masses

d)

Product of masses

106.

A fighter plane is pulling out for a dive at 900 km/h in a vertical circle of radius 2 km. Its mass is 5000 kg. Find the force exerted by the air on it at the lowest point.

a)

2.0625 x 10^4 N upward

b)

2.0625 x 10^5 N downward

c)

2.0625 x 10^5 N upward

d)

2.0625 x 10^4 N downward

107.

In uniforms circular motion

a)

Velocity is constant

b)

Angular velocity is constant

c)

Angular acceleration is constant

d)

None of these

108.

The work done on an object to bring it to a certain point in space is called

a)

Gravitational potential energy

b)

Potential energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Mechanical energy

109.

When a particle moves in a circle with a uniform speed

a)

its velocity and acceleration are both constant

b)

its velocity is constant but the acceleration changes

c)

its acceleration is constant but the velocity changes

d)

its velocity and acceleration both change

110.

The magnitude of centripetal force depends on

a)

mass of the body

b)

radius of the circular path

c)

linear velocity of the body

d)

 all of these

111.

The maximum displacement from equilibrium position is called the

a)

Frequency

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Period

112.

If the time period of oscillation is 0.40 s, then it’s frequency is

a)

2 Hz

b)

2.5 Hz

c)

3 Hz

d)

3.5 Hz

113.

This is the number of oscillations per unit time

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Frequency

d)

Period

114.

If an object moves back and forth repeatedly around a mean position, it is said to be…

a)

Oscillating

b)

Revolving

c)

Rotating

d)

Motion

115.

Oscillatory motion has a

a)

Straight lined graph

b)

Randomly lined graph

c)

Sinusoidal graph

d)

Asymptotic graph

116.

All substances have minimum internal energy at 

a)

Absolute zero

b)

Zero degrees Celsius

c)

Zero degrees Fahrenheit

d)

One hundred Kelvin

117.

If there is no transfer of energy between two objects, then their temperature is

a)

Same

b)

Different

c)

Zero

d)

Infinite

118.

The space occupied by a gas is

a)

Area

b)

Volume

c)

Space

d)

Mass

119.

The ideal gas equation is

a)

PV=constant

b)

PT=constant

c)

V/T

d)

PV=nRT

120.

What would be the effect on the particles if more heat is supplied to the system?

a)

They would slow down

b)

They would stop moving

c)

They would speed up

d)

There would be no effect.

121.

10 moles of carbon contain

a)

6.02 ×10^24 atoms

b)

6.03 ×10^23 atoms

c)

6.02 ×10^23 atoms

d)

6.04 ×10^24 atoms

122.

If the average kinetic energy of molecules is higher, then the temperature of the gas is

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Zero

d)

Infinite

123.

The law which relates pressure and volume of a gas is

a)

Charles’ law

b)

Avogadro’s law

c)

Boyle’s law

d)

Ideal gas law

124.

The freezing point of ethyl alcohol is 156 K, which is equal to

a)

426℃

b)

117℃

c)

-426℃

d)

-117℃

125.

The boiling point of mercury is 630 K, which is equal to

a)

357℃

b)

-357℃

c)

84℃

d)

-84℃

126.

A fixed mass of an ideal gas is initially at an absolute temperature, T and occupies a volume, V.  

The gas is adjusted so that the final pressure of the gas is half the magnitude of the initial pressure.

Which row of the table below, A to D gives the correct expressions for the final volume and temperature of the gas?

a)

b)

c)

d)

127.

If the pressure exerted by a gas at 25 degrees Celsius in a volume of 0.044 L is 3.81 atm, how many moles of gas are present?

a)

0.002766 mole

b)

0.0069 mole

c)

2.766 mole

d)

9.887 mole

128.

In order to solve gas law calculations, temperature must be measured in:

a)

Fahrenheit

b)

Celsius

c)

Kelvin

d)

It doesn’t matter

129.

Determine the Kelvin temperature required for 0.0470 mol of gas to fill a balloon to 1.20 L under 0.998 atm pressure

a)

0 K

b)

107 K

c)

207 K

d)

307 K

130.

How many moles of oxygen are there in 500 cm3 of gas at 298 K and 105 000 Pa?

(The gas constant R=8.31 J K-1 mol-1)

a)

0.020 mol

b)

2.02 x 10 -5 mol

c)

47.2 mol

d)

2.12 x 10^4 mol

131.

When a substance is melted, its temperature doesn’t rise because

a)

Energy is lost somewhere

b)

Energy is used to break the bonds

c)

Energy is used to make bonds

d)

Energy is absorbed to make bonds

132.

The particles involved in the movement within materials are

a)

Protons

b)

Electrons

c)

Neutrons

d)

Positrons

133.

The insulator material which is placed between 2 plates of a capacitor is called the

a)

Electric

b)

Dielectric

c)

Inductor

d)

Resistor

134.

What is the total capacitance of a 300 mF capacitor and a 600 mF capacitor that is connected in series?

a)

300 mF

b)

500 mF

c)

200 mF

d)

1000 mF

135.

If the capacitors are connected in series, then the potential difference across each capacitor is

a)

Same

b)

Different

c)

Zero

d)

Infinite

136.

Whenever there is a force on the magnetic pole, there exists

a)

Magnetic field

b)

Electric field

c)

Current

d)

Voltage

137.

Which of the following statements about magnetic fields is incorrect?

a)

The strength of a magnetic field is also known as the magnetic flux density

b)

There is a force on a conductor carrying a current at 900  to magnetic field lines

c)

The magnetic flux density is measure in units of Tesla, T

d)

There is a force on a conductor carrying a current parallel to magnetic field lines

138.

The graph of an alternating current is a

a)

Water wave

b)

Tan wave

c)

Curve

d)

Sine wave

139.

The process in which AC is converted to DC is called

a)

Induction

b)

Rectification

c)

Inversion

d)

Dispersion

140.

An electric kettle has the following label:

Power: 2000 to 2400 W

Voltage: 220 to 240 V

Frequency: 50 to 60 Hz

Which of the following is a probable expression of the current that passes through the kettle when used in Singapore?

a)

I=8.33 sin⁡(315t)

b)

I=10.9 sin⁡(315t)

c)

I=14.1 sin⁡(375t)

d)

I=16.0 sin⁡(375t)

141.

An alternating voltage V varies with time t according to the equation given below.

V=12cos (50πt)

What is the mean power dissipated in a resistive load of  10Ω?

a)

7.20 W

b)

12.0 W

c)

14.4 W

d)

28.8 W

142.

Which of the following supplies delivers the largest power to a 2.0Ω resistive load?

a)

 3.0VDC3.0V_{DC}  
​

b)

 4.5Vrms 50Hz Sinusoidal AC4.5V_{rms}\ 50Hz\ Sinusoidal\ AC  

c)

 6.0Vpeak 60Hz Sinusoidal AC6.0V_{peak}\ 60Hz\ Sinusoidal\ AC  

d)

 6.0 VDC with 1.0Ω6.0\ V_{DC}\ with\ 1.0\Omega  internal resistance

143.

A small charge q is placed in the electric field of a large charge Q.

Both charges experience a force F.

What is the electric field strength of the charge Q at the position of the charge q?

a)

FQq\frac{F}{Qq}

b)

FQ\frac{F}{Q}
​

c)

FqQ

d)

Fq\frac{F}{q}
​

144.

The electric field at a certain distance from an isolated alpha particle is 3.0×10^7 NC-1. 

What is the force on an electron when at that distance from the alpha particle?

a)

4.8x10^-12N

b)

9.6x10^-12N

c)

3.0x10^7N

d)

6.0×10^7N

145.

The diagram shows a pair of metal plates 4.0 mm apart connected to a 9.0 V battery. What is the electric field strength between the plates?

a)

4.4x10^-4 NC-1

b)

3.6x10^-2 NC-1

c)

36NC-1

d)

2.3x10^3 NC-1

146.

The diagram shows a non-uniform electric field near a positively charged and a negatively charged sphere. 

Four electrons, A, B,C, and D, are shown at different positions in the field.

On which electron is the direction of the force on the electron shown correctly?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

147.

A charged particle moves in a uniform electric field between two parallel metal plates. 

To calculate the force acting on the particle due to the electric field, which quantity is not required?

a)

Particle charge

b)

Particle speed

c)

Plate separation

d)

Potential difference between the plates

148.

Two parallel metal plates have a potential difference between them of 12 V. The distance between the plates is 1.0 mm.

What are the electric field strength between the plates and the work done on a charge of +3.9μC to move the charge from the negative plate to the positive plate?

a)

b)

c)

d)

149.

A potential difference is applied between two metal plates that are not parallel.

Which diagram shows the electric field between the plates?

a)

b)

c)

d)

150.

A particle situated between two parallel metal plates carries a charge of 8.0×10^-19C. 

The potential difference (p.d.) between the plates is 2000 V. A force of 3.2x10^-13N due to the electric field acts on the particle.

What is the distance between the plates?

a)

5 mm

b)

8 mm

c)

5 cm

d)

8 cm

151.

If the rms current in a 50 Hz AC circuit is 5 A, the value of the current 1/300 seconds after its value becomes zero is

a)

52A5\sqrt{2}A

b)

532A5\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}A

c)

56A\frac{5}{6}A

d)

52A\frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}A

152.

The expression that measures alternating voltage is

a)

V sin sinω

b)

Vo sin⁡ sin⁡ωt

c)

sin sint

d)

V=IR

153.

A component that allows only unidirectional current to pass through it is

a)

Resistor

b)

Inductor

c)

Transformer

d)

Diode

154.

The amount of equivalent DC voltage as compared to the peak voltage is approximately equal to

a)

50 %

b)

60 %

c)

70 %

d)

80 %

155.

When a voltage measuring device is connected to the AC mains, the meter shows a steady input voltage of 220 V. This means

a)

Input voltage cannot be AC voltage, but a DC voltage

b)

Maximum input voltage is 220 V

c)

The meter reads rms

d)

The pointer of the meter is stuck by some mechanical defect

156.

In alternating current (AC), the direction and magnitude of the current varies

a)

Randomly

b)

Periodically

c)

Exponentially

d)

Do not vary

157.

Value of current in an AC circuit is I=2cos cos (ωt+θ) . The value of IRMSI_{RMS} is:

a)

2A\sqrt[]{2}A

b)

12A\frac{1}{\sqrt[]{2}A}

c)

2A

d)

12A\frac{1}{2}A

158.

The peak value of an AC is 22A, its rms value will be:

a)

1 A

b)

2 A

c)

4 A

d)

Zero

159.

The frequency of an alternating current is 50 Hz. In how much time does it reverse its direction?

a)

1/10 second

b)

1/100 second

c)

10 seconds

d)

100 seconds

160.

If an alternating current is represented by I=10sin sin (314t) , where t is in seconds, then its frequency is around

a)

40 Hz

b)

50 Hz

c)

60 Hz

d)

70 Hz

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